Clinical Nursing Skills
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Nursing Skills is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the essential hands-on abilities required for effective patient care in clinical settings. Emphasizing safety, accuracy, and compassionate practice, the course covers fundamental nursing procedures such as vital sign measurement, medication administration, wound care, infection control, intravenous therapy, and patient mobility techniques. Through a blend of classroom instruction, simulation labs, and supervised clinical experiences, students gain confidence and proficiency in performing key nursing interventions, adhering to ethical standards, and collaborating with healthcare teams to promote optimal patient outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Nursing Skills and Techniques 8th Edition by
Anne Griffin Perry
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44 Chapters
1316 Verified Questions
1316 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2003 Page 2
Chapter 1: Using Evidence in Nursing Practice
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39771
Sample Questions
Q1) ____________________ is the extent to which a study's findings are valid, reliable, and relevant to your patient population of interest.
Answer: Scientific rigor
Scientific rigor is the extent to which a study's findings are valid, reliable, and relevant to your patient population of interest.
Q2) The nurse is not sure that the procedure the patient requires is the best possible for the situation.Utilizing which of the following resources would be the quickest way to review research on the topic?
A)CINAHL
B)PubMed
C)MEDLINE
D)The Cochrane Library
Answer: D
Q3) _________________ is a guide for making accurate, timely, and appropriate clinical decisions.
Answer: Evidence-based practice
Evidence-based practice is a guide for making accurate, timely, and appropriate clinical decisions.
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3
Chapter 2: Admitting, Transfer, and Discharge
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is admitting the patient to the medical unit.The patient indicates that he has had several surgeries in the past and has been a diabetic for the past 15 years.He also earlier that morning, but the pain has finally gone since he received a "pain shot" in the emergency department.What does this information prompt the nurse to do next?
A)Provide the patient with an allergy arm band and document his allergies.
B)Postpone routine admission procedures immediately.
C)Ask the patient if he wants a smoking room.
D)Have all family or friends leave the room.
Answer: A
Q2) The patient has been admitted to the emergency department after being beaten and raped.She is agitated and is frightened that her attacker may find her in the hospital and try to kill her.What should the nurse tell her?
A)She is safe in the hospital, and she needs to provide her name.
B)She can be admitted to the hospital without anyone knowing it.
C)Her records will be used as evidence in the trial.
D)Since she has come to the hospital, she has to be examined by the doctor. Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Communication
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse observes that the patient is pacing in his room with clenched fists.When asked "What's wrong?" the patient states, "There's nothing wrong.I just want out of here." He then bangs his fist on the table and yells, "I've had it!" How should the nurse respond? (Select all that apply.)
A)Tell the patient that he needs to calm down.
B)Pause to collect her own thoughts.
C)Block the doorway.
D)Notify the proper authorities.
Answer: B, D
Q2) The nurse is about to go over the patient's preoperative teaching per hospital protocol.She finds the patient sitting in bed wringing her hands, which are sweaty, and acting slightly agitated.The patient states, "I'm scared that something will go wrong tomorrow." How should the nurse respond?
A)Redirect her focus to dealing with the patient's anxiety.
B)Tell the patient that everything will be all right and continue teaching.
C)Tell the patient that she will return later to do the teaching.
D)Give the patient antianxiety medication.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Documentation and Informatics
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nursing documentation must have which of the following characteristics? (Select all that apply.)
A)Factual
B)Organized
C)Public
D)Complete
Q2) ________________ provide a quick, easy reference for health care team members in assessing the patient's status.
Q3) What is the goal of information management? (Select all that apply.)
A)Support decision making.
B)Improve patient outcomes.
C)Ensure patient safety.
D)Improve health care documentation.
E)None of above
Q4) To limit liability, nursing documentation must clearly indicate that the nurse provided individualized, goal-directed nursing care to a patient based on the
Q5) Standardized care plans are effective ways to plan care for the patient.To be most effective, however, the SCP must be _________________.
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Chapter 5: Vital Signs
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When heat loss mechanisms are unable to keep pace with heat production, ____________ is the result.
Q2) The nurse chooses a sphygmomanometer that has a circular gauge and a needle that registers the millimeter calibrations.This type of device is known as a(n) _____ manometer.
A)mercury
B)electronic
C)aneroid
D)direct (invasive)
Q3) The nurse should report an assessment of _____ respirations per minutes for a(n) _____.
A)14; adult patient
B)16; 8-year-old patient
C)25; toddler
D)38; newborn
Q4) The nurse is taking a rectal temperature on an adult patient.She expects to insert the thermometer __________ inches.
Q5) _____________ occurs when the systolic blood pressure falls to 90 mm Hg or below.
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Chapter 6: Health Assessment
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What technique should the nurse implement for assessment of the carotid artery?
A)Massaging the arteries briskly
B)Using the diaphragm of the stethoscope
C)Palpating each carotid artery separately
D)Placing the patient in a supine position
Q2) Measurement of the patient's ability to differentiate between sharp and dull sensations over the forehead tests which cranial nerve?
A)Abducens
B)Facial
C)Trigeminal
D)Oculomotor
Q3) The nurse is assessing the neurologic status of a patient.She uses the handle end of a reflex hammer to stroke the lateral aspect of the sole of the foot.She notes that the great toe dorsiflexes and the other toes spread out like a fan.What does this indicate?
A)A positive Romberg's test
B)A negative Babinski's reflex
C)A hyperactive patellar tendon reflex
D)A normal reflex in a child younger than age 2
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8
Chapter 7: Medical Asepsis
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________________ is the absence of pathogenic (disease-producing) microorganisms.
Q2) The nurse has a "scratchy throat" and has been sniffling for 2 days.While at work, she wears a protective mask when coming into contact with her patients.She does this in an attempt to protect them from a __________________.
Q3) The nurse knows that the basic concept of all patient care that is implemented to prevent the spread of infection from blood, body fluids, secretions, excretions, nonintact skin, and mucus membranes is __________________.
Q4) The primary strategies for prevention of infection transmission with regard to contact with blood, body fluids, nonintact skin, and mucous membranes are known as ______________.
Q5) Before entering the room of a patient on isolation where all protective barriers are required, the nurse first puts on the: A)gown.
B)gloves.
C)eyewear.
D)mask/respirator.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Sterile Technique
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____________ is one practice designed to make and maintain objects and areas free from pathogenic microorganisms.
Q2) A nurse is preparing a sterile field for a dressing change using surgical aseptic technique.The nurse gathers supplies to prepare the sterile field using a packaged drape.Which option correctly describes how the nurse should set up the field?
A)Don sterile gloves before opening the packaged drape.
B)Clean the bottle of irrigation solution with alcohol before placing the bottle on the field.
C)Avoid dropping sterile supplies close to the 1-inch border around the drape.
D)Leave the sterile field unattended to obtain needed supplies.
Q3) When performing sterile aseptic procedures, the nurse must create a _____________ in which objects can be handled with minimal risk for contamination.
Q4) A type I hypersensitivity to latex is evident if the nurse assesses:
A)localized swelling.
B)skin redness and itching.
C)runny eyes and nose and cough.
D)tachycardia, hypotension, and wheezing.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Safe Patient Handling, Transfer, and Positioning
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plantar flexion contracture, otherwise known as _____________, is caused when the force of gravity pulls an unsupported, weakened foot into a plantar-flexed position.
Q2) The patient is an elderly man who has just been admitted for a probable cerebrovascular accident.The patient is nonverbal and does not respond to requests but is able to turn himself in bed.The nurse notices that the patient likes to lie on his right side, and soon after being turned by the nursing staff, the patient turns back to his right side.The nurse in this case should:
A)allow the patient to lie on his right side continuously because he seems comfortable.
B)prevent the patient from lying on his right side until he no longer wishes to lie on that side.
C)frequently assess the patient and turn him more frequently.
D)allow the patient to lie on his right side until a pressure ulcer develops and he can no longer lie on that side.
Q3) A nursing skill that helps a weakened or dependent patient or patients with restricted mobility to attain positions to regain optimal independence is known as ________________.
Q4) Awareness of posture and changes in equilibrium is known as _______________.
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11
Chapter 10: Exercise and Ambulation
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the four gaits listed below are compared, which is the most stable of the crutch gaits?
A)Four-point gait
B)Three-point gait
C)Two-point gait
D)Swing-to gait
Q2) A patient is admitted to the medical unit following a cerebrovascular accident ( CVA ).Evidence of left-sided hemiparesis is noted, and the nurse will be following up on ROM and other exercises performed in physical therapy.The nurse should correctly teach the patient and family members which of the following principles of ROM exercises?
A)Flex the joint to the point of discomfort.
B)Medicate the patient after the ROM exercise session.
C)Move the joints quickly.
D)Provide support for distal joints.
Q3) A nurse encourages a patient to prevent venous stasis by:
A)crossing the legs when sitting in a chair.
B)wearing thigh-length nylon stockings or garters.
C)elevating the legs on pillows while in bed.
D)increasing early ambulation.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Orthopedic Measures
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is admitted for a fractured tibia.The nurse is preparing for cast application and expects to administer a(n) _____ to the patient minutes before the procedure.
A)oral analgesic 10
B)intramuscular (IM) analgesic 10
C)intravenous (IV) analgesic 2 to 5
D)muscle relaxant 10
Q2) The patient has a broken leg and needs to have a cast applied.When plaster of Paris is compared and contrasted versus the newer synthetic casts, which of the following statements is true?
A)Plaster of Paris can tolerate earlier weight bearing than synthetic casts.
B)Plaster of Paris is more expensive than synthetic casts.
C)Synthetic casts can withstand contact with water better than plaster of Paris.
D)Synthetic casts are lighter but take longer to set than plaster of Paris.
Q3) Skeletal traction is implemented primarily for: (Select all that apply.)
A)simple fracture.
B)multiple trauma.
C)fractured ankle.
D)acetabular fracture.
E)cervical fracture.
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Chapter 12: Support Surfaces and Special Beds
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Air-fluidized beds require the nurse to assess for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)The patient's fluid and electrolyte status
B)The patient's financial status
C)The structural strength of the room where the bed will be
D)The room temperature
E)None of above
Q2) The nurse understands that an _____________________using foam, air, water, or gel can be placed on top of the mattress to provide pressure relief.
Q3) After comparing the following support surfaces, the nurse realizes that an extremely obese patient should benefit from the use of a(n):
A)bariatric bed.
B)foam mattress.
C)water mattress.
D)air-fluidized bed.
Q4) ____________ are defined as localized injury to the skin and/or underlying tissue, usually over a bony prominence, as a result of pressure, or pressure in combination with shear and/or friction.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Safety and Quality Improvement
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse do to promote patient understanding and security in the health care setting?
A)Restrain the patient as necessary.
B)Explain all procedures to the patient.
C)Allow the patient more time alone.
D)Restrict activity as much as possible.
Q2) Given the most common causes of hospital fires, which of the following choices are most appropriate in preventing patient injury?
A)Assure that all electrical devices are checked by engineering.
B)Assist patients who smoke to a safe area to smoke.
C)Prop fire doors open for easier patient access.
D)Educate patients on the importance of smoking cessation.
Q3) When applying a belt restraint to a patient, it is important for the nurse to:
A)apply the belt under the hospital gown.
B)place the restraint around the abdomen.
C)have the patient in a sitting position.
D)apply the belt as tightly as possible.
Q4) A thumb-less device used to restrain patients' hands to prevent them from dislodging invasive equipment, removing dressings, or scratching is known as a
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Chapter 14: Disaster Preparedness
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is the sorting of individuals by the seriousness of their condition and the likelihood of their survival.
Q2) Upon arriving at a mass causality scene, health care providers using the SALT approach will initiate triage by doing which of the following first?
A)Assess
B)Move
C)Sort
D)Send
Q3) After a suspected radiological exposure, the initial scan of the patient's extremities is positive.What will be the next step in this patient's care?
A)Washing the skin with soap and water while taking care not to irritate or abrade the skin
B)Removing clothing to eliminate 70% to 90% of the contamination
C)Isolating and covering up any skin that is positive for radiation using a plastic wrap
D)Conducting a thorough survey of the patient's entire body with the radiation sensing equipment
Q4) It is recommended that every household prepare a ____________.
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Chapter 15: Pain Assessment and Basic Comfort Measures
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______________________ is a massage technique used on tense muscles to "knead" muscles, promote relaxation, and stimulate local circulation.
Q2) Catheter migration into the______________ can produce dangerously high medication levels.Only physicians and nurse anesthetists administer drugs in this space.
Q3) The patient is admitted with chronic pain.She states that nothing takes the pain away totally, but that "Dilaudid works best." The fact that the patient calls the medication by name should alert the nurse to:
A)suspect that the patient is drug seeking.
B)expect that the patient may need smaller doses than normal.
C)assess the patient's acceptable level of comfort.
D)accept the fact that nothing will help this patient's pain.
Q4) The nurse is preparing to administer a bolus of epidural medication.The nurse must remember to:
A)clean the injection cap of the epidural catheter with an anti-infective according to agency policy.
B)clean the injection cap of the epidural catheter with alcohol.
C)inject opioids quickly and smoothly.
D)flush with saline after the injection.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Palliative Care
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient was brought into the emergency department with a cardiac arrest after suffering multiple gunshot wounds.The patient did not survive even after multiple attempts at resuscitation.The nurse is preparing the body for transport to the morgue by completing hospital procedures for __________________.
Q2) The patient is being admitted to the hospital for injuries received when a hurricane destroyed her home.She is upset from the loss of her home and possessions.What type of loss is this considered?
A)Necessary loss
B)Maturational loss
C)Situational loss
D)Perceived loss
Q3) A person experiences an actual _________ when an object or a person can no longer be felt, heard, or experienced.
Q4) Nurses provide _______________ that is defined as care of the body after death in a manner consistent with the patient's religious and cultural beliefs.
Q5) An _______________ is the surgical dissection of a body after death.
Q6) The irreversible absence of all brain function is termed ______________.
Q7) _____________ helps people live as well as possible through the dying process.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Personal Hygiene and Bed Making
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shaving with a disposable razor is contraindicated for a patient with:
A)heart disease.
B)diabetes mellitus.
C)a head injury.
D)a bleeding disorder.
Q2) ______________ are mucous membranes with underlying supportive tissue that encircle the neck of erupted teeth to hold them in place.
Q3) Patients at greatest risk for developing serious foot problems include those with: (Select all that apply.)
A)peripheral neuropathy.
B)peripheral vascular disease.
C)pancreatitis.
D)diabetes.
Q4) The development of diabetic foot ulcers is dependent on which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Peripheral neuropathy
B)Tissue ischemia
C)Trauma to the foot
D)Pain in the affected extremity
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Chapter 18: Pressure Ulcer Care
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients are at risk for developing pressure ulcers on which areas of the body? (Select all that apply.)
A)Coccyx
B)Nares
C)Ears
D)Genitalia
E)None of above
Q2) A _______________ is a localized injury to the skin and/or underlying tissue, usually over a bony prominence, as a result of pressure, or pressure in combination with shear and/or friction.
Q3) The nurse is planning care for her patient who has a stage II pressure ulcer.Care should include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)A heat lamp to dry the wound
B)Application of topical antibiotics
C)Nutritional assessment
D)Maintaining moisture in the wound
Q4) The removal of devitalized tissue in a wound is known as ______________.
Q5) When skin layers adhere to the linens and deeper tissue layer move downward, ________ damage occurs.
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Chapter 19: Care of the Eye and Ear
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When removing and cleansing a patient's eye prosthesis, the nurse:
A)places the patient in a prone position.
B)retracts the upper eyelid with her thumb and forefinger.
C)cleans the prosthesis using an alcohol solution.
D)cleans the prosthesis using mild soap and water.
Q2) The patient is brought to the emergency department after receiving a chemical burn to his eyes.The doctor orders immediate eye irrigations.Of the following solutions, which would be the most beneficial for this patient?
A)Lactated Ringer's solution
B)Normal saline
C)Tap water
D)Dextrose and water
Q3) The patient is brought into the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident.The patient is unresponsive.The nurse is concerned about whether or not the patient wears contact lenses because contact lenses that are not removed can cause
Q4) A _____________ is a small, battery-powered, electronic device that amplifies sound.
Q5) ____________ is the complete surgical removal of the eyeball.
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Chapter 20: Safe Medication Preparation
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is complaining of severe leg pain.No pain medication is ordered, so the nurse calls the health care provider.An order for Tylenol with Codeine prn is given, in addition to a one-time order for morphine sulfate to be given stat.Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A)Give the morphine sulfate and Tylenol with Codeine immediately.
B)Give the Tylenol with Codeine now.
C)Give the morphine sulfate immediately.
D)Ask the patient which medication he would like first.
Q2) An 80-year-old patient who complains of feeling "anxious" is given lorazepam (Ativan).The patient becomes agitated and delirious.The nurse documents this reaction to Ativan as which of the following?
A)Toxicity
B)Side effect
C)Idiosyncratic reaction
D)Allergic reaction
Q3) The nurse administers 100 mg of a drug at 0800.The drug's biological half-life is 4 hours.A serum drug level is drawn at 1600.The nurse should anticipate ___________ milligrams will be left in the body at 1600?
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22
Chapter 21: Oral and Topical Medications
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient how to use a topical medication.Which statement indicates an understanding of the procedure?
A)"If the patch starts to come off, I can secure it with tape."
B)"If the patch falls off, I will put a new one on in the same place."
C)"If my skin is irritated, I will cleanse it using water only."
D)"I can dispose of used materials in the household trash as usual."
Q2) The nurse is preparing a medication for a small child.The medication comes in pill or liquid form, but the liquid preparation has a bitter taste.Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A)Give the pill form.
B)Mix the liquid with honey.
C)Mix the liquid in milk.
D)Mix the liquid in applesauce.
Q3) Several patients have been prescribed inhalation medications.The nurse is aware that a spacer will be beneficial for which patient?
A)A young child using a dry powder inhaler
B)An elderly patient who uses a metered-dose inhaler
C)A teenager who has just started using a nebulizer
D)A young child who needs medication several times per day
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Parenteral Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to draw up a medication using a filter needle and a syringe.This equipment is necessary when the medication is being withdrawn from an
Q2) While checking the patient's intravenous (IV) site, the nurse notices that the site is cool, pale, and swollen.She immediately stops the IV infusion, realizing that these are signs indicating _____________.
Q3) The nurse is preparing to give a medication by IV bolus.When assessing the patient's IV insertion site, the nurse notes that it is warm, reddened, and tender.What action should the nurse take first?
A)Slow the infusion rate and slowly inject the medication.
B)Discontinue the IV infusion.
C)Inject a local anesthetic to relieve the tenderness.
D)Apply warm compresses over the insertion site.
Q4) The nurse informs the patient that the medication will be absorbed rapidly because it was injected into tissue with a rich blood supply.The patient has just received a ______________ injection.
Q5) The nurse injects the medication into the loose connective tissue just under the dermis when giving a _____________ injection.
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Chapter 23: Oxygen Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient with asthma how to measure peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR).What should be included in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)
A)Assume a recumbent position before measuring PEFR.
B)Take a deep breath in, exhale, then place the mouthpiece in the mouth and form a firm seal with the lips.
C)After placing the mouthpiece in the mouth, blow out as hard and as fast as possible through the mouth in only one single breath.
D)Measure PEFR 3 times and record the highest number.
Q2) A patient is planning to perform incentive spirometry after abdominal surgery.The nurse should encourage the patient to do which of the following?
A)Get comfortable in a semi-reclined position.
B)Inhale as deeply as possible and then exhale into the incentive spirometry device.
C)Hold the breath for at least 3 seconds before exhaling.
D)Exhale as quickly as possible.
Q3) The amount of air inspired and expired with each breath while a patient is on mechanical ventilation is known as the ________________.
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Chapter 24: Performing Chest Physiotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse auscultates the patients' lung fields and notes congestion in several patients.The nurse anticipates that postural drainage may be used for the patient with which condition?
A)Congestive heart failure with pulmonary edema
B)History of cigarette smoking with recent hemoptysis
C)Chronic bronchitis with frequent coughing
D)Pulmonary embolism after a long international flight
Q2) The nurse receives orders for postural drainage using Trendelenburg's position.On which patients should the nurse question the order? (Select all that apply.)
A)Patient with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease ( GERD )
B)Postsurgical patient with a distended abdomen
C)Patient with blood pressure of 180/100
D)Patient with bronchiectasis on chest x-ray
Q3) The _______________ provides positive expiratory pressure (PEP) with oral airway oscillations.
Q4) The system that lines the internal lumen of the tracheobronchial tree and consists of a thin layer of mucus that constantly is propelled toward the larynx by cilia is called the
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Chapter 25: Airway Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing nasotracheal suctioning for a 13-year-old patient with secretions in the throat and trachea.Which action by the nurse demonstrates proper technique?
A)Applying sterile petroleum jelly to the distal tip of the suction catheter
B)Applying clean gloves to both hands
C)Inserting the suction catheter 6 to 8 inches during inspiration
D)Suctioning the pharynx first and then the trachea
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a tracheostomy.To prevent the patient from developing an airway obstruction, the nurse assesses which of the following?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Patient's nutritional status
B)Environmental humidity
C)Existing respiratory infection
D)Patient's ability to cough
E)None of above
Q3) A patient has extremely copious and thick oral secretions.The nurse provides oropharyngeal suctioning using a _________________ suction device.
Q4) Too much oxygen reduces the drive to breathe in patients with chronic
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Chapter 26: Closed Chest Drainage Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) During assessment of a patient, the chest tube becomes dislodged.What should the nurse do first?
A)Have an assistant apply an occlusive gauze dressing and tape on all four sides.
B)Clamp the chest tube.
C)Attempt to gently reinsert the tube.
D)Apply pressure over the insertion site.
Q2) The nurse knows that _______________ is the proper term to describe that the patient's water seal is fluctuating up and down with each breath.
A)bubbling
B)tidaling
C)fluttering
D)alternating
Q3) What should the nurse do to establish a two-chamber waterless chest tube system?
A)Add sterile water to the suction chamber
B)Add sterile solution to the water seal
C)Set the float ball to the correct drainage pressure
D)Connect directly to the chest tube and add nothing
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Chapter 27: Emergency Measures for Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) A semicircular, minimally flexible, curved piece of hard plastic that is inserted into the mouth so it extends from just outside the lips to the pharynx is known as an ____________.
Q2) Which of the following is the appropriate technique for a nurse to implement when inserting an oral airway?
A)Insert the airway with the curved end up, then rotate it 180 degrees at the back of the throat.
B)Insert the airway with the curved end down along the curve of the tongue.
C)Use a tongue blade to insert and push the airway into position.
D)Insert the airway sideways, then rotate it with the curved end up.
Q3) The nurse enters the patient's room and finds that the patient is not breathing and has no pulse.The patient does not have a do-not-resuscitate order.What would the nurse's most immediate action be?
A)Call the cardiac/respiratory arrest team.
B)Begin CPR.
C)Call a co-worker for help.
D)Get the crash cart.
Q4) In the event of cardiopulmonary arrest, all patients receive CPR unless otherwise indicated in the patient's _________________.
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Chapter 28: Intravenous and Vascular Access Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with a continuous intravenous infusion of 0.9% normal saline with 40 mEq of potassium chloride added to each liter.During a routine hourly check of the infusion, the nurse discovers that 4 hours of fluid has infused in the past 1 hour.The nurse's first action should be to:
A)notify the primary care provider.
B)assess the patient.
C)reduce the infusion rate.
D)notify the charge nurse.
Q2) What should the nurse do upon noting that the patient's IV site is pale, cool, and edematous? (Select all that apply.)
A)Stop the infusion.
B)Elevate the extremity.
C)Start a new IV.
D)Flush the IV site.
Q3) _________________________ pull fluid into the vascular space by osmosis, resulting in an increased vascular volume that possibly will result in pulmonary edema.
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Chapter 29: Blood Transfusions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has received a total of 7 units of blood over the past 8 hours.The nurse assesses the patient's laboratory test results.Which of the following would be an expected complication?
A)Hypokalemia
B)Hyperkalemia
C)Hypercalcemia
D)Iron deficiency
Q2) The nurse is administering blood.What should the nurse do to detect a blood reaction as quickly as possible?
A)Remain with the patient during the first 15 minutes.
B)Transfuse the blood at 10 mL/min.
C)Monitor vital signs q 1 hour.
D)Transfuse blood at 50 gtt/min.
Q3) A transfusion in which the donor is the patient is known as an ______________ transfusion or autotransfusion.
Q4) Under the ABO system, the blood type __________ can be given to any individual and is known as the "Universal Donor."
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Chapter 30: Oral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is admitted with a diagnosis of stroke.The nurse attempts to feed the patient, but the patient coughs and gags when food is placed in his mouth.What should the nurse do to assist this patient?
A)Feed the patient more slowly.
B)Feed the patient more quickly.
C)Contact the speech pathology department.
D)Ignore the cough and try again later.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient 2 days after surgery.The ordered diet is a mechanical soft diet.Which of the following foods may the patient choose to eat?
A)Salad
B)Baked potato without skin
C)Cooked cereal
D)Soft peeled apples
Q3) _______________ is useful for monitoring short-term changes in visceral protein.
Q4) Which of the following is a sign of vitamin C deficiency?
A)Cheilosis (redness/swelling of the lips)
B)Glossitis
C)Spongy, bleeding, abnormal redness of the gingiva
D)Spoon-shaped, brittle, ridged fingernails
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Enteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse determines that a nasogastric (NG) tube needs irrigation when she:
A)obtains more than 200 mL of residual volume.
B)obtains a small amount of thin watery residual.
C)does not encounter resistance when aspirating the residual.
D)obtains a unusually thick secretions.
Q2) Which technique is appropriate for the nurse to implement during nasogastric (NG) tube insertion?
A)Use sterile gloves.
B)Have the patient mouth-breathe.
C)Advance the tube quickly when the patient coughs.
D)Bend the patient's head backward after the tube is through the nasopharynx.
Q3) An appropriate technique for nasogastric (NG) tube insertion is for the nurse to:
A)position the patient supine.
B)apply oil-based lubricant to the plastic tube.
C)advance the tube while the patient swallows.
D)measure the tube length from the nose to the sternum.
Q4) The nurse is caring for a patient in a chronic vegetative state with inadequate gastric emptying.The nurse would anticipate finding in a ________ tube placed to assist with this patient's nutritional needs.
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Chapter 32: Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving PN.As part of therapy, the patient undergoes routine bedside glucose monitoring that reveals which expected outcome?
A)Lower than normal blood glucose to determine adequate tolerance for PN
B)Slightly higher than normal blood glucose to meet increased cellular needs
C)Slightly higher than normal blood glucose to prevent infection or systemic sepsis
D)Normal blood glucose to prevent associated complications
Q2) For patients receiving PN, ___________ provide supplemental kilocalories and prevent essential fatty acid deficiencies.
Q3) If PN must be discontinued suddenly, hang __________ in water at the same infusion rate to prevent hypoglycemia.
Q4) During IV administration of fat ( lipid ) emulsions, the patient voices complaints.Which complaint indicates to the nurse that the patient is experiencing a complication associated with the administration?
A)Fever, chills, and malaise
B)Low temperature, chills, and headache
C)Fever, flushing, and muscle relaxation
D)Low temperature, muscle aches, and dyspnea
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Urinary Elimination
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Sample Questions
Q1) When providing care for a patient with a suprapubic catheter who has acquired a UTI, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
A)Using clean technique
B)Securing the tube to the inner thigh
C)Cleansing the insertion site in a direction toward the drain
D)Promoting intake of 2200 mL of fluid per day
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has an indwelling catheter attached to a drainage bag; to achieve the desired outcome of this procedure, which nursing action should be taken?
A)Make sure the tubing has dependent loops to gather urine.
B)Make sure the tubing is coiled and secured to the bed.
C)Make sure the tubing is kinked.
D)Make sure the collection bag is higher than the bladder.
Q3) A ___________________ is a noninvasive alternative for management of male urinary incontinence.Because it is noninvasive, the risk for UTI is decreased.The device fits over the penis and connects to a small collection bag that attaches to the leg with a strap, or to a standard urinary collection bag that hangs on the bed frame below the level of the bladder.
Q4) _________________ is the volume of urine in the bladder after a normal voiding.
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Chapter 34: Bowel Elimination and Gastric Intubation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bedpan that is designed for patients with body or leg casts or for patients restricted from raising their hips (e.g., following total joint replacement) is known as a
Q2) The __________ system is an intrarectal catheter that has a retention cuff, an intraluminal balloon, three pilot balloons, anchor straps, and a port for sampling stool.The purpose of this system is to divert feces away from wounds while providing access for administering rectal medications and irrigations.
Q3) When preparing an infant for an enema, the nurse understands that which solution is the safest?
A)Tap water enema solution
B)Hypertonic enema solution
C)Oil retention
D)Physiological normal saline
Q4) The nurse assesses that a patient has a severe fecal impaction.Which action taken by the nurse addresses this problem?
A)Administering laxatives
B)Providing a high-fiber diet
C)Performing a digital removal
D)Administering an enema
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Chapter 35: Ostomy Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing the patient with a noncontinent urinary diversion, the nurse finds that the urine has mucous shreds.Which action should the nurse take?
A)Culture any drainage.
B)Instruct the patient to consume less water.
C)Note the characteristics of the urine in her notes.
D)Cleanse the stoma with soap and water.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to catheterize a patient who has a urostomy and uses a two-piece pouch system.The nurse should take which action?
A)Place the patient in a semi-recumbent position.
B)Remove both pieces of the pouch system.
C)Remove the pouch and leave the barrier attached.
D)Use sterile gloves to remove the system.
Q3) An ostomy that is created from a portion of the ileum to form a stoma through which urine can exit the body is called a(n) _____________.
Q4) A ______________ is an opening in the large intestine or colon for elimination of fecal material.
Q5) The opening created into the abdominal wall for fecal or urinary elimination is known as a _______________.
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Chapter 36: Preoperative and Postoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing a postoperative patient, the nurse notes tenderness, redness, and swelling in the left calf.What should the nurse do next?
A)Massage the lower leg.
B)Contact the surgeon and prepare for heparin therapy.
C)Keep the leg in a dependent position.
D)Have the patient exercise that extremity.
Q2) When providing care for an ambulatory surgical patient, the nurse recognizes that which assessment indicates that the patient meets discharge criteria?
A)The patient is able to drive home alone.
B)Some respiratory depression is evident.
C)The oxygen saturation level is at 85%.
D)No intravenous (IV) narcotics have been given in the past 30 minutes.
Q3) When planning care for a surgical patient, the nurse recognizes that surgical site infections account for what percentage of hospital-acquired infection?
A)22% to 40%
B)5% to 10%
C)45% to 70%
D)75% to 100%
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Chapter 37: Intraoperative Care
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Q1) Which of the following are principles of sterile procedure? (Select all that apply.)
A)Gowns are sterile from the chest and shoulder to table level.
B)Sterile persons must keep hands in view and above the waist and below the neck.
C)Sterile persons must fold arms across chest with hands tucked into the axillary region.
D)Unscrubbed persons must stay at least 6 inches away from the sterile field.
E)Sterile persons may position themselves with their back to the sterile field.
Q2) The _______________ phase begins when the patient enters the operating room suite and ends with admission to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU).
Q3) The surgeon is about to finish surgery and requests a sponge count.Who would normally perform this task? (Select all that apply.)
A)Scrub nurse
B)Registered nurse first assistant
C)Circulating nurse
D)Certified registered nurse anesthetist
E)Surgical technician
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Chapter 38: Wound Care and Irrigations
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Q1) When should a nurse consider culturing a wound?
A)When the tissue is clean and dry
B)When exudate is not present
C)When the patient is afebrile
D)When the surrounding area shows inflammation
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with a postsurgical wound dehiscence who is being treated with a wet-to-dry dressing.Which of the following can be appropriately delegated to the nurse assistant?
A)Performing a sterile dressing change
B)Observing for any drainage on the dressing
C)Performing wound assessment during the dressing change
D)Notifying the physician of drainage present on the dressing
Q3) The nurse answers the patient's call light to find the patient agitated and stating that she "felt something pop." The nurse finds that the patient's abdominal surgical wound has eviscerated.What should the nurse do?
A)Try to reinsert the abdominal contents.
B)Cover the wound with a dry sterile dressing.
C)Notify the surgeon when he makes rounds.
D)Cover the wound with a moist saline dressing.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Dressings, Bandages, and Binders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse anticipate might happen to a patient if bleeding cannot be controlled?
A)Skin dryness
B)Bradycardia
C)Hypovolemic shock
D)Hypertension
Q2) What should the nurse do for a patient who is having a wet-to-dry dressing applied?
A)Moisten the old inner dressing to remove it.
B)Pack the gauze in flat pieces into the wound.
C)Wet the new inner dressing with a cytotoxic solution.
D)Apply a secondary dressing over the inner wet packing.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a negative-pressure dressing.The nurse realizes that typically the dressing should be changed:
A)every shift.
B)daily.
C)every 8 hours.
D)every 48 hours.
Q4) _____________ dressings cover or hold primary dressings in place.
Q5) _______________ dressings are used for wounds that require debridement.
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Chapter 40: Therapeutic Use of Heat and Cold
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Q1) Assessment of a patient reveals that the area directly under the heating pad is slightly red.How should the nurse respond?
A)Continue the therapy.
B)Apply a cold compress.
C)Reduce the amount of heat.
D)Remove the pad and reassess in 5 minutes.
Q2) What procedure should the nurse follow when applying hot compresses to an open wound?
A)Apply clean gloves.
B)Cover all wound surfaces.
C)Leave the application in place for 30 to 40 minutes.
D)Apply an electrical heating unit directly over the compress.
Q3) Hot applications are used with caution in which of the following conditions? (Select all that apply.)
A)Pregnancy
B)Laminectomy sites
C)Malignancy
D)Spinal cord injury
E)None of above
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Chapter 41: Home Care Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a cognitive deficit becomes agitated and upset about not being able to remember daily activities.How should the nurse respond to this agitation?
A)Tell the patient not to worry about it.
B)Provide an easy-to-follow calendar and reinforce the information.
C)Explain that becoming upset is not going to help the situation.
D)Remind the patient that now is the time to rest and relax.
Q2) The nurse is assessing the home of an elderly patient for safety issues.Which of the following would reassure the nurse? (Select all that apply.)
A)Cleaning the stove top
B)Putting a shower chair in the bathroom
C)Installing adequate lighting in all living areas
D)Placing emergency numbers close to the telephone
E)None of above
Q3) ___________ is a generalized impairment of intellectual functioning, with the most common form being Alzheimer's disease.
Q4) Dementia is characterized by a gradual, progressive, irreversible _______ dysfunction.
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Chapter 42: Home Care Teaching
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient's caregiver is checking the patient's nasogastric (NG) tube for gastric residual before proceeding with the patient's next feeding.The patient aspirates 250 mL of residual for the second hour in a row.The caregiver held the tube feeding within the last hour.What should the caregiver do now?
A)Hold the feeding again.
B)Contact the health care provider.
C)Proceed with the feeding.
D)Give half of the feeding and see how the patient tolerates it.
Q2) Of the following types of thermometers available, which is not recommended for home use?
A)Digital
B)Tympanic
C)Mercury
D)Disposable single-use
Q3) What is an expected outcome after tracheostomy care is successfully performed?
A)A stoma site that is hard to the touch
B)An inner cannula that is free of secretions
C)Copious secretions obtained from suctioning
D)Bloody secretions that have been suctioned
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Specimen Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to perform a venipuncture on a patient.Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A)Apply the tourniquet until the distal pulse is no longer felt.
B)Remove the tourniquet after 1 minute.
C)Instruct the patient to vigorously open and close the fist.
D)Do not use veins that rebound.
Q2) An appropriate technique that the nurse can tell the patient to implement before obtaining a sputum specimen is to:
A)use mouthwash before the collection.
B)splint the surgical incision before coughing.
C)try to obtain a sample immediately after eating.
D)take a deep breath, cough hard, and expectorate.
Q3) An appropriate technique for the nurse to implement when obtaining throat cultures is to:
A)have the patient lie flat in the bed.
B)do the culture before meals or an hour after meals.
C)avoid touching the swab to any of the inflamed areas.
D)place pressure on the tongue blade along the back of the tongue.
Q4) _______________ organisms grow in superficial wounds exposed to the air.
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Chapter 44: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action should the nurse take after a procedure requiring intravenous moderate sedation?
A)Report to the physician a Ramsay sedation score that is less than 3.
B)Monitor airway patency and vital signs every 5 minutes for 30 minutes.
C)Take vital signs every 15 minutes for the next 2 hours.
D)Take vital signs every 30 minutes until stable.
Q2) You are caring for a patient who has received moderate sedation for a procedure at the bedside.Which task can you delegate to the nurse assistant during this procedure?
A)Assessing sedation score
B)Obtaining blood pressure
C)Monitoring respiratory rate
D)Recording urine output
Q3) A patient who is a candidate for an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy has:
A)been NPO for 8 hours.
B)evident respiratory distress.
C)active gastrointestinal bleeding.
D)an esophageal diverticulum.
Q4) _____________________ apply manual compression to prevent bleeding at the arterial site.
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