Clinical Nursing Skills
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Clinical Nursing Skills is a foundational course that equips students with essential hands-on competencies required in patient care within a healthcare setting. The course covers a broad range of practical skills, including vital signs assessment, wound care, medication administration, infection control, and basic emergency procedures. Emphasis is placed on safety, effective communication, and adherence to ethical and legal standards. Through interactive lectures, simulation labs, and supervised clinical practice, students develop the critical thinking and technical abilities necessary to deliver high-quality, patient-centered nursing care.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing 7th Editon by Cooper
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57 Chapters
2259 Verified Questions
2259 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Evolution of Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What score does the graduate practical nurse require to be issued a license upon of the computerized examination?
A) 70% or better
B) This is defined and set by each state
C) Designated as "pass"
D) Within the 75th percentile
Answer: C
Q2) Graduates of the first school for training the practical nurse were referred to as ___________ nurses.
Answer: attendant
The first school for training the practical nurse started in Brooklyn, New York in 1892 and was conducted under the auspices of the Young Women's Christian Association (YWCA).
The Ballard School, as it was known, was approximately 3 months in duration and trained its students to care for the chronically ill, invalids, children, and the elderly. The main emphasis was on home care and included cooking, nutrition, basic science, and basic procedures. Graduates of this program were referred to as attendant nurses.
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3
Chapter 2: Legal and Ethical Aspects of Nursing
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has strong moral convictions that abortions are wrong. When assigned to assist with an abortion, what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A) Ask for another assignment
B) Leave work
C) Transfer to another floor
D) Protest to the supervisor
Answer: A
Q2) A nurse working on an acute care medical surgical unit is aware that his or her first duty is to the patient's health, safety, and well-being. Given this knowledge, which of the following is most necessary for the nurse to report?
A) Unethical behavior of other staff members
B) A worker who arrives late
C) Favoritism shown by nursing administration
D) Arguments among the staff
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Documentation
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the system that classifies patients by age, diagnosis, and surgical procedure and produces 300 different categories used for predicting the use of hospital resources?
A) Quality assurance
B) Resource assessment
C) Quality improvement
D) Diagnosis-related groups
Answer: D
Q2) What regulates standards for long-term care documentation?
A) OBRA
B) Title XXII
C) Nursing diagnoses
D) The care plan
Answer: A
Q3) What is the documentation format that uses the acronym SOAPE?
A) Problem-oriented
B) Focused
C) Traditional
D) Crisis
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Communication
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48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term that describes an individual's perception or understanding of a particular word or phrase is _____________.
Q2) A nurse is communicating with an older adult. How might the nurse enhance communication?
A) Speak in a rapid manner to accommodate the patient's short attention span.
B) Speak in a lower voice tone to accommodate hearing loss.
C) Speak in a simple manner as if speaking to a child.
D) Speak in a loud voice directly at ear level.
Q3) A patient states, "I'm really strung out about this pregnancy." The nurse responds by asking, "What about this pregnancy worries you?" What communication technique is this?
A) Closed inquiry
B) Restating
C) Open-ended question
D) Minimal encouraging
Q4) What does therapeutic communication accomplish?
A) Facilitates the formation of a positive nurse-patient relationship
B) Manipulates the patient
C) Assigns the patient a passive role
D) Requires the patient to accept what the nurse says
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human responses to levels of wellness in an individual, family, or community that have a readiness for enhancement are known as a _____________ ____________
Q2) Which nursing order is complete and correct?
A) "May 10: Nursing assistants will ambulate patient. A. Nurse"
B) "Day nurse will cleanse wound and change dressings every day. May 10, A. Nurse"
C) "Nursing assistants will serve 8 oz glass of juice at each meal, 5/10."
D) "P.M. nurse will ensure that heel protectors are in place before bedtime."
Q3) What type of assessment is performed continuously throughout nurse-patient contact?
A) Complete
B) Body systems
C) Focused
D) Subjective
Q4) Human responses to health conditions and life processes that may develop in a vulnerable individual, family, or community are known as a(n) __________
Q5) NANDA International meets to reorganize diagnosis labels and language every ______ years.
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Chapter 6: Cultural and Ethnic Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for an Orthodox Jewish patient. What is the most appropriate dietary requirement for the nurse to implement?
A) Mixing of milk and meat at a meal
B) Use of separate cooking utensils for meat and milk products
C) Use of one set of cooking utensils for meat and milk products
D) Consumption of food not slaughtered in accordance with Jewish law
Q2) The nurse is delivering a meal tray to a female Muslim patient. What intervention is most appropriate for this patient?
A) Offering her a ham and cheese sandwich
B) Providing her with a male nurse
C) Providing her with a female nurse
D) Offering her bacon and eggs
Q3) A nurse is preparing a meal tray for a patient who is a Latter-Day Saint. What beverage should the nurse prepare?
A) Tea with all meals
B) Coffee each morning
C) Cola beverages
D) Fruit juice
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Chapter 7: Asepsis and Infection Control
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43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse observes a patient demonstrating wound cleaning. What action indicates the need for further instruction?
A) Using sterile gloves to perform the cleaning
B) Applying an antiseptic to the area
C) Cleaning the area from the outside in
D) Washing hands with soap
Q2) What does the nurse describe when giving an example of a fomite vehicle?
A) Rabid dog
B) Person with AIDS
C) Contaminated stethoscope
D) Infected wound
Q3) A health care worker is stuck by a needle left on the patient's bedside table. The staff member appropriately reports the needlestick. What will the indicated treatment be combatting?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Streptococcal infections
C) Staphylococcal infections
D) Influenza
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9
Chapter 8: Body Mechanics and Patient Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse instructs a nursing assistant to use large muscle groups when lifting. What is the rationale for this instruction?
A) Workers' compensation claims will be prevented
B) Big muscles work more effectively
C) It guarantees no muscle strain
D) It distributes workload more evenly
Q2) What is the term for range of motion (ROM) when it is performed by the patient?
A) Assisted
B) Passive
C) Active
D) Coordinated
Q3) To maintain a wide base of support, the nurse should stand with the feet separated by the distance of _______ times the length of the nurse's shoe.
Q4) What profession has the highest workers' compensation claim rates of any occupation or industry?
A) Firefighters
B) Truck drivers
C) Law enforcement
D) Nursing personnel
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Chapter 9: Hygiene and Care of the Patients Environment
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38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physician orders a patient to be placed in the reverse Trendelenburg position. How should the nurse place the bed?
A) On the floor
B) Parallel with the floor
C) Tilted with the head of the bed down
D) Tilted with the foot of the bed down
Q2) Which guideline should be followed when giving a backrub?
A) Observing the skin for abnormalities
B) Massaging for at least 10 minutes
C) Following massage with a brisk alcohol rub
D) Conversing with patient continually throughout the backrub
E) Using alcohol-based lotion for disinfection
Q3) Proper hair care is important for the patient's self-image. What is the proper water temperature when shampooing a patient's hair?
A) 101° F
B) 105° F
C) 110° F
D) 120° F
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Chapter 10: Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses a patient in a Posey safety reminder device (SRD) for which problem(s) that may increase because of the use of SRDs? (Select all that apply.)
A) Immobility
B) Lethargy
C) Risk for impaired circulation
D) Risk for skin impairment
E) Incontinence
Q2) What should a nurse do when encountering a mercury spill?
A) Vacuum the spill
B) Open interior doors
C) Close all outside windows
D) Open any outside windows
Q3) ___________ is a violent or dangerous act used to intimidate or coerce a person or government to further a political or social agenda.
Q4) The nurse conducting a seminar on bioterrorism reviews several types of agents that may be used as weapons. An agent that does not seriously damage or kill the target population but only impairs it is classified as _____________.
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12
Chapter 11: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses respirations of a patient demonstrating pursed-lip breathing, flared nostrils, and retractions. How will the nurse describe these respirations?
A) Tachypnea
B) Stertorous
C) Dyspnea
D) Cheyne-Stokes
Q2) When assessing factors that may influence the patient's pulse rate, what should the nurse take into consideration? (Select all that apply.)
A) Age
B) Sex
C) Emotion
D) Temperature
E) Religion
Q3) The nurse assesses the blood pressure as 192/86, noting that the patient has a pulse pressure of ________.
Q4) If a patient has an axillary temperature of 96.2°F, the nurse understands that the true temperature is ______.
Q5) The nurse assesses for the fifth vital sign, which is______________.
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Chapter 12: Physical Assessment
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90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is gathering subjective data when admitting a patient. Which assessment finding reported by the patient is considered subjective data?
A) Complains of chest pain
B) Is experiencing dyspnea
C) Appears to be anxious
D) Expectorates red-tinged sputum
Q2) A physician needs to assess a patient's rectal area. In what position should the nurse place the patient?
A) Sims
B) Prone
C) Lithotomy
D) Knee-chest
Q3) When collecting data related to the present illness, the nurse must obtain detailed and comprehensive data. What does this data help to establish?
A) A nursing diagnosis
B) A nursing care plan
C) Appropriate interventions
D) Nursing orders
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14
Chapter 13: Admission, Transfer, and Discharge
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before the actual discharge occurs, what must the nurse ensure ?
A) The patient is well enough to go home.
B) The patient has not been overly medicated.
C) The patient understands the discharge instructions.
D) The patient has adequate transportation.
Q2) A nurse is admitting a patient to an acute care facility. During the admission procedure, what nursing intervention would best help reduce patient anxiety?
A) Transport the patient by wheelchair.
B) Inform the physician that the patient is admitted.
C) Greet the patient by name.
D) Collect financial information during the interview.
Q3) Upon admission, the nurse notes that a patient without family members present has a billfold filled with cash. Where can the nurse suggest the money be placed?
A) In a sealed envelope in the bedside table
B) In the care of hospital security
C) Locked in the narcotic cupboard
D) In the hospital safe
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15
Chapter 14: Surgical Wound Care
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38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the advantages of a transparent dressing? (Select all that apply.)
A) Adheres to undamaged skin
B) Contains the exudate
C) Reduces wound contamination
D) Serves as a barrier to external bacteria
E) Slows epithelial growth
Q2) The day following surgery, the nurse notes bloody drainage on the dressing. How will the nurse describe this drainage when documenting?
A) Serosanguineous
B) Sanguineous
C) Serous
D) Purulent
Q3) The nurse is preparing to perform a dressing change on a patient following a total hip replacement. When should the nurse administer an analgesic drug in an attempt to promote patient comfort during the dressing change?
A) After the dressing change
B) At least 15 minutes before the dressing change
C) At least 30 minutes before the dressing change
D) At least 1 hour before the dressing change
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Specimen Collection and Diagnostic Testing
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse encourage the patient to consume when preparing for an electroencephalogram (EEG)?
A) Tea
B) Food
C) Cola
D) Coffee
Q2) What should the nurse do when preparing the patient for an abdominal scan?
A) Assess laboratory results only for liver function
B) Assess patient for allergies to dye or shellfish
C) Instruct patient to limit fluid intake immediately following procedure
D) Instruct patient to be NPO for 1 hour before scan if contrast medium is used
Q3) The nurse explains that electrocardiograms are graphic representations of electrical impulses generated by the heart. What type of abnormalities can an electrocardiogram identify?
A) Those that produce a cardiac cycle
B) Those that interfere with electrical conduction
C) Those that result from an interrupted blood flow
D) Those that interfere with heart contraction
Q4) When performing a venipuncture, the tourniquet should be left on no more than ____ to ____ minutes.
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Chapter 16: Care of Patients Experiencing Urgent
Alterations in Health
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department with a sucking wound to the left chest. What is the first action the nurse should take?
A) Place several layers of gauze dressing over the wound
B) Place the patient in a supine position
C) Cover the wound with an airtight dressing taped on three sides
D) Turn the patient to the left side
Q2) A nurse assesses an accident victim who has bright red blood spurting from a laceration on his right forearm. Where will the nurse apply pressure after applying direct pressure and elevating the limb?
A) Right subclavian artery
B) Right radial artery
C) Right ulnar artery
D) Right brachial artery
Q3) A burn patient is brought into the emergency department with the following burns: half of the front torso, entire left arm, and front of left leg. The nurse should record that the patient has a ______% burn.
Q4) When performing CPR on an infant, the breastbone is depressed approximately ____ to ____ inch(es).
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a therapeutic treatment that joins the mind and body and increases muscle tone and flexibility?
A) Acupressure
B) Spiritual enrichment
C) Yoga therapy
D) Therapeutic massage
Q2) What is the goal of herbal therapy?
A) Treat symptoms
B) Restore balance
C) Treat disease
D) Improve nutrition
Q3) The nurse reassures a patient that almost _____% of all health care consumers in the United States take some form of herbal or natural supplement alone or in combination with conventional medicines but rarely report this practice to their health care providers.
Q4) People with fractures, rheumatoid arthritis, and osteoporosis are not candidates for ____________ therapy.
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Chapter 18: Pain Management, Comfort, Rest, and Sleep
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pain relief intervention that stimulates large cutaneous nerve fibers to "close the gate" is the _________ unit.
Q2) The nurse is using a pain scale of 0 to 10 to assess pain in a postoperative patient. What is considered the maximum pain level at which a patient can usually function effectively?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Q3) The nurse is trying to establish an effective relationship with a patient in pain. What is the best statement for the nurse to make when beginning the assessment?
A) "I'll check to see if you can have anything."
B) "Let me give you a backrub and see if it helps."
C) "I believe you are in pain."
D) "When was your last medication for pain?"
Q4) The nurse clarifies that the term peripheral analgesics describes the group of drugs also referred to as ___________.
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Chapter 19: Nutritional Concepts and Related Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) To demonstrate the energy-producing potential of different foods, the nurse explains that 3 g of lean meat produces 12 kcal/g. How many kcal/g does 3 g of fish oil produce?
A) 6 kcal/g
B) 15 kcal/g
C) 21 kcal/g
D) 27 kcal/g
Q2) The body uses 22 common amino acids, but 9 of them must be obtained from protein in the diet. What are these proteins considered?
A) Essential
B) Basic
C) Fundamental
D) Primary
Q3) What is the term for stored fat that insulates the body and serves as a cushion to protect organs?
A) Subcutaneous tissue
B) Adipose tissue
C) Cohesive tissue
D) Lipid tissue
Q4) The body mass index (BMI) of a man 6 feet tall weighing 250 pounds is _______.
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Chapter 20: Fluids and Electrolytes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the nurse closely assessing for in a patient with hypokalemia?
A) Systemic edema
B) Cardiac complications
C) Muscle cramping
D) Impaired kidney function
Q2) When reading the laboratory report of a patient with excessive diarrhea, the nurse notes that the pH is 7.10, and the PaCO? and the PaO? are normal. What should the nurse recognize as this patient's state from this information alone?
A) Respiratory acidosis
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Respiratory alkalosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis
Q3) The nurse modifies the care plan for the immobilized patient after assessing a calcium level of 6.2 mEq/L. What nursing assessment should the nurse include when modifying this care plan?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Tooth loss
C) Renal calculi
D) Contractures
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Chapter 21: Mathematics and Medication Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) What i \(\frac{1}{5}\) s expressed as a percent?
A) 50%
B) 20%
C) 10%
D) 5%
Q2) The nurse administered a sedative to an older adult who was having difficulty sleeping. Later, the patient was walking the halls and becoming agitated. What is this drug response known as?
A) Expected
B) Untoward
C) Idiosyncratic
D) Hypersensitive
Q3) When a patient comes into the emergency department with a narcotic overdose, the nurse anticipates that the patient will be treated with Narcan. What drug classification is Narcan?
A) Enhancer
B) Substitute
C) Control
D) Antagonist
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Care of Patients with Alterations in Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) To what temperature should water for eye compress be heated?
A) 95° F
B) 110° F
C) 115° F
D) 120° F
Q2) How does an Aquathermia pad differ from a traditional heating pad?
A) The Aquathermia pad can be folded to fit the anatomic location snugly.
B) The Aquathermia pad can be placed under the patient.
C) The Aquathermia pad has circulating water for temperature control.
D) The Aquathermia pad can be left on for as long as 2 hours.
Q3) After a Foley catheter has been removed, the nurse should assess the patient for:
A) hemorrhage.
B) constipation.
C) urinary retention.
D) bladder spasm.
Q4) The appliance that connects to an IV drip and delivers a continuous irrigation to the eye is known as a ________ _________ _________.
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24
Chapter 23: Life Span Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse assessing a 2-month-old infant would expect the infant to do which of the following?
A) Crawl on the floor
B) Creep on the floor
C) Sit up steadily without support
D) Hold its head up while in the prone position
Q2) What is the leading cause of death in young adults?
A) Diabetes
B) Accidents
C) Hypertension
D) Testicular cancer
Q3) Which theory of aging suggests that previously developed coping abilities and the ability to maintain previous roles and activities are critical to adjustment to old age?
A) Continuity theory
B) Autoimmunity theory
C) Wear-and-tear theory
D) Disengagement theory
Q4) Growth and development that moves from the center toward the outside is known as ____________________.
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Chapter 24: Loss, Grief, Dying, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following the death of a day-old infant, the nurse brings the baby to the parents. What is the rationale for the parents' visit with the deceased baby?
A) Bond with the family
B) Reinforce the individuality of the baby
C) Generate preparation for another child
D) Make the death a reality
Q2) Which of the following would lead the home health nurse to make a nursing diagnosis of unresolved grief for a patient who was widowed 5 months ago?
A) Seeing that the patient keeps a picture of the husband by her bed
B) The patient said tearfully, "I can't believe he is gone."
C) Assessing that the patient eats out frequently rather than cooking at home
D) The patient says that she attends church three times a week.
Q3) A nurse is caring for the dying mother of a 7-year-old child. What is important for the nurse to understand regarding the child?
A) The child associates death with aggression.
B) The child believes his or her own death cannot be avoided.
C) The child lacks understanding of the concept of death.
D) The child understands death as the inevitable end of life.
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26
Chapter 25: Health Promotion and Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the 30th week of gestation, the nurse would anticipate that the fundal height would be _____ centimeters above the symphysis.
Q2) A woman who has just discovered she is pregnant states that the first day of her last menstrual period was July 10. What will be her expected date of birth (EDB)?
A) April 10
B) April 17
C) May 10
D) October 17
Q3) When can the sex of the fetus be confirmed?
A) Conception
B) 2 weeks
C) 6 weeks
D) 9 weeks
Q4) What protects the fetus from most bacterial infections?
A) The yolk sac
B) The placental barrier
C) The cotyledons
D) The chorionic villa
Q5) The chorion and the amnion are the two components of the ________
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Chapter 26: Labor and Delivery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is admitting a patient to the labor and delivery unit. While performing the initial assessment, which assessment is the priority?
A) The number of previous pregnancies
B) When the baby is due
C) When the patient last ate
D) The timing of contractions
Q2) What area of the uterus provides the force during a contraction?
A) Lower portion
B) Middle portion
C) Upper portion
D) Cervical portion
Q3) The physician has decided to induce labor with prostaglandin gel and an amniotomy. When should the nurse expect that labor will start?
A) 1 hour
B) 4 hours
C) 8 hours
D) 12 hours
Q4) A nurse shows the patient an x-ray of the fetal spine in parallel alignment with the mother's to demonstrate a ________ lie.
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Chapter 27: Care of the Mother and Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse describes the return of the postpartum patient's uterus to a pregravid state as ________________.
Q2) The new mother calls the nurse to her room to show how her baby is "jerking around" when she changes his position. The nurse understands that the baby is exhibiting which normal reflex?
A) Traction reflex
B) Babinski reflex
C) Tonic neck reflex
D) Moro reflex
Q3) What is the name of the vaginal discharge that occurs immediately following delivery?
A) Lochia serosa
B) Lochia rubra
C) Lochia palatine
D) Lochia alba
Q4) Which newborn assessment finding can suggest a chromosomal disorder?
A) Epstein pearls
B) Gynecomastia
C) Babinski reflex
D) Simian crease
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Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the fetus dependent on the mother for glucose control?
A) The insulin requirements are higher.
B) Insulin is destroyed by the placenta.
C) Insulin does not cross the placenta.
D) Insulin is absorbed by the fetus.
Q2) A patient presents with symptoms of abruptio placentae. To facilitate uterine-placental perfusion, in what position would the nurse place the patient?
A) Prone position
B) Trendelenburg position
C) Supine position
D) Modified side-lying position
Q3) A pregnant patient who has type 2 diabetes (NIDDM) may require insulin. Why is the insulin necessary?
A) The growing baby will require more glucose.
B) Oral hypoglycemic agents may be teratogenic.
C) Increased hormone levels raise blood glucose.
D) Oral hypoglycemics do not reach the fetus.
Q4) The nurse explains that severe preeclampsia needs to be controlled because it can develop into another syndrome called _________________.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Health Promotion for the Infant, Child, and Adolescent
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because the water in the infant's residential area is not fluoridated, when should the nurse suggest that the infant receive supplemental fluoride?
A) 2 months old
B) 4 months old
C) 5 months old
D) 6 months old
Q2) The nurse recognizes that preventive programs in schools must be stepped up in order to prevent violence, especially __________.
Q3) The pediatric nurse reminds the parents of a 2-year-old that by this age the child should be protected against how many vaccine-preventable childhood diseases?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
Q4) A nurse emphasizes a study that focused on the amount of time children spend using various media, such as TV, video games, and computers and stated that by cutting this time by ____%, it would have a significant impact on increasing physical activity.
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Chapter 30: Basic Pediatric Nursing Care
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of a mist tent?
A) To provide a constant oxygen supply
B) To liquefy respiratory secretions
C) To aid in lowering temperature
D) To improve the infant's hydration
Q2) After observing parental behavior that leads the nurse to suspect child abuse, when should the nurse report the abuse?
A) If the parent confesses to child abuse
B) If the child admits to being abused
C) Whenever maltreatment of a child is suspected
D) When the type of abuse can be determined
Q3) What activity by an infant would cause a false elevation of the tympanic temperature?
A) Having a bowel movement
B) Crying vigorously
C) Having just eaten
D) Having been in a cold room
Q4) The nurse is aware that visual acuity evaluation in a child is best assessed after the age of _____ years.
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Chapter 31: Care of the Child with a Physical and Mental or Cognitive Disorder
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When interacting with the parents of a SIDS infant, the nurse should attempt to assist the parents with:
A) encouraging the parents to have another baby.
B) encouraging the parents to remain stoic.
C) allaying feelings of guilt and blame.
D) learning how the event could have been prevented.
Q2) Which statement correctly explains the etiology of Down syndrome?
A) There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
B) There is a missing chromosome on the 21st pair.
C) There are two pairs of the 21st chromosome.
D) The chromosome's 21st pair is missing.
Q3) When selecting nursing diagnoses for the 4-year-old child with nephrosis, what should be a priority for the nurse?
A) Impaired body image
B) Skin impairment
C) Nutritional deficit
D) Injury
Q4) The nurse anticipates that the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) taken from a child with bacterial meningitis would have a low __________ level.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Health Promotion and Care of the Older Adult
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A change of aging related to the circulatory system includes decreased blood vessel elasticity. For what should the nurse assess?
A) Confusion
B) Tachycardia
C) Hypertension
D) Retained secretions
Q2) When was the Social Security Act, which was the first major legislation providing financial security for older adults, passed?
A) 1930
B) 1935
C) 1940
D) 1945
Q3) Which symptom of diabetes distorts tactile sensation?
A) Proprioception
B) Loss of visual acuity
C) Progressive paresis
D) Peripheral neuropathy
Q4) The nurse recognizes that a term referring to mechanical difficulty of swallowing is
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Chapter 33: Concepts of Mental Health
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is sensitive to the fact that patients lose control over their lives when admitted to the hospital. In what does this loss of control frequently result?
A) Anger
B) Depression
C) Fear
D) Anxiety
Q2) Which theorist believed that personality development was based on task mastery?
A) Sigmund Freud
B) Erik Erikson
C) Jean Piaget
D) Friedrich Nietzsche
Q3) What action by a student before taking a test should indicate to a nursing instructor that the student is demonstrating signs of moderate anxiety?
A) Studies for 6 hours
B) Sleeps 6 hours because of fatigue
C) Vomits
D) Argues about the scheduling of the test
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Chapter 34: Care of the Patient with a Psychiatric Disorder
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adjunctive therapies are used for which reasons? (Select all that apply.)
A) To increase self-esteem
B) To promote positive interaction
C) To enhance reality orientation
D) To stimulate communication
E) To increase energy
Q2) The nurse explains that an alternative therapy that uses essential oils and scented candles to help a patient relax and focuses on the atmosphere of the moment is
Q3) What are considered warning signs of suicide? (Select all that apply.)
A) Talking about suicide
B) Increased interactions with friends and family
C) Drug or alcohol abuse
D) Difficulty concentrating on work or school
E) Personality changes
Q4) The nurse recognizes that stress can cause an ulcer, which is classified as a _______________ illness.
Q5) The nurse instructs a patient who has just been prescribed a protocol of fluoxetine HCl (Prozac) that the drug takes ____ to ____ weeks to take effect.
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Chapter 35: Care of the Patient with an Addictive Personality
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse cautions that a person who chronically abuses drugs may experience mental impairment. The area of the brain that can be affected and permanently damaged is the ________ _________.
Q2) Which statement describes the impaired nurse who is in a peer assistance program?
A) The nurse has a revoked nursing license.
B) The nurse does not have to notify her employer.
C) The nurse will be allowed to work as a nurse under supervision.
D) The nurse will be reported to the Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank.
Q3) What is the greatest problem with lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) use?
A) The drug is addictive.
B) The drug stimulates drug-seeking behavior.
C) The drug causes flashbacks.
D) The drug sets off hypertensive episodes.
Q4) What should the entire health team focus on during the rehabilitation phase?
A) Establishing a support system
B) Seeking and maintaining employment
C) Abstaining from drug use
D) Addressing the problems related to addiction
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Chapter 36: Home Health Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If solely for this reason, Medicare will not cover home health aide visits. What is that reason?
A) Physical assistance
B) Physician orders
C) Personal care
D) Household chores
Q2) A major change to Medicare reimbursement was implemented in 1983. The new system paid a set rate according to diagnosis. What was the new payment system based upon?
A) Interim payment systems
B) Diagnosis-related groups
C) Title XVIII
D) Title XIX
Q3) When the decision is made with the family to place the patient on hospice care, the home health nurse explains that the reimbursement changes from "fee per visit" to "fee per _________."
Q4) The nurse can best confirm that the patient understands the communication by obtaining ____________ from the patient.
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Chapter 37: Long-Term Care
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is included when the LVN/LPN completes the Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI)?
A) Minimum Data Set (MDS) and the signature of the physician
B) Resident Assessment Protocols (RAPs) and the drug list
C) Minimum Data Set, Resident Assessment Protocols, and the RN's signature
D) Resident Assessment Protocols and the signature of the administrator
Q2) Although the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) increases the cost of care, what is a benefit that it provides for long-term care?
A) It ensures a safe environment for personnel.
B) It ensures that medications are administered safely.
C) It ensures that food is prepared safely.
D) It ensures safe ambulation and transportation of patients.
Q3) Two unique members of the caregiving team in a long-term care facility are the ___________ ___________ aide/technician and the ___________ _____________ assistant.
Q4) What is the goal for services provided by home health care agencies?
A) Self-care
B) Assisted living
C) Rehabilitation
D) Improved function
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Rehabilitation Nursing
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 33-year-old patient with a spinal cord injury says to the nurse, "I've let my family down. I don't know what to do." What would be the best response by the nurse?
A) "After your rehabilitation starts, you'll feel better."
B) "You should be grateful you are alive."
C) "What does this injury mean to you?"
D) "Technological advances are changing the future for spinal cord injury victims."
Q2) When speaking to a group of high school students, the rehabilitation nurse states that spinal cord injuries resulting in paralysis occur mainly as the result of traumatic accidents in which group of individuals?
A) Middle-aged men
B) Older adult females
C) Young males
D) Young females
Q3) The nurse who assesses for cultural influences, values cultural diversity, and incorporates cultural knowledge in practice is said to be ____________
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Chapter 39: Hospice Care
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who conducts the nutritional assessment at the time of admission to hospice care?
A) Physician
B) Hospice nurse
C) Caregiver
D) Nursing assistant
Q2) Why is it important for the hospice nurse to provide time to confer with the patient and family?
A) To show concern
B) To report changes in the plan of care designed by the team
C) To confirm the ongoing reimbursement
D) To plan for changes in the scope of care
Q3) When air hunger is assessed in the dying patient, the nurse can perform which intervention(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Circulate the air with a fan
B) Use a tranquilizer to decrease anxiety
C) Provide good oral hygiene
D) Perform careful suctioning
E) Raise the head of the bed 30 degrees
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Chapter 40: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a group of several different kinds of tissues arranged so that together they can perform a more complex function than any tissue alone?
A) Organ
B) System
C) Cell
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q2) Which are among the 11 body systems? (Select all that apply.)
A) Lymphatic
B) Cellular
C) Digestive
D) Reproductive
E) Accessory
F) Spinal cord
Q3) What is the term for the passage of water containing dissolved materials through a membrane as the result of a greater mechanical force on one side?
A) Metabolism
B) Mitosis
C) Filtration
D) Osmosis
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Chapter 41: Care of the Surgical Patient
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a patient who had an epidural block for a vaginal repair should be alert for:
A) a flushing of the face and torso.
B) numbness of the perineum.
C) complaint of thirst.
D) a sudden drop in blood pressure.
Q2) The nurse acting as a circulating nurse has a responsibility for:
A) observing for breaks in sterile technique.
B) identifying and handling surgical specimens correctly.
C) assisting with surgical draping of the patient.
D) maintaining count of sponges, needles, and instruments during surgery.
Q3) A patient is transferred from the operating room to the recovery room after undergoing an amputation of his left foot. Place the interventions in the correct order for immediate assessment once the patient enters the PACU. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D)
A) System review
B) Breathing
C) Circulation
D) Airway
E) Level of consciousness
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Chapter 42: Care of the Patient with an Integumentary Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient statement indicates that more teaching is needed regarding antibiotic therapy for the treatment of cellulitis?
A) "My skin is cleared up. I don't think I need the medication anymore."
B) "Cellulitis can come back at any time."
C) "If I had washed that scratch with soap and water, I probably would not have gotten cellulitis."
D) "Cellulitis is contagious."
Q2) What is the best instruction by the nurse regarding reducing the risk factors for melanoma?
A) Avoid exposure to the sun and use protective measures when exposure occurs.
B) Have all nevi removed.
C) Watch for changes in moles, especially on the back.
D) Use a sun lamp for tanning.
Q3) The nurse debriding a burn wound explains that the purpose of debridement is to:
A) increase the effectiveness of the skin graft.
B) prevent infection and promote healing.
C) promote suppuration of the wound.
D) promote movement in the affected area.
Q4) The most deadly skin cancer is ________________.
Page 44
Q5) The three major glands of the skin are __________, ___________, and
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Chapter 43: Care of the Patient with a Musculoskeletal Disorder
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient following a myelogram?
A) Position in a semi-Fowler position for 8 hours to reduce potential of headache
B) Place patient flat on back to compress puncture site
C) Ambulate for brief periods to lessen postmyelogram headache
D) Limit fluids to increase absorption of the dye
Q2) The characteristics of osteoarthritis that should be included in a teaching plan would include that osteoarthritis (select all that apply):
A) will cause the formation of Heberden nodes.
B) can involve other organs.
C) results from wear and tear.
D) may affect only one side of the body.
E) may cause constitutional symptoms of fatigue and fever.
F) will cause marked erythema and edema of hands.
Q3) The nurse administering the drug colchicine for gout will give 0.5 mg hourly for _____ hours.
Q4) The nurse explains that the use of the _________brace allows a person with a cervical fracture to be mobile.
Page 46
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Chapter 44: Care of the Patient with a Gastrointestinal Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient with irritable bowel syndrome tells the home health nurse she is going to an acupuncturist for therapy for her condition. Which of the following would be the best Nursing response?
A) "Go for it. Alternative medicine does great things."
B) "YIKES! An acupuncturist?"
C) "It may help, but there has been no clinical proof of its effectiveness."
D) "You should confirm that the acupuncturist is licensed."
Q2) Which recommendation is most appropriate for a patient who has had an esophageal dilation related to achalasia?
A) Consume only liquid
B) Avoid fruit juices
C) Drink 10 oz of fluid with each meal
D) Lie down for 30 minutes after each meal
Q3) The nurse caring for a patient with Crohn disease will closely monitor the urinary output to ensure that the patient is excreting at least _______mL/day.
Q4) The nurse takes into consideration that long-term use of antibiotics can cause an antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis from the organism________.
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Chapter 45: Care of the Patient with a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it advantageous for a live person to be a liver donor?
A) Because the donor is not at risk for any complication
B) Because the recipient is more likely to avoid rejection
C) Because the donor donates only a part of the liver
D) Because the blood supply is more dependable in the donated liver
Q2) The 100 lb patient who has been exposed to hepatitis A is to receive an injection of immune serum globulin. What should the dose (.02 mL/kg) be?
A) 0.9 mL
B) 1.4 mL
C) 1.6 mL
D) 1.8 mL
Q3) The nurse is aware that an elevated serum amylase is diagnostic of pancreatitis at an early stage as an elevation can be assessed as early as _____ after the onset of pancreatic disease.
A) 2 hours
B) 8 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 36 hours
Q4) Hepatitis D is usually seen as a co-infection with __________.
Page 48
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Chapter 46: Care of the Patient with a Blood or Lymphatic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which mandatory practice is the most effective and significant nursing practice to prevent the spread of infection?
A) Strict and frequent handwashing by all people having contact with the patient
B) Placement of patients in private rooms with high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filtration
C) Administration of combinations of prophylactic antibiotics
D) Creation of a "sterile" environment for the patient with the use of laminar airflow rooms
Q2) The Reed-Sternberg cell is the hallmark diagnostic indicator for
Q3) What is the process by which certain cells engulf and digest microorganisms and cellular debris?
A) Erythrocytosis
B) Hematocrit
C) Phagocytosis
D) Hemostasis
Q4) The nurse clarifies that ____________ _______________ replaces iron stores needed for red blood cell production.
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Q5) Neutrophils release ______________, an enzyme that destroys certain bacteria.
Chapter 47: Care of the Patient with a Cardiovascular or a Peripheral
Vascular Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has become very dyspneic, respirations are 32, and the pulse is 100. The patient is coughing up frothy red sputum. What should be the initial nursing intervention?
A) Lay the patient flat to reduce hypotension and the symptoms of cardiogenic shock.
B) Place patient in side-lying position to reduce the symptoms of atrial fibrillation.
C) Place patient upright with legs in dependent position to reduce the symptoms of pulmonary edema.
D) Lay the patient flat and elevate the feet to increase venous return in cardiogenic shock.
Q2) Which information should be taught to patients starting on anticoagulant therapy for a valvular disorder? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increase the dose of aspirin for better therapy.
B) Take medication at the same time each day.
C) Report to physician cuts that do not stop bleeding with direct pressure.
D) No restrictions for food or drink.
E) Report for prescribed blood tests (PTT, INR, CBC, blood sugar).
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Chapter 48: Care of the Patient with a Respiratory Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient with long-term emphysema is admitted with a secondary diagnosis of cor pulmonale. What should the nurse anticipate?
A) The patient will present with edema of the lower extremities and extended neck veins due to hypertension of the pulmonary circulation.
B) The patient will present with a dry hacking cough and chest pain due to constriction of the pulmonary vein.
C) The patient will present with hypertension and a headache related to pulmonary hypertension.
D) The patient will present with unlabored respiration and cyanosis around the mouth.
Q2) The nurse explains to the person with pneumonia in the left lung that being positioned in the "good lung down" offers the advantage of (select all that apply):
A) PaO2 rising in the good lung.
B) blood flow to "bad lung" being increased.
C) the dependent lung being better perfused.
D) dyspnea disappearing.
E) decreased hypoxia.
Q3) The nurse explains that the opening between the vocal cords is the __________.
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Chapter 49: Care of the Patient with a Urinary Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the home health patient is started on dialysis, the home health nurse refers the patient to a community support group that assists with the adjustments necessary to living with dialysis. Which group offers this service?
A) National Kidney Foundation
B) American Association of Kidney Patients
C) American Red Cross
D) Veterans Administration
Q2) The patient is on postoperative day 1 after having undergone a TURP procedure. He has continuous bladder irrigation (CBI). Actual urine output during continuous bladder irrigation is calculated by:
A) measuring and recording all fluid output in the drainage bag.
B) measuring the total output and deducting the total of the irrigating and intravenous solutions.
C) adding the total of the intravenous and irrigating solutions and then deducting the amount of output.
D) measuring total output and deducting the amount of irrigating solution used.
Q3) The prostatectomy technique, which involves an incision through the abdomen and the bladder, is a ____________prostatectomy.
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) What information should be obtained from the patient before an iodine-131 test?
A) Presence of metal in the body
B) Allergy to sulfa drugs
C) Status of possible pregnancy
D) Use of prescription drugs for hypertension
Q2) What is the postoperative position for a person who has had a thyroidectomy?
A) Prone
B) Semi-Fowler
C) Side-lying
D) Supine
Q3) The patient is a 20-year-old college student who has type 1 diabetes and normally walks each evening as part of an exercise regimen. The patient plans to enroll in a swimming class. Which adjustment should be made based on this information?
A) Time the morning insulin injection so that the peak action will occur during swimming class.
B) Delete normal walks on swimming class days.
C) Delay the meal before the swimming class until the session is over.
D) Monitor glucose level before, during, and after swimming to determine the need for alterations in food or insulin.
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Page 53
Chapter 51: Care of the Patient with a Reproductive Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What instruction should a nurse give a patient with congenital herpes who does not have lesions at the present?
A) "Continued use of acyclovir (Zovirax) will prevent reinfection by the virus."
B) "Condoms should be used during all sexual activity to prevent transmission of the virus, even when lesions are not present."
C) "Acyclovir ointment should be applied to the lesions to increase comfort and speed healing."
D) "Recurrent genital herpes is promoted by any sexual stimulation."
Q2) On the second postoperative day, a patient who has had an abdominal hysterectomy complains of gas and abdominal distention. Which intervention would be most appropriate to stimulate a bowel movement?
A) Offering carbonated beverages
B) Encouraging ambulation at least four times per day
C) Administering a 1000-mL soapsuds enema
D) Applying an abdominal binder
Q3) _____________ are the most benign tumors of the uterus and arise from the uterine muscle tissue.
Q4) ________are produced in the seminiferous tubules and stored in the epididymis.
Page 54
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do miotic eyedrops do for a patient with glaucoma?
A) Dilate the pupil and sharpen vision
B) Lubricate and moisten the dry eye
C) Irrigate the surface of the eye
D) Constrict the pupil and open the canal of Schlemm
Q2) Arrange the parts of the eye from the exterior to the most interior. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D)
A) Choroid
B) Cornea
C) Aqueous humor
D) Retina
E) Lens
F) Iris
Q3) What does the cataract treatment of phacoemulsification involve?
A) "Drying" the cataract with hypertonic saline
B) Removing the lens through the anterior capsule
C) The insertion of a new lens
D) Breaking the cataract with ultrasound
Q4) The total removal of an eye is a(n) ___________.
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Chapter 53: Care of the Patient with a Neurologic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are surgical navigational systems?
A) Computerized devices that guide the surgeon
B) A set of detailed anatomic maps pinpointing specific areas of the brain
C) A written set of progressive processes for the resection of small brain tumors
D) The use of radioactive materials to pinpoint small tumors of the brain
Q2) What is the basic problem that prompts most of the early signs of Alzheimer disease?
A) Changes in mood
B) Misplacing things
C) Memory loss that disrupts daily life
D) Problems with words in speaking
Q3) Involuntary rhythmic movement of the eyes, with oscillations that may be horizontal, vertical, or mixed movements, is called ___________________
Q4) The waxy substance that covers the neuron fibers and increases the rate of transmission of impulses is the ________.
Q5) _________________ is/are responsible for the transmission of impulses between synapses.
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the substance released by the T cells that stimulates the lymphocytes to attack an inflammation?
A) Lymphokine
B) Epinephrine
C) B cells
D) Histamine
Q2) A transfusion using blood from one's own blood is a(n) ___________ transfusion, which is the best defense against a transfusion reaction.
Q3) Which symptom would be classified as a mild transfusion reaction?
A) Orthopnea
B) Tachycardia
C) Hypotension
D) Wheezing
Q4) What is the purpose of plasmapheresis in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
A) To add corticosteroids to relieve pain
B) To remove pathologic substances present in the plasma
C) To remove waste products such as urea and albumin
D) To add antinuclear antibodies
Q5) A type IV latex allergy is characterized by________ _______.
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Chapter 55: Care of the Patient with HIV/AIDS
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does the HIV-2 virus compare to the HIV-1 virus? (Select all that apply.)
A) It has lower mortality risks in the older adult
B) It is less virulent
C) It is less infectious in the initial stage of infection
D) It predisposes the HIV-infected person to a normal life span
E) It develops high viral loads
Q2) The home health nurse designing a teaching plan for a person with HIV disease that would support weight gain would include information pertaining to (Select all that apply.)
A) Limit fluid intake
B) Eating high-protein/high-calorie diet
C) Drinking nutritional supplements (Boost, Sustacal, etc.)
D) Eating several small meals during the day
E) Providing referrals to dietitians
F) Resistance weight training
Q3) ______________ is a type of sexual option classified as "no risk" for a person to become infected with the HIV virus.
Q4) The combination of efforts of the medical team, nutritionist, social workers, and clergy is the necessary ______________ approach to the complex needs of the patients with HIV infection.
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Chapter 56: Care of the Patient with Cancer
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5510
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has developed stomatitis from chemotherapy. What should the appropriate intervention for this condition include?
A) Instruction in the following of a liquid diet
B) Using a commercial mouthwash after each meal
C) Cleaning teeth with a cotton swab dipped in hydrogen peroxide
D) Using a soft toothbrush
Q2) The nurse is aware that American men and women have which of the following three sites for cancer in common? (Select all that apply.)
A) Lung
B) Brain
C) Colon
D) Liver
E) Rectum
F) Thyroid
Q3) The American Cancer Society recommends a clinical breast examination by a health care professional for women between the age of 20 and 39 years every ________ years.
Q4) The nurse remarks that the American Cancer Society (ACS) reports that cancer is the ______ leading cause of death in the United States.
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Chapter 57: Professional Roles and Leadership
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5511
Sample Questions
Q1) What data are necessary to compile an effective end-of-shift report? (Select all that apply.)
A) Patient's mental status
B) Status of lung sounds
C) All pertinent nursing care
D) The patient's favorite TV shows
E) Visitors the patient had during the shift
Q2) What is another term for promotion?
A) Reward
B) Advancement
C) Lift
D) Bubble
Q3) An employee failed to perform the duties listed in the employment contract. What is the term for this failure?
A) Lawsuit
B) Termination
C) Breach of contract
D) Reprimand
Q4) After transcribing each order in a list of orders, the nurse should ___________ __________ the order.
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