Clinical Nutrition
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Clinical Nutrition is an interdisciplinary course that focuses on the role of nutrition in the prevention, diagnosis, and management of various medical conditions. The course covers the assessment of nutritional status, the physiological basis of nutrient requirements, and the formulation of dietary interventions for patients with acute and chronic illnesses. Students will explore nutrition therapy for conditions such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, gastrointestinal disorders, renal disease, and malnutrition, with an emphasis on evidence-based practice and patient-centered care. The curriculum integrates case studies and practical applications to develop skills in creating, implementing, and evaluating individualized nutrition care plans within clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook Nutrition for Health and Healthcare 6th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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23 Chapters
2040 Verified Questions
2040 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Minerals and water are organic and yield energy in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Nutrient-dense foods:
A) are iron rich.
B) contain a mixture of carbohydrate, fat, and protein.
C) carry nutrient labeling information.
D) deliver the most nutrients for the smallest number of kcalories.
E) contain an excess of added sugars.
Answer: D
Q3) Consumers who take vitamin/mineral supplements should be aware that excessive intakes can pose hazards, and refer to which values of the Dietary Reference Intakes?
A) Adequate Intake (AI)
B) Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
C) Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
D) Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL)
E) Estimated Energy Requirement (EER)
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immediately before passing into the large intestine, the food mass must pass though the:
A) pyloric sphincter.
B) lower esophageal sphincter.
C) ileocecal valve.
D) bolus.
E) colon.
Answer: C
Q2) After absorption, the water-soluble nutrients are released directly into the:
A) bloodstream.
B) kidneys.
C) liver.
D) lymph.
E) villi.
Answer: A
Q3) Explain the benefits of intestinal microflora to health.
Answer: The intestines contain beneficial bacteria that produce vitamins, such as biotin and vitamin K, as well as protect the body from infectious organisms. As long as the normal intestinal flora are present, infectious bacteria have a difficult time establishing and attacking the digestive system.
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Chapter 3: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about excessive sugar consumption is true?
A) It causes cancer.
B) It causes heart disease.
C) It causes dental caries.
D) It causes hyperactive behavior in children.
E) It causes gallbladder inflammation.
Answer: C
Q2) A client consumes 2000 kcalories per day and 200 grams of carbohydrate. This person meets the current dietary recommendations for carbohydrate intake.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A client consumes 2600 kcalories per day and 50 grams of carbohydrate from concentrated sweets. This client's sugar intake falls within the same range as added sugar intakes for the USDA Food Patterns recommendations.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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5
Chapter 4: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the health effects of omega-3 fatty acids and the recommendations regarding their intake.
Q2) A fatty acid with two or more double bonds is described as:
A) monounsaturated.
B) polyunsaturated.
C) emulsified.
D) homogenized.
E) essential.
Q3) Current dietary guidelines regarding fat include which of the following?
A) total fat intake should not exceed 35% of kcalories.
B) saturated fats should contribute less than 1% of kcalories.
C) an upper limit of 1500 milligrams cholesterol daily.
D) polyunsaturated fats should provide at least 10% of kcalories.
E) an upper limit of 8 grams of trans-fat daily.
Q4) Which of the following fats is mostly monounsaturated?
A) canola oil
B) corn oil
C) soybean oil
D) margarine
E) coconut oil
6
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Chapter 5: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The component that distinguishes one amino acid from another is its:
A) side group.
B) backbone.
C) amino group.
D) acid group.
E) coils.
Q2) Which of the following provides the largest amount of protein?
A) 1/2 cup cooked broccoli
B) 2 tablespoons peanut butter
C) 1 cup milk
D) 1 slice of bread
E) 1 cup tofu
Q3) The recommended intake of protein represents what percentage of daily energy intake?
A) 15-20%
B) 10-20%
C) 15-35%
D) 10-35%
E) 55-65%
Q4) What nutrition education would you offer a healthy vegan client?
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Chapter 6: Energy Balance and Body Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of fat poses the greatest risk to health?
A) visceral fat
B) dietary fat
C) subcutaneous fat
D) lower body fat
E) fat accumulated due to alcohol consumption
Q2) Which of the following individuals would have the lowest basal metabolic rate?
A) a pregnant woman
B) a tall, thin person
C) a malnourished person
D) a person with a fever
E) a bodybuilder
Q3) A smoker may weigh less than a non-smoker, but will likely have more visceral fat.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe how fat can be made from an excess of each of the energy nutrients-carbohydrate, protein, or fat.
Q5) Explain the mechanism through which excessive abdominal fat is thought to increase the risk of chronic disease.
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Chapter 7: Weight Management - Overweight and Underweight
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding fad diets?
A) They are based on credible scientific research.
B) The FDA requires proof that they work and are safe.
C) They usually offer distorted bits of legitimate research, which makes them sound feasible.
D) Scientists have overlooked the obvious facts and a lay person has figured out the key to successful weight loss.
E) They tend to follow current diet recommendations.
Q2) Weight-loss advice applies equally to all overweight people.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Intestinal bacteria that can influence energy balance are known as:
A) obesogenic.
B) obligate aerobes.
C) gastrointestinal viruses.
D) microbiota.
E) lipoprotein activators.
Q4) Briefly describe the following theories for the cause of obesity: (a) fat cell development. and (b) set-point theory
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Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may result from taking megadoses of vitamin C?
A) iron overload
B) scurvy
C) gout
D) gallstones
E) weight gain
Q2) Describe the factors that may interfere with vitamin D synthesis.
Q3) Absorption of which of the following requires the presence of intrinsic factor?
A) vitamin B6
B) vitamin D
C) vitamin B12
D) vitamin A
E) vitamin K
Q4) Beriberi is also called the thiamin-deficiency disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify factors that can place people at risk for vitamin E deficiency and explain why.
Q6) Identify three ways vitamin D helps to maintain blood concentrations of calcium and phosphorus.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a trace mineral?
A) iron
B) sulfur
C) calcium
D) potassium
E) magnesium
Q2) The UL for sodium intake for adults is set at:
A) 500 mg.
B) 1200 mg.
C) 1500 mg.
D) 2300 mg.
E) 3000 mg
Q3) Which of the following is a hormone secreted in response to elevated blood iron levels?
A) transferrin
B) ferritin
C) hemosiderin
D) hepcidin
E) myoglobin
Q4) How does fluoride exert a caries-reducing effect?
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Chapter 10: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Pregnancy and Infancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman wants to continue to exercise throughout her pregnancy. What activity would be most appropriate to recommend? A pregnant woman wants to continue to exercise throughout her pregnancy. What activity would be most appropriate to recommend?
A) Running
B) Horseback riding
C) Soccer
D) Swimming
E) Tennis
Q2) A breastfeeding mother should _____.
A) feed her infant on a schedule to ensure he eats at least 8 times each day
B) allow the infant to suckle about 4 minutes on each breast
C) always offer the same breast to the infant first when feeding
D) allow the infant to suckle on the first breast offered as long as he likes
E) give the infant a small amount of water between feedings to maintain hydration
Q3) Individual food cravings during pregnancy often reflect real physiological needs of the pregnant woman.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Among the following, foods that help most to meet children's iron requirements are
A) milk, cheese, or yogurt
B) oranges, apples, or bananas
C) prunes, grapes, or raisins
D) whole-wheat, enriched, or fortified breads
E) dark green, deep orange, or yellow vegetables
Q2) At about the first birthday, a child's appetite tends to ______.
A) increase dramatically
B) slow down
C) increase very slowly according to weight gain
D) intensify as related to sweets and sugar
E) expand, requiring at least 6 small meals per day
Q3) A concerned parent asks about how to best protect her child from lead exposure and possible toxicity. The best advice is to _____.
A) provide more foods that contain vitamin C
B) only use bottled water to make infant formula
C) prevent the child from putting old or dirty objects in his mouth
D) decrease the number of servings of red meat or poultry
Page 13
E) clean windowsills and door frames regularly with bleach
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Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Later
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Few older adults consume the recommend amount of _____ due to complaints about stomach discomfort.
A) meat
B) fruit
C) milk
D) bread
E) vegetables
Q2) Overweight people with osteoarthritis should avoid weight-bearing physical activities, such as jogging, as these types of activities place too much pressure on inflamed joints.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The best choice for older adults with small energy allowances is to _____.
A) take vitamin-mineral supplements
B) select nutrient-dense foods
C) consume less food
D) control alcohol consumption
E) increase fluid intake
Q4) Describe possible relationships between cataracts and nutrition.
Page 14
Q5) Why is dehydration a risk for older adults?
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Care and Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A disadvantage of using a food record is _____.
A) it is too time consuming for the patient
B) it only offers limited food lists for the consumer
C) it does not rely on the patient's memory for accuracy
D) it may provide more information than is needed
E) it is affected by seasonal changes in the diet
Q2) nursing diagnoses
Q3) Describe the major biochemical tests of protein status and briefly discuss their major advantages and disadvantages.
Q4) The nurse realizes that malnutrition is a common problem among people who are hospitalized and that it is associated with _____.
A) a weakened immune system
B) lower mortality rates
C) reduced health care costs
D) fewer complications
E) high blood pressure
Q5) 24-hour recall
Q6) anthropometric
Q7) pressure sores
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Chapter 14: Nutrition Intervention and Diet-Drug
Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most appropriate diet order for Mr. Salazar is a _____.
A) regular diet
B) soft diet
C) mechanical soft diet
D) blenderized diet
E) low-fiber diet
Q2) Because Mr. Salazar is taking lovastatin, he should be counseled to avoid _____.
A) apple juice
B) sauerkraut
C) green leafy vegetables
D) milk
E) grapefruit juice
Q3) Nutrition education or counseling is typically provided by the _____.
A) registered nurse
B) nursing assistant
C) registered dietitian
D) dietetic technician
E) physician
Q4) Describe the difference between a type of therapy that is considered "complementary" vs. one that is "alternative."
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Chapter 15: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) The energy density of most enteral formulas is between _____.
A) 0.5 and 0.9 kcalories per mL
B) 1.0 and 2.0 kcalorie per mL
C) 1.5 and 3.0 kcalories per mL
D) 2.0 and 4.0 kcalories per mL
E) 3.0 and 4.5 kcalories per mL
Q2) A formula that approximates the osmolality of normal blood serum _____.
A) is called a hypertonic formula
B) is referred to as an isotonic formula
C) has an osmolality of approximately 500 milliosmoles per liter
D) is usually a hydrolyzed formula
E) often causes constipation with use
Q3) When a patient receives enteral nutrition through tube feedings, they cannot eat food.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe characteristics of clients who are candidates for peripheral parenteral nutrition.
Q5) Differentiate between the characteristics and uses of standard formulas and hydrolyzed formulas.
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Chapter 16: Nutrition in Metabolic and Respiratory Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) The increase in basal metabolic rate as a part of the stress response can be attributed to _____.
A) catecholamines
B) cortisol
C) eicosanoids
D) cytokines
E) hepcidin
Q2) To decrease the risk of infection, it will be important to keep Kati's _____ under control while she is recovering.
A) serum albumin
B) blood glucose
C) blood pressure
D) serum prealbumin
E) nitrogen
Q3) In what way does nutrition support play a role in treatment of MODS?
A) Supporting gas exchange
B) Preventing excessive wasting
C) Promoting excretion of waste products
D) Maintaining blood pressure
E) Increasing cardiac output
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Chapter 17: Nutrition and Upper Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) On the day following surgery, Ms. Wilson will be allowed to consume what food or fluids?
A) Chicken broth
B) Saltine crackers
C) Tomato soup
D) Skim milk
E) A fruit smoothie
Q2) Following gastric resection, the nurse understands the need to limit _____ in the patient's diet.
A) fiber
B) meat
C) vegetables
D) sugar
E) dairy
Q3) What symptoms are most closely associated with early dumping syndrome?
A) Anxiety
B) Confusion
C) Hunger
D) Palpitations
E) Diarrhea
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Lower Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Q1) The nurse is planning for the nutritional needs of a patient with acute pancreatitis accompanied by pain and nausea. The nurse understands that initially _____.
A) all oral fluids and food should be withheld
B) the patient can have liquids only
C) tube feeding with an elemental formula should begin immediately
D) TPN should be started immediately
E) the patient should have a regular, fat-restricted diet
Q2) To help control diarrhea, a patient with an ostomy should consume _____.
A) applesauce
B) caffeine
C) sugar-free candy
D) grapes
E) milk
Q3) Celiac disease is characterized by an abnormal immune response to certain amino acids.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why are young people with cystic fibrosis short and very lean for their age?
Q5) Describe important components of nutrition management for people with ostomies.
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Chapter 19: Nutrition and Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because alcohol consumption can reduce the risk of developing some types of chronic disease, medical personnel should recommend that non-drinkers begin drinking alcohol occasionally to reduce their health risks.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What best describes a clinical effect of liver cirrhosis?
A) hand tremor
B) urinary incontinence
C) stiff neck
D) intestinal lesions
E) heart palpitations
Q3) Hepatomegaly refers to a surgical puncture of a body cavity with an aspirator to draw out excess fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) hyponatremia
Q5) Explain how chronic alcohol use can affect brain function.
Q6) fatty liver
Q7) cirrhosis
Q8) sinusoids
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Chapter 20: Nutrition and Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary cause of type 2 diabetes is autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sam is an African-American male who is obese and has a family history of diabetes. The nurse recognizes that Sam has _____ of the major risk factors for type 2 diabetes.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4
Q3) Which group of symptoms is characteristic of the metabolic syndrome?
A) insulin resistance, abdominal obesity, reduced HDL cholesterol levels
B) hypertension, hypoglycemia, abdominal obesity
C) elevated liver enzymes, insulin resistance, microalbuminuria
D) polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
E) urinary retention, excess sweating, edema
Q4) Identify the acute complications of diabetes and explain why they occur.
Q5) Describe the different methods of insulin delivery.
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Chapter 21: Nutrition and Disorders of the Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) People with tremors, spasticity, and uneven or jerky movements may benefit from the use of _____.
A) a rocker knife
B) a cutout plastic cup
C) weighted utensils
D) a battery-powered feeding machine
E) a flexible straw
Q2) Explain the medical nutrition therapy for hypertriglyceridemia.
Q3) Several of the major risk factors for CHD can be modified by diet and activity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Because of diuretic use and reduced physical activity, patients with heart failure are at higher risk of _____.
A) diarrhea
B) pressure sores
C) infection
D) constipation
E) delayed wound healing
Q5) Describe how atherosclerosis develops.
Page 23
Q6) Describe how disabilities can impair a person's ability to eat.
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Page 24
Chapter 22: Nutrition and Renal Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor may predispose an individual to kidney stone formation?
A) Increased volume of urine output
B) Intake of foods that contain tyrosine
C) Recent gastrointestinal infection
D) Changes in urinary acidity
E) Decreased tissue perfusion
Q2) Protein intake for Mr. Wilson should _____.
A) be restricted due to slow disease progression
B) be increased due to PEM
C) be limited to plant protein foods
D) be limited to animal protein foods
E) remain the same until he begins to lose weight
Q3) Weight gain can become a problem when peritoneal dialysis continues for an extended period of time. This is likely due to _____.
A) the kcalories contributed by the dialysate
B) a less restrictive diet
C) food cravings experienced by the patient
D) the body's adaptation to dialysis
E) fluid retention in the peritoneal cavity
Q4) Describe the potential consequences that can develop with nephrotic syndrome.
Page 25
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Chapter 23: Nutrition - Cancer - and HIV Infection
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Q1) Most often, cancer is caused by interactions between a person's genes and environmental agents.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most cancer patients abandon conventional treatments and use alternative therapies in the place of conventional therapies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Consumption of _____ may actually decrease the risk of prostate cancer.
A) milk and dairy products
B) tomato products
C) citrus fruits
D) whole grains
E) folate-containing foods
Q4) The medication megestrol acetate can improve appetite and increase weight in HIV patients.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the use of enteral and parenteral nutrition in cancer patients.
Q6) What factors contribute to the development of cancer cachexia?
Page 26
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