
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Clinical Nursing Practice provides students with essential hands-on experience in the application of nursing theory and skills in real healthcare settings. This course emphasizes the development of critical thinking, clinical judgment, and professional communication through direct patient care under supervision. Students will engage in a variety of clinical environments, including hospitals, community health organizations, and long-term care facilities, where they will practice assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation of nursing interventions. The course also focuses on evidence-based practice, legal and ethical considerations, documentation, and interdisciplinary collaboration to prepare students for effective and safe patient-centered care.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition by Lilley
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58 Chapters
791 Verified Questions
791 Flashcards
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Page 2
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which activity best reflects the implementation phase of the nursing process for the patient who is newly diagnosed with hypertension?
A) Providing education on keeping a journal of blood pressure readings
B) Setting goals and outcome criteria with the patient's input
C) Recording a drug history regarding over-the-counter medications used at home
D) Formulating human needs statements regarding insufficient knowledge related to the new treatment regimen
Answer: A
Q2) The patient is to receive oral guaifenesin (Mucinex) twice a day. Today, the nurse was busy and gave the medication 2 hours after the scheduled dose was due. What type of problem does this represent?
A) "Right time"
B) "Right dose"
C) "Right route"
D) "Right medication"
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) When given an intravenous medication, the patient says to the nurse, "I usually take pills. Why does this medication have to be given in the arm?" What is the nurse's best answer?
A) "The medication will cause fewer adverse effects when given intravenously."
B) "The intravenous medication will have delayed absorption into the body's tissues."
C) "The action of the medication will begin sooner when given intravenously."
D) "There is a lower chance of allergic reactions when drugs are given intravenously."
Answer: C
Q2) A drug dose that delivers 800 mg has a half-life of 5 hours. Identify how much drug will remain in the body after one half-life. _______ Answer: 400 mg
A drug's half-life is the time required for one half of an administered dose of a drug to be eliminated by the body, or the time it takes for the blood level of a drug to be reduced by 50%. Therefore, one half of 800 mg equals 400 mg.
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Sample Questions
Q1) An elderly patient with a new diagnosis of hypertension will be receiving a new prescription for an antihypertensive drug. The nurse expects which type of dosing to occur with this drug therapy?
A) Drug therapy will be based on the patient's weight.
B) Drug therapy will be based on the patient's age.
C) The patient will receive the maximum dose that is expected to reduce the blood pressure.
D) The patient will receive the lowest possible dose at first, and then the dose will be increased as needed.
Answer: D
Q2) An 83-year-old woman has been given a thiazide diuretic to treat heart failure. She and her daughter should be told to watch for which problems?
A) Constipation and anorexia
B) Fatigue, leg cramps, and dehydration
C) Daytime sedation and lethargy
D) Edema, nausea, and blurred vision
Answer: B
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Q1) During the development of a new drug, which would be included in the study by the researcher to prevent any bias or unrealistic expectations of the new drug's usefulness?
A) A placebo
B) FDA approval
C) Informed consent
D) Safety information
Q2) During a busy night shift, a new nurse administered an unfamiliar medication without checking it in a drug handbook. Later that day, the patient had a severe reaction because he has renal problems, which was a contraindication to that drug. The nurse may be liable for which of these?
A) Medical negligence
B) Nursing negligence
C) Nonmaleficence
D) Autonomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing medication errors. Which situation is an example of a medication error?
A) A patient refuses her morning medications.
B) A patient receives a double dose of a medication because the nurse did not cut the pill in half.
C) A patient develops hives after having started an IV antibiotic 24 hours earlier.
D) A patient complains of severe pain still present 60 minutes after a pain medication was given.
Q2) Levothyroxine is available in 75-mcg tablet form. Convert this dose to milligram strength. (do not round) _______
Q3) The nurse is reviewing a list of verbal medication orders. Which is the proper notation of the dose of the drug ordered?
A) Levothyroxine.75 mg
B) Levothyroxine.750 mg
C) Levothyroxine 0.75 mg
D) Levothyroxine 0.750 mg
Q4) Digoxin is available in 0.125-mg tablet form. Convert this dose to microgram strength. (do not round) _______
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Q1) A 60-year-old patient is on several new medications and expresses worry that she will forget to take her pills. Which action by the nurse would be most helpful in this situation?
A) Teaching effective coping strategies
B) Asking the patient's prescriber to reduce the number of drugs prescribed
C) Assuring the patient that she will not forget once she is accustomed to the routine
D) Assisting the patient with obtaining and learning to use a calendar or pill container
Q2) During a nursing assessment, which question by the nurse allows for greater clarification and additional discussion with the patient?
A) "Are you allergic to penicillin?"
B) "What medications do you take?"
C) "Have you had a reaction to this drug?"
D) "Are you taking this medication with meals?"
Q3) A patient is to receive prednisone 7.5 mg PO daily. The tablets are available in a 2.5-mg strength. Identify how many tablets will the patient receive. _______
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Q1) The patient wants to take the herbal product kava to help him rest at night. The nurse would be concerned about potential interactions if he is taking a medication from which class of drugs?
A) Digitalis
B) Anticoagulants
C) Sedatives
D) Immunosuppressants
Q2) The nurse is conducting a class for senior citizens about the use of over-the-counter (OTC) drugs. Which statements are true regarding the use of OTC drugs?
A) Use of OTC drugs may delay treatment of serious ailments.
B) Drug interactions with OTC medications are rare.
C) OTC drugs may relieve symptoms without addressing the cause of the problem.
D) OTC drugs are indicated for long-term treatment of conditions.
E) Patients may misunderstand product labels and use the drugs improperly.
Q3) A patient with a PEG tube is to receive ferrous sulfate, 65 mg per the tube, daily. The medication is available as an elixir, 220 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive per dose? Record your answer using one decimal place.
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Q1) The nurse is reviewing principles of genetics. Which of these is a long strand of DNA that is contained within the nuclei of cells?
A) Gene
B) Allele
C) Genome
D) Chromosome
Q2) A patient will be receiving ranitidine (Zantac) 150 mg twice a day. A liquid form is ordered because the patient cannot swallow pills or capsules; the concentration of the liquid is 15 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive per dose?
Q3) A patient has just been told that she has the genetic markers for a severe type of breast cancer. After the patient meets with the physician, the patient's daughter asks the nurse, "What did the doctor tell my mother? She seems upset." What is the nurse's best response?
A) "I'm sorry, but I'm not allowed to discuss that."
B) "The physician will discuss this with you."
C) "It seems that your mother has the genetic markers for a type of breast cancer."
D) "This is information that your mother will need to discuss with you."
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Q1) The nurse is measuring 4 mL of a liquid cough elixir for a child. Which method is most appropriate?
A) Using a teaspoon to measure and administer
B) Holding the medication cup at eye level and filling it to the desired level
C) Withdrawing the elixir from the container using a syringe without a needle attached
D) Withdrawing the elixir from the container using a calibrated oral syringe
Q2) A patient says he prefers to chew rather than swallow his pills. One of the pills has the abbreviation SR behind the name of the medication. The nurse needs to remember which correct instruction regarding how to give this medication?
A) Break the tablet into halves or quarters.
B) Dissolve the tablet in a small amount of water before giving it.
C) Do not crush or break the tablet before administration.
D) Crush the tablet as needed to ease administration.
Q3) When administering nasal spray, which instruction by the nurse is appropriate?
A) "You will need to blow your nose before I give this medication."
B) "You will need to blow your nose after I give this medication."
C) "When I give this medication, you will need to hold your breath."
D) "You need to sit up for 5 minutes after you receive the nasal spray."
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Q1) The drug nalbuphine (Nubain) is an agonist-antagonist (partial agonist). The nurse understands that which is a characteristic of partial agonists?
A) They have anti-inflammatory effects.
B) They are given to reverse the effects of opiates.
C) They have a higher potency than agonists.
D) They have a lower dependency potential than agonists.
Q2) The opioid Vicodin (acetaminophen/hydrocodone) is prescribed for a patient who has had surgery. The nurse informs the patient that which common adverse effects can occur with this medication?
A) Diarrhea
B) Constipation
C) Lightheadedness
D) Nervousness
E) Urinary retention
F) Itching
Q3) A patient is to receive methadone (Dolophine) 2.5 mg intramuscularly (IM) now. The medication is available in a concentration of 10 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of methadone will be drawn up for this dose. ______
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Q1) During a fishing trip, a patient pierced his finger with a large fishhook. He is now in the emergency department to have it removed. The nurse anticipates that which type of anesthesia will be used for this procedure?
A) No anesthesia
B) Topical benzocaine spray on the area
C) Topical prilocaine/lidocaine (EMLA) cream around the site
D) Infiltration of the puncture wound with lidocaine
Q2) When administering a neuromuscular blocking drug, the nurse needs to remember which principle?
A) It is used instead of general anesthesia during surgery.
B) Only skeletal muscles are paralyzed; respiratory muscles remain functional.
C) It causes sedation and pain relief while allowing for lower doses of anesthetics.
D) Artificial mechanical ventilation is required because of paralyzed respiratory muscles.
Q3) A patient is to receive midazolam (Versed) 2 mg IV push over 2 minutes just before an endoscopy procedure. The medication is available in a strength of 1 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication will the nurse draw up into the syringe for this dose.
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Q1) Ramelteon (Rozerem) is prescribed for a patient with insomnia. The nurse checks the patient's medical history, knowing that this medication is contraindicated in which disorder?
A) Coronary artery disease
B) Renal insufficiency
C) Liver disease
D) Anemia
Q2) The nurse notes in the patient's medication history that the patient is taking cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
A) A musculoskeletal injury
B) Insomnia
C) Epilepsy
D) Agitation
Q3) A patient is about to receive pentobarbital (Nembutal) 100 mg IV as preoperative sedation. The medication is available in a concentration of 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive for this dose?
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Q1) The nurse is reviewing the use of central nervous system stimulants. Which of these are indications for this class of drugs?
A) Narcolepsy
B) Depression
C) Panic attacks
D) Neonatal apnea
E) Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
F) Appetite suppression
Q2) A patient who started taking orlistat (Xenical) 1 month ago calls the clinic to report some "embarrassing" adverse effects. She tells the nurse that she has had episodes of "not being able to control my bowel movements." Which statement is true about this situation?
A) These are expected adverse effects that will eventually diminish.
B) The patient will need to stop this drug immediately if these adverse effects are occurring.
C) The patient will need to increase her fat intake to prevent these adverse effects.
D) The patient will need to restrict fat intake to less than 30% of total calories to help reduce these adverse effects.
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Q1) When teaching a patient about taking a newly prescribed antiepileptic drug (AED) at home, the nurse will include which instruction?
A) "Driving is allowed after 2 weeks of therapy."
B) "If seizures recur, take a double dose of the medication."
C) "Antacids can be taken with the AED to reduce gastrointestinal adverse effects."
D) "Take the drug at the same time every day."
Q2) A patient is experiencing status epilepticus. The nurse prepares to give which drug of choice for the treatment of this condition?
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Midazolam (Versed)
C) Valproic acid (Depakote)
D) Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Q3) A 9-year-old child will be receiving carbamazepine (Tegretol) suspension, 200 mg twice daily. The medication is available in a strength of 100 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will give to the patient for each dose. _______
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Q1) A patient has been given a prescription for levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) for a new diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. The patient asks the nurse, "Why are there two drugs in this pill?" The nurse's best response reflects which fact?
A) Carbidopa allows for larger doses of levodopa to be given.
B) Carbidopa prevents the breakdown of levodopa in the periphery.
C) There are concerns about drug-food interactions with levodopa therapy that do not exist with the combination therapy.
D) Carbidopa is the biologic precursor of dopamine and can penetrate into the central nervous system.
Q2) A patient who has been on levodopa therapy for a year has a new order for a catechol ortho-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitor as part of treatment for Parkinson's disease. The nurse recognizes that which of these is an advantage of this drug class?
A) It has a shorter duration of action.
B) It causes less gastrointestinal distress.
C) It has a slower onset than traditional Parkinson's disease drugs.
D) It reduces the wearing-off phenomenon.
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Q1) A patient has been admitted to the emergency department with a suspected overdose of a tricyclic antidepressant. The nurse will prepare for what immediate concern?
A) Hypertension
B) Renal failure
C) Cardiac dysrhythmias
D) Gastrointestinal bleeding
Q2) The nurse is reviewing medications used for depression. Which of these statements is a reason that selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are more widely prescribed today than tricyclic antidepressants?
A) SSRIs have fewer sexual side effects.
B) Unlike tricyclic antidepressants, SSRIs do not have drug-food interactions.
C) Tricyclic antidepressants cause serious cardiac dysrhythmias if an overdose occurs.
D) SSRIs cause a therapeutic response faster than tricyclic antidepressants.
Q3) A patient is to receive an intravenous dose of lorazepam (Ativan). The order reads, "Give lorazepam, 1 mg, IV push, now." Identify how many milliliters the nurse will administer for this dose. The medication vial contains 2 mg/mL. _______
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Q1) A nurse is providing teaching for a patient who will be taking varenicline (Chantix) as part of a smoking-cessation program. Which teaching points are appropriate for a patient taking this medication?
A) This drug is available as a chewing gum that can be taken to reduce cravings.
B) Use caution when driving because drowsiness may be a problem.
C) There have been very few adverse effects reported for this drug.
D) Notify the prescriber immediately if feelings of sadness or thoughts of suicide occur.
E) Avoid caffeine while on this drug.
Q2) A 38-year-old male patient stopped smoking 6 months ago. He tells the nurse that he still feels strong cigarette cravings and wonders if he is ever going to feel "normal" again. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "It's possible that these cravings will never stop."
B) "These cravings may persist for several months."
C) "The cravings tell us that you are still using nicotine."
D) "The cravings show that you are about to experience nicotine withdrawal."
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Q1) A 14-year-old patient has been treated for asthma for almost 4 months. Two weeks ago, she was given salmeterol as part of her medication regimen. However, her mother has called the clinic to report that it does not seem to work when her daughter is having an asthma attack. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
A) "It takes time for a therapeutic response to develop."
B) "She is too young for this particular medication; it will be changed."
C) "She needs to take up to two puffs every 4 hours to ensure adequate blood levels."
D) "This medication is indicated for prevention of bronchospasms, not for relief of acute symptoms."
Q2) An adrenergic agonist is ordered for a patient in shock. The nurse will note that this drug has had its primary intended effect if which expected outcome occurs?
A) Volume restoration
B) Increased cardiac output
C) Decreased urine output
D) Reduced anxiety
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Q1) A patient is going home with a new prescription for the beta-blocker atenolol (Tenormin). The nurse will include which content when teaching the patient about this drug?
A) Never stop taking this medication abruptly.
B) The medication will be stopped once symptoms subside.
C) If adverse effects occur, stop taking the drug for 24 hours, and then resume.
D) Be watchful for first-dose hypotension.
Q2) The teaching for a patient who is taking tamsulosin (Flomax) to reduce urinary obstruction due to benign prostatic hyperplasia will include which of these?
A) Fluids need to be restricted while on this medication.
B) Take the medication with breakfast to promote the maximum effects of the drug.
C) Get up slowly from a sitting or lying position.
D) Blood pressure must be monitored because the medication may cause hypertension.
Q3) A patient has an order for carvedilol (Coreg) 9.375 mg twice a day PO. The tablets are 3.125 mg each. Identify how many tablets will the nurse administer per dose.
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Q1) A patient is receiving memantine (Namenda) 10 mg PO daily. The patient is unable to swallow pills, so an oral solution that contains 2 mg/mL is ordered. Identify how much will the patient receive per dose. _______
Q2) A patient who has had abdominal surgery has been discharged on a cholinergic drug to assist in increasing gastrointestinal peristalsis. The nurse will teach this patient to look for which therapeutic effect?
A) Decreased pulse rate
B) Abdominal cramping
C) Passage of flatus
D) Decreased urge to void
Q3) The nurse notes in a patient's medication history that the patient is taking pilocarpine (Pilocar). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
A) Anticholinergic poisoning
B) Glaucoma
C) Bladder atony
D) Myasthenia gravis
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Q1) The nurse is about to administer a stat dose of intravenous atropine sulfate to a patient who is experiencing a symptomatic cardiac dysrhythmia. During administration of this drug, the nurse will monitor the patient closely for which adverse effect?
A) Tachycardia
B) Bradycardia
C) Ectopic beats
D) Cardiac standstill
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the use of anticholinergic drugs. Anticholinergic drugs block the effects of which nervous system?
A) Central nervous system
B) Somatic nervous system
C) Sympathetic nervous system
D) Parasympathetic nervous system
Q3) The nurse will monitor for which adverse effect when administering an anticholinergic drug?
A) Excessive urination
B) Diaphoresis
C) Dry mouth
D) Pupillary constriction
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Q1) A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus has been found to have trace proteinuria. The prescriber writes an order for an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. What is the main reason for prescribing this class of drug for this patient?
A) Cardioprotective effects
B) Renal protective effects
C) Reduces blood pressure
D) Promotes fluid output
Q2) A patient has a new order for the adrenergic drug doxazosin (Cardura). When providing education about this drug, the nurse will include which instructions?
A) "Weigh yourself daily, and report any weight loss to your prescriber."
B) "Increase your potassium intake by eating more bananas and apricots."
C) "The impaired taste associated with this medication usually goes away in 2 to 3 weeks."
D) "Be sure to lie down after taking the first dose, because first-dose hypotension may make you dizzy."
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Q1) A patient has been taking a beta blocker for 4 weeks as part of his antianginal therapy. He also has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hyperthyroidism. When discussing possible adverse effects, the nurse will include which information?
A) "Watch for unusual weight loss."
B) "Monitor your pulse for increased heart rate."
C) "Use the hot tub and sauna at the gym as long as time is limited to 15 minutes."
D) "Monitor your blood glucose levels for possible hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia."
Q2) A patient with a history of angina will be started on ranolazine (Ranexa). The nurse is reviewing the patient's history and will note potential contraindications to this drug therapy if which condition is present?
A) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
B) Prolonged QT interval on the electrocardiogram
C) Heart failure
D) Closed-angle glaucoma
E) Decreased liver function
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Q1) A patient is in the intensive care unit and receiving an infusion of milrinone (Primacor) for severe heart failure. The prescriber has written an order for an intravenous dose of furosemide (Lasix). How will the nurse give this drug?
A) Infuse the drug into the same intravenous line as the milrinone.
B) Stop the milrinone, flush the line, and then administer the furosemide.
C) Administer the furosemide in a separate intravenous line.
D) Notify the prescriber that the furosemide cannot be given at this time.
Q2) The medication order for a 5-year-old child reads, "Give digoxin elixir, 15 mcg/kg, PO now." Convert the 15 micrograms to milligrams. _______
Q3) The nurse administering the phosphodiesterase inhibitor milrinone (Primacor) recognizes that this drug will have a positive inotropic effect. Which result reflects this effect?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Increased blood vessel dilation
C) Increased force of cardiac contractions
D) Increased conduction of electrical impulses across the heart
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer a bolus dose of verapamil (Calan) as follows: "Give 5-mg bolus of verapamil, IV push, over 2 minutes. May repeat in 30 minutes if needed." The medication is available in a 2.5-mg/mL strength solution. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse draw into the syringe for this dose. _______
Q2) A 62-year-old man is to receive lidocaine as treatment for a symptomatic dysrhythmia. Upon assessment, the nurse notes that he has a history of alcoholism and has late-stage liver failure. The nurse will expect which adjustments to his drug therapy?
A) The dosage will be reduced by 50%.
B) A diuretic will be added to the lidocaine.
C) The lidocaine will be changed to an oral dosage form.
D) An increased dosage of lidocaine will be prescribed so as to obtain adequate blood levels.
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Q1) The nurse notes in the patient's medication orders that the patient will be starting anticoagulant therapy. What is the primary goal of anticoagulant therapy?
A) Stabilizing an existing thrombus
B) Dissolving an existing thrombus
C) Preventing thrombus formation
D) Dilating the vessel around a clot
Q2) A patient is receiving thrombolytic therapy, and the nurse monitors the patient for adverse effects. What is the most common undesirable effect of thrombolytic therapy?
A) Dysrhythmias
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Anaphylactic reactions
D) Internal and superficial bleeding
Q3) When administering heparin subcutaneously, the nurse will follow which procedure?
A) Aspirating the syringe before injecting the medication
B) Massaging the site after injection
C) Use the same area for each injection.
D) Using a 1/2- to 5/8-inch 25- to 27-gauge needle
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Q1) While a patient is receiving antilipemic therapy, the nurse knows to monitor the patient closely for the development of which problem?
A) Neutropenia
B) Pulmonary problems
C) Vitamin C deficiency
D) Liver dysfunction
Q2) A patient with elevated lipid levels has a new prescription for nicotinic acid (niacin). The nurse informs the patient that which adverse effects may occur with this medication?
A) Pruritus, cutaneous flushing
B) Tinnitus, urine with a burnt odor
C) Myalgia, fatigue
D) Blurred vision, headaches
Q3) The nurse will monitor for myopathy (muscle pain) when a patient is taking which class of antilipemic drugs?
A) Niacin
B) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
C) Fibric acid derivatives
D) Bile acid sequestrants
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient is receiving diuretic therapy, which of these assessment measures would best reflect the patient's fluid volume status?
A) Blood pressure and pulse
B) Serum potassium and sodium levels
C) Intake, output, and daily weight
D) Measurements of abdominal girth and calf circumference
Q2) When monitoring a patient who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL), the nurse notes that which drug is most likely to cause a severe interaction with the diuretic?
A) Digitalis
B) Penicillin
C) Potassium supplements
D) Aspirin
Q3) The nurse will monitor a patient for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia if the patient is taking which of these diuretics?
A) Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
B) Furosemide (Lasix)
C) Acetazolamide (Diamox)
D) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48010
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Q1) A patient is receiving an infusion of fresh frozen plasma. Based on this order, the nurse interprets that this patient has which condition?
A) Hypovolemic shock
B) Anemia
C) Coagulation disorder
D) Previous transfusion reaction
Q2) When monitoring a patient for signs of hypokalemia, the nurse looks for what early sign?
A) Seizures
B) Cardiac dysrhythmias
C) Diarrhea
D) Muscle weakness
Q3) When reviewing the health history of a patient, the nurse will note that a potential contraindication to potassium supplements exists if the patient has which problem?
A) Burns
B) Diarrhea
C) Renal disease
D) Cardiac tachydysrhythmias
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Q1) A patient's medication order indicates that he is to receive a dose of cosyntropin (Cortrosyn). The nurse is aware that this drug is used to diagnose which condition?
A) Adrenocortical insufficiency
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Myasthenia gravis
D) Pituitary dwarfism
Q2) A 16-year-old boy who is taking somatropin comes into the office because he had an asthma attack during a race at school. Because of this new development, the nurse expects which intervention to occur next?
A) He will need to stop participating in school physical education classes.
B) The somatropin must be discontinued immediately.
C) The somatropin dosage may be adjusted.
D) His growth will be documented and monitored for changes.
Q3) When a patient is receiving vasopressin (Pitressin), the nurse will monitor for which therapeutic response?
A) Improved appetite
B) Increased serum albumin levels
C) Increased serum potassium levels
D) Decreased urinary output
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Q1) A patient, newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism, has received a prescription for thyroid replacement therapy. The nurse will instruct the patient to take this medication at which time of day?
A) In the morning
B) With the noon meal
C) With the evening meal
D) At bedtime
Q2) A patient has been taking levothyroxine (Synthroid) for more than one decade for primary hypothyroidism. Today she calls because she has a cousin who can get her the same medication in a generic form from a pharmaceutical supply company. Which is the nurse's best advice?
A) "This would be a great way to save money."
B) "There's no difference in brands of this medication."
C) "This should never be done; once you start with a certain brand, you must stay with it."
D) "It's better not to switch brands unless we check with your doctor."
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Q1) When teaching about hypoglycemia, the nurse will make sure that the patient is aware of the early signs of hypoglycemia, including which of these?
A) Hypothermia and seizures.
B) Nausea and diarrhea.
C) Confusion and sweating.
D) Fruity, acetone odor to the breath.
Q2) When monitoring a patient's response to oral antidiabetic drugs, the nurse knows that which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic response?
A) Random blood glucose level 180 mg/dL
B) Blood glucose level of 50 mg/dL after meals
C) Fasting blood glucose level of 92 mg/dL
D) Evening blood glucose level below 80 mg/dL
Q3) When teaching a patient who is starting metformin (Glucophage), which instruction by the nurse is correct?
A) "Take metformin if your blood glucose level is above 150 mg/dL."
B) "Take this 60 minutes after breakfast."
C) "Take the medication on an empty stomach 1 hour before meals."
D) "Take the medication with food to reduce gastrointestinal (GI) effects."
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Q1) The nurse expects that a patient is experiencing undersecretion of adrenocortical hormones when which conditions are found upon assessment?
A) Dehydration
B) Weight loss
C) Steroid psychosis
D) Increased potassium levels
E) Increased blood glucose levels
F) Decreased serum sodium levels
Q2) When monitoring a patient who is taking a systemically administered glucocorticoid, the nurse will monitor for signs of which condition?
A) Dehydration
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hyponatremia
D) Hypoglycemia
Q3) A patient has been admitted for an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and will be receiving methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 30 mg intravenously every 6 hours. The medication is available in 40 mg/mL vials. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse draw up for this dose. _______
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Q1) A patient is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to induce labor. During administration of this medication, the nurse will also implement which action?
A) Giving magnesium sulfate along with the oxytocin
B) Administering the medication in an intravenous (IV) bolus
C) Administering the medication with an IV infusion pump
D) Monitoring fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs every 2 hours
Q2) A woman is preparing for a 10 hour trans-Atlantic flight. She has been taking the SERM raloxifene (Evista) for 6 months. The nurse will provide which instructions to this patient?
A) She needs to stop taking the drug at least 72 hours before the trip.
B) She must remember to take this drug with a full glass of water each morning.
C) She will not take the drug while traveling on the plane.
D) No change in how the drug is taken will be needed.
Q3) A patient is to receive medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera) 700 mg weekly, intramuscularly, as part of palliative therapy for endometrial cancer. The medication is available in vials of 400 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse draw up and administer with each injection. (record answer using one decimal place) _______
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Q1) A 63-year-old male patient is scheduled for a physical examination, and he tells the nurse that he wants to start taking a vitamin formula that includes saw palmetto for prostate health. Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "I've heard many good things about saw palmetto."
B) "It's not a good idea to start herbal therapy at your age."
C) "There are very few adverse effects with saw palmetto therapy."
D) "The doctor will need to draw some blood and do a digital rectal exam first."
Q2) A 21-year-old male athlete admits to using androgenic steroids. The nurse tells him that which of these is a possible adverse effect of these drugs?
A) Liver damage
B) Renal failure
C) Heart failure
D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Q3) During the administration of finasteride (Proscar), the nurse must remember which important precaution?
A) It must be taken on an empty stomach.
B) It must not be handled by pregnant women.
C) It is given by deep intramuscular injection to avoid tissue irritation.
D) The patient needs to be warned that alopecia is a common adverse effect.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching a patient who will be receiving antihistamines, the nurse will include which instructions?
A) "Antihistamines are generally safe to take with over-the-counter medications."
B) "Take the medication on an empty stomach to maximize absorption of the drug."
C) "Take the medication with food to minimize gastrointestinal distress."
D) "Drink extra fluids if possible."
E) "Antihistamines may cause restlessness and disturbed sleep."
F) "Avoid activities that require alertness until you know how adverse effects are tolerated."
Q2) A patient will be receiving diphenhydramine (Benadryl) via a PEG tube, 25 mg, every 8 hours for an allergic rash. The medication is available as a 12.5 mg/5 mL syrup. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse administer with each dose. _______
Q3) A child will be receiving diphenhydramine (Benadryl), 5 mg/kg/day, in divided doses, every 6 hours. The child weighs 80 pounds. Identify how many milligrams of medication will the child receive with each dose. (record answer using one decimal place)
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Q1) A patient has a metered-dose inhaler that contains 200 actuations ('puffs'), and it does not have a dose counter. He is to take two puffs two times a day. If he does not take any extra doses, identify how many days will this inhaler last at the prescribed dose.
Q2) A patient will be receiving oral theophylline (Theo-Dur), 600 mg/day, in three divided doses. Identify how many milligrams the patient will receive per dose. _______
Q3) When evaluating a patient's use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI), the nurse notes that the patient is unable to coordinate the activation of the inhaler with her breathing. What intervention is most appropriate at this time?
A) Notify the prescriber that the patient is unable to use the MDI.
B) Obtain an order for a peak flow meter.
C) Obtain an order for a spacer device.
D) Ask the prescriber if the medication can be given orally.
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Q1) When reviewing the medication orders for a patient who is taking penicillin, the nurse notes that the patient is also taking the oral anticoagulant warfarin (Coumadin). What possible effect may occur as the result of an interaction between these drugs?
A) The penicillin will cause an enhanced anticoagulant effect of the warfarin.
B) The penicillin will cause the anticoagulant effect of the warfarin to decrease.
C) The warfarin will reduce the anti-infective action of the penicillin.
D) The warfarin will increase the effectiveness of the penicillin.
Q2) A patient has a urinary tract infection. The nurse knows that which class of drugs is especially useful for such infections?
A) Macrolides
B) Carbapenems
C) Sulfonamides
D) Tetracyclines
Q3) A patient will be receiving amoxicillin suspension 300 mg via a gastrostomy tube every 8 hours. The medication comes in a bottle that contains 400 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will administer with each dose. (record answer using one decimal place) _______
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Q1) The nurse is administering a vancomycin (Vancocin) infusion. Which measure is appropriate for the nurse to implement in order to reduce complications that may occur with this drug's administration?
A) Monitoring blood pressure for hypertension during the infusion
B) Discontinuing the drug immediately if red man syndrome occurs
C) Restricting fluids during vancomycin therapy
D) Infusing the drug over at least 1 hour
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the medication orders for a patient who will be receiving aminoglycoside therapy. Which other medication or medication class, if ordered, would be a potential interaction concern?
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Phenytoin
C) Proton pump inhibitors
D) Loop diuretics
Q3) Which problem may occur in a patient who has started aminoglycoside therapy?
A) Constipation
B) Renal damage
C) Gynecomastia
D) Leukocytosis
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Q1) A patient is taking a combination of antiviral drugs as treatment for early stages of a viral infection. While discussing the drug therapy, the patient asks the nurse if the drugs will kill the virus. When answering, the nurse keeps in mind which fact about antiviral drugs?
A) They are given for palliative reasons only.
B) They will be effective as long as the patient is not exposed to the virus again.
C) They can be given in large enough doses to eradicate the virus without harming the body's healthy cells.
D) They may also kill healthy cells while killing viruses.
Q2) The nurse is administering intravenous acyclovir (Zovirax) to a patient with a viral infection. Which administration technique is correct?
A) Infuse intravenous acyclovir slowly, over at least 1 hour.
B) Infuse intravenous acyclovir by rapid bolus.
C) Refrigerate intravenous acyclovir.
D) Restrict oral fluids during intravenous acyclovir therapy.
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Q1) The nurse is providing patient teaching for a patient who is starting antitubercular drug therapy. Which of these statements should be included?
A) "Take the medications until the symptoms disappear."
B) "Take the medications at the same time every day."
C) "You will be considered contagious during most of the illness and must take precautions to avoid spreading the disease."
D) "Stop taking the medications if you have severe adverse effects."
E) "Avoid alcoholic beverages while on this therapy."
F) "If you notice reddish-brown or reddish-orange urine, stop taking the drug and contact your doctor right away."
G) "If you experience a burning or tingling in your fingers or toes, report it to your prescriber immediately."
H) "Oral contraceptives may not work while you are taking these drugs, so you will have to use another form of birth control."
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Q1) The nurse is preparing an infusion of amphotericin B for a patient who has a severe fungal infection. Which intervention is appropriate regarding the potential adverse effects of amphotericin B?
A) Discontinuing the infusion immediately if fever, chills, or nausea occur
B) Gradually increasing the infusion rate until the expected adverse effects occur
C) If fever, chills, or nausea occur during the infusion, administering medications to treat the symptoms
D) Before beginning the infusion, administering an antipyretic and an antiemetic drug
Q2) During therapy with amphotericin B, the nurse will monitor the patient for known adverse effects that would be reflected by which laboratory result?
A) Serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L
B) Serum potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L
C) White blood cell count of 7000 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>
D) Platelet count of 300,000/microliter
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Q1) The nurse is reviewing antimalarial drug therapy with a patient and instructs the patient to watch for and report which potential adverse reactions?
A) Drowsiness
B) Insomnia
C) Visual disturbances
D) Constipation
Q2) A patient is being evaluated for a possible helminthic infection. The nurse knows that which statement about anthelmintic therapy is true?
A) The drugs may cause severe drowsiness.
B) Anthelmintics are very specific in their actions.
C) Anthelmintics are effective against broad classes of infestations.
D) The drugs are used to treat protozoal infections such as intestinal amebiasis.
Q3) A patient with Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia will be receiving pentamidine as an intravenous piggyback (IVPB) dose. The medication has been added to a 100-mL bag of D W for the infusion, and it needs to infuse over 120 minutes. The nurse will set the infusion pump to infuse at what rate for this IVPB medication? _______
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Q1) A 6-year-old child who has chickenpox also has a fever of 102.9° F (39.4° C). The child's mother asks the nurse if she should use aspirin to reduce the fever. What is the best response by the nurse?
A) "It's best to wait to see if the fever gets worse."
B) "You can use the aspirin, but watch for worsening symptoms."
C) "Acetaminophen (Tylenol) should be used to reduce his fever, not aspirin."
D) "You can use aspirin, but be sure to follow the instructions on the bottle."
Q2) A patient calls the clinic to ask about taking a glucosamine-chondroitin supplement for arthritis. The nurse reviews the medication history and notes that there will be a concern for drug interactions if the patient is also taking medications for which disorder?
A) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Hypertension
D) Angina
Q3) There is a new order for Naproxen (Naprosyn) 250 mg PO twice daily. The drug is available as an oral suspension that contains 125 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will administer for 1 dose of this medication. _______
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Q1) A patient is receiving irinotecan (Camptosar), along with other antineoplastic drugs, as treatment for ovarian cancer. The nurse will monitor for which potentially life-threatening adverse effect that is associated with this drug?
A) Severe stomatitis
B) Bone marrow suppression
C) Delayed-onset cholinergic diarrhea
D) Immediate and severe nausea and vomiting
Q2) Methotrexate is ordered for a patient with a malignant tumor, and the nurse is providing education about self-care after the chemotherapy is given. Which statements by the nurse are appropriate for the patient receiving methotrexate?
A) Report unusual bleeding or bruising.
B) Hair loss is not expected with this drug.
C) Prepare for hair loss.
D) Avoid areas with large crowds or gatherings.
E) Avoid foods that are too hot or too cold or rough in texture.
F) Restrict fluid intake to reduce nausea and vomiting.
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Q1) A patient is receiving a third session of chemotherapy with daunorubicin (Cerubidine). The nurse will assess the patient for which signs of a potential severe toxic effect of this drug?
A) Tinnitus and hearing loss
B) Numbness and tingling in the fingers
C) A weight gain of 2 pounds or more in 24 hours
D) Decreased blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
Q2) When a patient is receiving cisplatin (Platinol-AQ) chemotherapy, the nurse will monitor for which adverse effects?
A) Tinnitus
B) Heart failure
C) Hearing loss
D) Elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
E) Numbness or tingling in the extremities
F) Elevated glucose and ketone levels
Q3) A patient will be receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone), 12 mg/m²/day every 3 weeks, as part of treatment for prostate cancer. Each dose is mixed into a 50-mL bag of D W and needs to infuse over 15 minutes. The infusion pump delivers the dose at milliliters per hour. Identify the nurse will set the pump to infuse at what rate. _______
Page 48
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Q1) A patient asks about his cancer treatment with monoclonal antibodies. The nurse tells him that which is the major advantage of treating certain cancers with monoclonal antibodies?
A) They will help the patient improve more quickly than will other antineoplastic drugs.
B) They are more effective against metastatic tumors.
C) Monoclonal antibodies target certain tumor cells and yet bypass normal cells.
D) There are fewer incidences of opportunistic infections with monoclonal antibodies.
Q2) During interleukin drug therapy, a patient is showing signs of severe fluid retention, with increasing dyspnea and severe peripheral edema. The next dose of the interleukin is due now. Which action will the nurse take next?
A) Hold the drug, and notify the prescriber.
B) Give the drug, and notify the prescriber.
C) Give the drug along with acetaminophen and diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
D) Monitor the patient for 2 hours, and then give the drug if the patient's condition improves.
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer an injection of monoclonal antibodies. Which additional drug will the nurse administer to minimize adverse reactions to the monoclonal antibodies?
A) A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug
B) A benzodiazepine
C) An opioid pain reliever
D) A corticosteroid
Q2) A patient will be on a tacrolimus (Prograf) infusion after receiving a liver transplant. The order reads, "Give 0.03 mg/kg/day as a continuous IV infusion." The patient weighs 159 pounds, and the medication injection solution is available in a 5-mg/mL strength. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse draw up for this infusion. (record answer using two decimal places) _______
Q3) A patient who has had a recent organ transplant is taking sirolimus as part of the immunosuppressant therapy. Today, the patient realized that a dose was missed, and it is now time for the next dose. Which action is appropriate?
A) Just take the dose that is now due, not both doses.
B) Take the missed dose of sirolimus along with the next dose that is due.
C) Take half of the missed dose along with the current dose that is due.
D) Contact the transplant physician for instructions.
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Q1) A nurse is working in an immunization clinic. A new colleague asks, "When is the first dose of the diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DtaP, Daptacel) given?" The nurse knows that this series is started at what age?
A) At birth
B) 6 weeks
C) 3 months
D) 1 year
Q2) The nurse is reviewing principles of immunization. What type of immunization occurs when antibodies pass from mother to infant during breastfeeding or through the placenta during pregnancy?
A) Artificial active immunization
B) Attenuating immunization
C) Natural passive immunization
D) Artificial passive immunization
Q3) A health care worker will be receiving hepatitis B immunoglobulin (BayHep B), 0.06 mL/kg IM now and repeated in 30 days as part of hepatitis B prophylaxis after a needle stick accident. The patient weighs 264 pounds. Identify how many milliliters the patient will receive for each dose. (record answer using one decimal place) _______
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Q1) A patient is asking advice about which over-the-counter antacid is considered the most safe to use for heartburn. The nurse explains that the reason that calcium antacids are not used as frequently as other antacids is for which of these reasons?
A) Their use may result in kidney stones.
B) They cause decreased gastric acid production.
C) They cause severe diarrhea.
D) Their use may result in fluid retention and edema.
Q2) The nurse is providing patient teaching about antacids. Which statements about antacids are accurate?
A) Antacids reduce the production of acid in the stomach.
B) Antacids neutralize acid in the stomach.
C) Rebound hyperacidity may occur with calcium-based antacids.
D) Aluminum-based antacids cause diarrhea.
E) Magnesium-based antacids cause diarrhea.
Q3) A patient will be receiving pantoprazole (Protonix), 20 mg IV daily every morning. The medication, once reconstituted, has a strength of 40 mg/10 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will draw up for this dose. _______
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Q1) A laxative has been ordered for a patient. The nurse checks the patient's medical history and would be concerned if which condition is present?
A) High ammonia levels due to liver failure
B) Diverticulosis
C) Abdominal pain of unknown origin
D) Chronic constipation
Q2) A 10-year-old child will be receiving docusate sodium (Colace), 120 mg/day PO, divided into 3 doses. Identify how many milligrams will the child receive per dose.
Q3) A patient asks the nurse about the difference between diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) and the over-the-counter drug loperamide (Imodium). Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Lomotil acts faster than Imodium."
B) "Imodium does not cause physical dependence."
C) "Lomotil is available in suppository form."
D) "Imodium is a natural antidiarrheal drug."
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Q1) A patient with motion sickness is planning a cross-country car trip and has a new prescription for a scopolamine transdermal patch (Transderm-Scop). The nurse provides teaching for the use of this patch medication. The patient shows a correct understanding of the teaching with which statement?
A) "I will change the patch every day."
B) "I will change the patch every other day."
C) "I will change the patch every 3 days."
D) "I will remove the patch only if it stops working."
Q2) A patient who has severe nausea and vomiting following a case of food poisoning comes to the urgent care center. When reviewing his medication history, the nurse notes that he has an allergy to procaine. The nurse would question an order for which antiemetic drug if ordered for this patient?
A) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
B) Promethazine (Phenergan)
C) Phosphorated carbohydrate solution (Emetrol)
D) Palonosetron (Aloxi)
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Q1) The patient asks the nurse about taking large doses of vitamin C to improve her immunity to colds. "It's just a vitamin, right? What can happen?" Which responses by the nurse are correct?
A) "Vitamin C is harmless because it is a water-soluble vitamin."
B) "Large doses of vitamin C can cause nausea, vomiting, headache, and abdominal cramps."
C) "Keep in mind that if you suddenly stop taking these large doses, you might experience symptoms similar to scurvy."
D) "Studies have shown that vitamin C has little value in preventing the common cold."
E) "Vitamin C acidifies the urine, which can lead to the formation of kidney stones."
F) "Large doses of vitamin C may delay wound healing."
Q2) A patient will be receiving monthly injections of cyanocobalamin (Nascobal). The dose is 100 mcg/month IM. The medication is available in a strength of 1000 mcg/mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will draw up into the syringe. (record answer using one decimal place) _______
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Q1) A woman who is planning to become pregnant should ensure that she receives adequate levels of which supplement to reduce the risk for fetal neural tube defects?
A) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
B) Vitamin D
C) Iron
D) Folic acid
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient with iron-deficiency anemia about foods to increase iron intake. Which food may enhance the absorption of oral iron forms?
A) Milk
B) Yogurt
C) Antacids
D) Orange juice
Q3) A nurse is giving instructions to a patient who will be receiving oral iron supplements. Which instructions will be included in the teaching plan?
A) Take the iron tablets with milk or antacids.
B) Crush the pills as needed to help with swallowing.
C) Take the iron tablets with meals if gastrointestinal distress occurs.
D) If black tarry stools occur, report it to the doctor immediately.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a partial bowel obstruction will be given a 1-week course of enteral tube feeding via a nasogastric tube. Which formulation is appropriate for this patient?
A) Vivonex Plus, an elemental formulation
B) Osmolite, a polymeric formulation
C) Glucerna, a formulation for impaired glucose tolerance
D) Polycose, a modular formulation that contains carbohydrates
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer medications to a patient who is receiving a feeding via a gastric tube. When reviewing the patient's medication list, the nurse notes a potential concern about a food-drug interaction if which medication is listed?
A) Multivitamin solution
B) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
C) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
D) Warfarin (Coumadin)
Q3) The total parenteral nutrition (TPN) order reads, "Infuse TPN #2 over 24 hours." Bag #2 of TPN contains 1800 mL. At what rate will the nurse set the infusion pump? _______
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Sample Questions
Q1) A teenage boy is taking tretinoin (Retin-A) for acne. Which statement will the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A) "Avoid foods that are heavy in salt and oils."
B) "This drug may cause increased redness of your skin."
C) "Try using an abrasive cleanser to remove old skin layers."
D) "Being out in the sunlight will help your skin heal."
Q2) A patient is admitted to the hospital for possible septicemia. He has a large pressure ulcer on his heel that is open and includes necrotic tissue. However, his prothrombin time/international normalized ratio (PT/INR) values are too high to permit surgical débridement at this time. The nurse expects that which wound-care product will be used to treat the wound?
A) Cadexomer iodine (Iodosorb)
B) Biafine topical emulsion
C) Povidone-iodine (Betadine)
D) Collagenase (Santyl)
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58

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Q1) The nurse is administering ophthalmic drops. Choose the action that should be performed first.
A) Close the eye gently.
B) Apply gentle pressure to the inner canthus/lacrimal sac for 1 minute.
C) Place drops into the conjunctival sac.
D) Clean debris from the eye as needed.
E) Have the patient tilt the head back and look up at the ceiling.
F) Remove excess medication gently from around the eyes.
Q2) When teaching a patient about the proper application of eyedrops, the nurse will include which instruction?
A) "Apply the drops into the conjunctival sac instead of directly onto the eye."
B) "Apply the drops directly to the eyeball (cornea) for the best effect."
C) "Blot your eye with a tissue immediately after applying the drops."
D) "Tilt your head forward before applying the eyedrops."
Q3) A patient will be receiving mannitol (Osmitrol), 1.5 g/kg IV 1 hour before ocular surgery. The patient weighs 110 pounds. How many grams of mannitol will this patient receive for this dose? _______
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a child with otitis media. Which statement about otitis media is correct?
A) It is treated with over-the-counter medications.
B) In children, it commonly follows a lower respiratory tract infection.
C) Common symptoms include pain, fever, malaise, and a sensation of fullness in the ears.
D) Hearing deficits are associated only with inner ear infections, not with otitis media.
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient's wife about administering eardrops to her husband. The nurse will use which technique when demonstrating the skill?
A) Pull the pinna of the ear down and back.
B) Pull the pinna of the ear up and back.
C) Pull the pinna of the ear down and forward.
D) Pull the pinna of the ear up and forward.
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