
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Clinical Nutrition focuses on the role of nutrition in the prevention, diagnosis, and management of diseases. The course examines the physiological and biochemical basis of nutrient requirements and metabolic responses during illness, injury, and recovery.
Students explore techniques for nutritional assessment, intervention strategies for specific clinical conditions such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, gastrointestinal disorders, and renal diseases, as well as enteral and parenteral nutrition support. The course integrates evidence-based approaches to diet therapy, patient counseling, and multidisciplinary collaboration for optimal health outcomes in clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Williams Basic Nutrition and Diet Therapy 15th Edition by Staci Nix McIntosh
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Q1) The number of kilocalories provided by one slice of bread that contains 30 g carbohydrate.3 g protein.and 1 g fat is _____ kcal.
A) 34
B) 136
C) 141
D) 306
Answer: C
Q2) The basic building units of protein are called _____ acids.
A) fatty
B) amino
C) nucleic
D) carboxyl
Answer: B
Q3) A patient asks you what he should eat to maintain an optimal diet.An appropriate response would be to
A) eat a variety of foods and eat in moderation.
B) avoid all fast food and processed foods.
C) eat only natural, organic foods.
D) use vitamin and mineral supplements to ensure adequate nutrients.
Answer: A
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Q1) The sugar to which all other sugars are converted and the one that circulates in the blood to provide major fuel for the body's cells is
A) sucrose.
B) fructose.
C) glucose.
D) maltose.
Answer: C
Q2) A negative effect of sugar alcohols is that they
A) contain more kilocalories than sugar.
B) can cause intoxication.
C) promote bacterial disease in the colon.
D) may cause diarrhea.
Answer: D
Q3) Carbohydrates are nutrients that are composed of the elements carbon.hydrogen.and
A) oxygen.
B) nitrogen.
C) water.
D) glucose.
Answer: A
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Q1) The hormone responsible for stimulating the gallbladder to contract and release bile into the small intestine is
A) gastric lipase.
B) cholecystokinin.
C) enteric lipase.
D) enterokinin.
Answer: B
Q2) Most fatty acids in plant foods are A) monounsaturated.
B) polyunsaturated.
C) unsaturated.
D) saturated.
Answer: C
Q3) An element not found in triglycerides is A) carbon.
B) hydrogen. C) nitrogen.
D) oxygen.
Answer: C
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Q1) Complementary proteins
A) provide higher quality protein when eaten together.
B) enhance each other's metabolic actions.
C) are more easily absorbed.
D) taste good together.
Q2) Protein plays an important role in the body
A) as the first source of energy fuel.
B) in the conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage.
C) as a coenzyme needed for energy utilization.
D) in defense against disease and infection.
Q3) Which of the following conditions might result in the greatest catabolism?
A) Growth
B) Multiple trauma with extensive organ damage
C) Rehabilitation after routine gallbladder surgery
D) Healing a broken bone in the arm
Q4) Proteins are built from simpler organic compounds called
A) indispensable amino acids.
B) amino acids.
C) fatty acids.
D) monosaccharides.
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Q1) Gas formation in the colon is the result of the A) ingestion of certain foods.
B) ingestion of too much water.
C) inadequate ingestion of fiber.
D) bacterial action on undigested items.
Q2) Conversion of amino acids to glucose is called A) metabolism.
B) glycogenosis.
C) gluconeogenesis.
D) catabolism.
Q3) Compared with the pH in the stomach.the pH in the small intestine is A) lower.
B) higher.
C) the same.
D) neutral.
Q4) The primary nutritional function of the large intestine is the A) absorption of fats.
B) absorption of water.
C) excretion of waste products.
D) completion of the digestive process.

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Q1) The estimated daily basal metabolic rate for a man who weighs 150 lb is _____ kcal.
A) 1500
B) 1575
C) 1636
D) 1686
Q2) The body's sources of stored energy include
A) glucose.
B) adipose tissue.
C) undigested food.
D) bone.
Q3) The unit of measurement used to refer to the amount of energy in food is the A) watt.
B) kilogram.
C) milligram.
D) kilocalorie.
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Q1) The disease associated with niacin deficiency is A) anemia.
B) cheilosis.
C) pellagra.
D) beriberi.
Q2) There is a metabolic partnership between vitamin E and A) zinc.
B) chromium.
C) selenium.
D) iron.
Q3) Foods rich in phytochemicals include A) mushrooms and algae.
B) fruits and vegetables.
C) yogurt and goat's milk.
D) soy milk and tofu.
Q4) The vitamin most closely associated with protein metabolism is A) thiamin.
B) pyridoxine.
C) folic acid.
D) choline.
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Q1) The two minerals that occur in the water outside cells and regulate water balance are
A) calcium and potassium.
B) sodium and chloride.
C) phosphorus and magnesium.
D) iron and zinc.
Q2) An important function of sodium is
A) energy metabolism.
B) water balance.
C) tooth formation.
D) nerve conduction.
Q3) Two foods that are good sources of nutrients most important in bone formation are
A) margarine and apples.
B) milk and yogurt.
C) bread and red meat.
D) cereal and yogurt.
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Q1) Oral rehydration therapy is preferred over intravenous therapy for fluid replacement caused by diarrhea because it
A) is quicker.
B) tastes better.
C) is more readily available.
D) provides electrolytes as well as fluid.
Q2) Mr.J.consumes approximately 1500 mL/day from fluid contained in liquids and foods and from the metabolism of foods.What percent of his fluid requirement does he meet if he requires 2400 mL/day?
A) 41%
B) 51%
C) 62%
D) 84%
Q3) An example of an electrolyte is A) glucose.
B) iron.
C) potassium.
D) carbon dioxide.
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Q1) An acceptable ending pregnancy weight for a woman whose prepregnancy weight is 125 lb is
A) 130 to 135 lb.
B) 135 to 145 lb.
C) 145 to 150 lb.
D) 150 to 160 lb.
Q2) A pregnant vegetarian can help prevent development of iron-deficiency anemia by consuming foods high in
A) vitamin C.
B) vitamin D.
C) folate.
D) protein.
Q3) Adequate folate in the periconceptional period helps prevent A) cretinism.
B) mental retardation.
C) neural tube defects.
D) gestational diabetes.
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Q1) Effective strategies for weight management in children include A) regular physical activity.
B) counting the calorie intake.
C) eliminating snacks.
D) eliminating fried foods.
Q2) Hypervitaminosis of vitamins A or D is most likely to occur because of
A) excessive milk intake.
B) overexposure to the sun.
C) overuse of vitamin supplements.
D) inadequate intake of vegetables and fruits.
Q3) The ideal first food for infants is
A) human milk.
B) cow's milk.
C) soy-based formula.
D) amino acid-based formula.
Q4) The phase that shows the most erratic growth is A) infancy.
B) childhood.
C) adolescence.
D) adulthood.
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Q1) An older adult is most likely to have an inadequate nutrient intake if he or she lives
A) in a retirement community.
B) with a spouse.
C) alone.
D) with family.
Q2) A 42-year-old who makes his or her own decisions regarding whom to marry and what type of family is desired is considered to be making
A) independent choices.
B) dependent choices.
C) wealthy choices.
D) introspective choices.
Q3) Contributing factors for osteoporosis include
A) inadequate calcium and vitamin D intake.
B) increased estrogen after menopause.
C) excess weight.
D) excess iron intake.
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Q1) To increase shelf life.an example of a food that may be treated by irradiation is A) an apple.
B) yogurt.
C) a hotdog.
D) milk.
Q2) Someone who has flu-like symptoms (severe diarrhea.fever.and headache)2 days after attending a catered event probably has A) influenza.
B) a food-borne infection.
C) bacterial food poisoning.
D) heavy metal poisoning.
Q3) The main government agency responsible for food safety is the
A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
B) U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
C) U.S. Public Health Service (PHS).
D) Federal Trade Commission (FTC).
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Q1) A factor that has the least effect on food habits is A) food availability.
B) economics.
C) health and nutrition.
D) beliefs regarding food.
Q2) On special occasions and holidays.an Italian family that has immigrated to the United States is most likely to serve
A) chicken fried rice.
B) chicken Parmesan.
C) chicken enchiladas.
D) chicken and dumplings.
Q3) A new food or new advice about food is more readily accepted if it comes from A) a dietitian.
B) a grocery clerk.
C) a hairdresser.
D) an advertiser.
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Q1) A hormone that seems to control eating behavior and fat storage is A) insulin.
B) thyroxine.
C) leptin.
D) growth hormone.
Q2) The most significant contributing factor to the increase in obesity in the United States is
A) excessive alcohol intake.
B) excessive sugar intake.
C) lack of exercise.
D) lack of concern about weight control.
Q3) Body wraps result in a loss of A) muscle tissue.
B) cellulite.
C) body fat.
D) water.
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Q1) An example of a meal that could help maximize performance if eaten before athletic competition is
A) a cheeseburger with french fries.
B) grilled chicken, french fries, and cola.
C) whole grain pasta with tomatoes and spinach.
D) fried chicken breast, onion rings, and lemonade.
Q2) Before running three miles.an athlete should
A) take a 5-minute shower to prevent fatigue.
B) perform 25 push-ups for muscle strength.
C) eat a high-protein, high-fat meal for energy.
D) warm up slowly with moderate exercise.
Q3) If a young adult wants to maximize his or her bone density.a type of exercise that may be helpful is
A) swimming.
B) cycling.
C) running.
D) yoga.
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Q1) A laboratory test that indicates immune function is the A) serum albumin.
B) serum transferrin.
C) hematocrit.
D) lymphocyte count.
Q2) An oral diet can be modified by
A) energy value, temperature, or cooking method.
B) nutrient content, temperature, or spice content.
C) energy value, energy density, or texture.
D) nutrient content, energy value, or texture.
Q3) Methods used for nutrition assessment of patients include A) computed tomographic scans.
B) laboratory tests.
C) physical therapy.
D) fitness testing.
Q4) Hospitalized patients should be weighed
A) naked.
B) every day.
C) at the same time each day.
D) before they go to the bathroom.

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Q1) The primary objective of treatment of hepatic encephalopathy is to A) encourage the patient to eat.
B) feed the patient parenterally to give the liver a rest.
C) remove sources of excess ammonia.
D) encourage the patient to exercise and maintain mental functions.
Q2) Pathologic changes in the liver caused by cirrhosis include A) fatty infiltration.
B) spongy tissue formation.
C) gallstone formation.
D) edema and swelling.
Q3) A patient with a history of diverticulosis who complains of severe.left lower quadrant pain with diarrhea.nausea.and vomiting should be evaluated for A) diverticulitis.
B) obstruction.
C) appendicitis.
D) celiac disease.
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Q1) Nutrition therapy for those with heart failure restricts sodium to
A) 1.0 g per day.
B) 1.5 g per day.
C) 2.0 g per day.
D) 2.5 g per day
Q2) The best way to control coronary heart disease is
A) through early diagnosis.
B) to meet regularly with a dietitian.
C) to eliminate fat from the diet.
D) to develop a heart-healthy lifestyle during childhood.
Q3) The dish that is most likely to be consistent with the Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH)recommendations is
A) a grilled cheese sandwich.
B) pork fried rice.
C) beef tacos.
D) lentil curry.
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Q1) A patient with type 2 diabetes eats a high-protein.very low-carbohydrate diet to try to lose weight.The main long-term concern if the patient continues this eating pattern would be
A) excessive weight loss.
B) the development of hypertension.
C) the development of liver disease
D) the development of neuropathy.
Q2) An example of a food that would be part of the carbohydrate exchange group would be
A) whole-wheat bread.
B) vanilla ice cream.
C) white tuna.
D) skim milk.
Q3) The three common.long-term complications of diabetes affect the cells of the A) pancreas, liver, and spleen.
B) kidney, eye, and nerve tissue.
C) kidney, liver, and spleen.
D) heart, liver, and brain.
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Q1) One of the first recommendations for any type of kidney stone is to A) increase the fiber in the diet.
B) reduce calcium intake.
C) increase fluid intake.
D) decrease protein intake.
Q2) The type of diet recommended for a person with a calcium stone depends on A) body weight.
B) the composition of the stone.
C) fiber intake.
D) fluid intake.
Q3) Carbohydrates and fats are important in the diets of patients with kidney disease because they A) prevent fatigue.
B) spare protein for tissue synthesis.
C) are low in sodium.
D) are metabolized before they reach the kidney.
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Q1) An example of a food item that is usually not part of a regular oral diet is A) steamed broccoli.
B) braised chicken.
C) a baked potato.
D) puréed carrots.
Q2) The most common nutritional deficiency among surgical patients is a deficiency of A) vitamin C.
B) iron.
C) protein.
D) essential fatty acids.
Q3) Immediately following a gastrectomy.initial postoperative nutrition feedings are met by
A) small, frequent oral feedings.
B) jejunostomy feedings.
C) total parenteral nutrition.
D) an oral full liquid diet.
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Q1) Patients who receive chemotherapeutic drugs often develop A) tremors.
B) anemia.
C) hypertension.
D) abnormal heart rhythms.
Q2) The nutrition care plan for AIDS patients is
A) the same as for healthy individuals.
B) consistent throughout the course of the disease.
C) based on the CD4+ T-lymphocyte count.
D) individualized and continually adjusted throughout the course of the disease.
Q3) Factors associated with the development of cancer include A) foods that are microwaved.
B) radiation exposure.
C) food-borne disease.
D) diabetes mellitus.
Q4) An appropriate intervention for a patient with neutropenia would be to A) drink liquids between meals rather than with meals.
B) cook food items immediately after thawing.
C) eat at least six, small meals each day.
D) serve soy-based milk rather than cow's milk.
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