Clinical Nursing Practice Textbook Exam Questions - 1995 Verified Questions

Course Introduction

Clinical Nursing Practice

Textbook Exam Questions

Clinical Nursing Practice is a foundational course designed to immerse students in the practical aspects of nursing within real healthcare settings. Through hands-on experiences, students develop essential clinical skills, including patient assessment, medication administration, documentation, and evidence-based care planning. Emphasis is placed on applying theoretical knowledge to a variety of patient scenarios, fostering critical thinking, effective communication, and professional behavior. Under the supervision of experienced instructors, students interact with patients and interdisciplinary healthcare teams, gaining confidence and competence in delivering safe, compassionate, and ethical nursing care.

Recommended Textbook

Medical Surgical Nursing 2nd Edition by

Kathleen S. Osborn

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67 Chapters

1995 Verified Questions

1995 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Preparation for Practice

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse with a high level of expertise is providing a report to the oncoming nurse about a particular patient. Which statement would exemplify this nurse's expert level of experience?

A) "I saw that the patient's eyes changed focus, and I kept the airway open until the seizure ended."

B) "I didn't realize that 2 days of bed rest would make the patient so weak."

C) "The other nurse helping me told me that I did a good job with the patient."

D) "I learned that diuretics can cause imbalances of many electrolytes."

Answer: A

Q2) After receiving a report, the nurse reviews all the activities that must be completed for a group of patients. This nurse is demonstrating which characteristic of a competent nurse?

A) Matching an actual case with a textbook case

B) Planning and analyzing care needs

C) Establishing role boundaries

D) Seeing the big picture of the clinical situation

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Legal, Ethical, and Regulatory Aspects of Health

Care Delivery

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Q1) A 46-year-old patient, unemployed and diagnosed with kidney disease, tells the nurse that he is having difficulty with his medical bills. What should the nurse do to help this patient?

A) Work with the pharmacist to determine which medications the patient can discontinue and still maintain an acceptable level of health.

B) Suggest the patient take prescribed medications every other day to make the prescription last longer.

C) Ask social services to discuss Medicare as a health care coverage option.

D) Assure the patient that the nurse will ask the health care provider if the patient can be quickly discharged to home.

Answer: C

Q2) A health care provider is reviewing the steps taken to address an ethical issue with a patient. Within which step of the MORAL model is this health care provider working?

A) Massage the dilemma.

B) Look back and evaluate.

C) Outline the options.

D) Act by applying the chosen option.

Answer: B

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Research Foundations for Nursing Practice

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Q1) The nurses have been instructed on the use of an evidence-based practice (EBP) method to monitor patients; however, several nurses continue to conduct patient monitoring using the previous method. What can the nurse manager do to increase the use of the evidence-based practice method?

A) Assign the nurses not using the new method to participate in gathering data for a research study.

B) Review the evidence-based material again with those nurses who are not using the new method.

C) Remind the nurses that performance evaluations are tied to the use of evidence-based practice.

D) Determine that either method would be appropriate for the nurses to use.

Answer: B

Q2) The nurse is implementing stage 2 of a critique of a quantitative research study. In this stage, the nurse will perform which action?

A) Study the findings.

B) Summarize the quality of the study.

C) Review the purpose of the research.

D) Focus on the conduct of the research.

Answer: D

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Nursing Care Delivery Systems

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Q1) A hospital's nursing administration is considering moving to a patient-centered care model. What are the benefits of this model?

A) It is less expensive as it requires fewer registered nurses.

B) Care can be provided more efficiently.

C) This care delivery method increases patient satisfaction.

D) It standardizes care, therefore reducing the need for large supply or medication inventories.

Q2) A registered nurse (RN) wants to delegate the insertion of an intravenous catheter (IV) to a licensed practical nurse (LPN/LVN). The RN bases the decision to delegate on which factor?

A) The RN does not have time to start the IV.

B) Inserting an IV catheter is within the scope of the LPN/LVN role according to the state's nurse practice act.

C) The RN has not started an IV since nursing school.

D) The RN does not have time to evaluate the outcome of the procedure.

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Chapter 5: Nursing Process and Documentation

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Q1) The nurse is caring for a 70-year-old patient who was just admitted to an inpatient rehabilitation center. The patient had required total parenteral nutrition for several days, but recently resumed and is tolerating a regular diet. She has another 4 days left in a course of intravenous antibiotics to complete treatment of a positive central line culture. Which nursing action, required in the care of this patient, is considered a dependent role function?

A) Requesting that the health care provider order a consult because the patient states that her dentures no longer fit properly and she has trouble chewing

B) Asking the nursing assistant to demonstrate to the patient how to operate the call system

C) Interviewing the patient to assess whether she needs assistance with getting out of bed

D) Administering the antibiotics prescribed by the health care provider

Q2) Which aspect of critical thinking would the nurse use when making a nursing diagnosis?

A) Making decisions about an action

B) Identifying potential and actual problems

C) Increasing the likelihood of obtaining good results

D) Getting a better understanding of someone else

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Chapter 6: Health Assessment

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Q1) While conducting a health history, the nurse nods her head as the patient is talking. What is the nurse's primary rationale for this action?

A) It conveys acknowledgment of the patient's feelings.

B) It helps to reduce the patient's anxiety level.

C) It encourages the patient to continue talking.

D) It allows the nurse time to observe the patient's nonverbal cues.

Q2) The nurse is using blunt percussion to assess a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident. The nurse would use this technique to assess for injury to which organs?. Select all that apply.

A) Kidney

B) Liver

C) Lungs

D) Bladder

E) Heart

Q3) A 54-year-old patient reports that she smokes a pack and a half of cigarettes daily and has been smoking since she was 16 years old. The nurse would record a smoking history of ______ pack-years.

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8

Chapter 7: Genetics

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Q1) A patient planning to be married tells the nurse that she has a strong family history of Huntington's chorea but does not plan to let her fiancé know. How should the nurse respond?

A) "Is there any reason you do not want your fiancé to know about your genetic illness?"

B) "It is probably best that he is not aware of the disease."

C) "Are you afraid he will not want to marry you if he knows?"

D) "There are worse disease processes than Huntington's chorea."

Q2) A patient tells the nurse that she is genetically predisposed to type 2 diabetes. The patient is hypertensive and smokes a pack of cigarettes daily. What information should the nurse provide for this patient?

A) "Maintaining a healthy weight and activity level will help you avoid type 2 diabetes."

B) "Unfortunately, you are probably predestined to develop type 2 diabetes."

C) "You probably need to begin monitoring your blood glucose levels daily."

D) "The risk of developing diabetes is several years away, and you have other health problems to consider now."

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Chapter 8: Nutrition

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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient recovering from a total hip replacement. Which nutritional intervention is indicated?

A) Assess for tolerance to diet and progress from clear liquid to another level as tolerated.

B) Maintain a clear liquid diet with intravenous fluid supplementation.

C) Plan to support nutritional status with parenteral supplements.

D) Plan to support nutritional status with enteral feedings.

Q2) During a nutritional assessment, a patient asks why the waist circumference measurement is needed. What is the nurse's best response?

A) "It helps determine if the BMI is accurate."

B) "It is more reliable than skinfold measurements."

C) "It is the only tool that can reliably provide information on nutritional status."

D) "It helps in determining your risk for cardiovascular disease."

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Chapter 9: The Biophysical and Psychosocial Aspects of Nursing

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Q1) The nurse is caring for a burn patient. Because of the amount of stress the patient is experiencing, the nurse realizes that the patient would benefit from which intervention?

A) An increase in activity

B) An increased supply of protein

C) Fluid restriction

D) Antinausea medication

Q2) The nurse is developing a care plan to help a patient deal with the stress associated with a chronic illness. Which interventions should the nurse include?. Select all that apply. A) Remind the patient daily how lucky he is to have help available for dealing with his stressors.

B) Allow the patient to make as many personal care decisions as possible.

C) Assist the patient with gathering education about the disease process.

D) Assist the patient in developing positive coping mechanisms.

E) Avoid discussing the disease with the patient.

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Chapter 10: The Aging Process

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Q1) A 66-year-old patient tells the nurse, "It is time for my annual tetanus vaccine." The nurse would respond that it is recommended that a person this age receive the tetanus vaccine every ______ years.

Q2) A 70-year-old patient has been taking over-the-counter cimetidine for a number of years to treat reflux disease. The nurse would closely assess this patient for which adverse responses?. Select all that apply.

A) Gastrointestinal bleeding

B) Depression

C) Double vision

D) Confusion

E) Fluid retention

Q3) The nurse is planning care for a 70-year-old patient. Which screening should the nurse include in this patient's care plan?

A) Biannual eye examinations

B) Hearing test every 5 years

C) Testing for fecal occult blood every 5 years

D) Annual PSA test and digital rectal exam

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12

Chapter 11: Caring for the Patient at End of Life

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Q1) A patient with a chronic illness who is receiving palliative care asks the nurse if a newly prescribed medication will cure the disease. What is the nurse's best response?

A) "It will help you be more comfortable. I don't think it's going to cure the disease."

B) "Of course it's going to cure the disease."

C) "If you believe it will cure the disease, then it will."

D) "I don't think it's going to help or hurt at this time."

Q2) The medical team has proposed a new therapy for a patient who is terminally ill. The nurse should ensure that the patient and family understand which aspects of the therapy before they make a decision about its implementation?. Select all that apply.

A) The goals of the treatment

B) The likelihood that the goals of therapy will be met

C) The treatment burden

D) Predicted quality of life after the treatment

E) Implications for the health care community

Q3) A patient is prescribed an intravenous midazolam drip at a rate of 1-5 mg/hr, titrated to symptom relief. The nurse would start this drip at ______ mg/hr.

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13

Chapter 12: Pain Assessment and Management

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Q1) The nurse, completing a pain assessment, would attribute which data to the affective dimension of pain?

A) The patient is pale and moaning. 10.

B) The patient rates the pain as 9 on a scale of 1 to

C) The patient states, "The pain comes in waves in my abdomen."

D) The patient states that the pain is "punishment for my misdeeds."

Q2) The nurse, caring for a patient recovering from surgery, knows that which intervention will provide the most pain relief for the patient?

A) Offer pain relief before the patient complains of pain.

B) Wait until the patient can describe the pain specifically.

C) Assess the pain level every 4 hours around the clock.

D) Allow the patient to "sleep off" the anesthesia, and then offer pain medication.

Q3) A patient who had abdominal surgery this morning is receiving opioid pain medication on a routine basis. The nurse would hold the medication if the patient's respirations fall below _____ per minute.

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Chapter 13: Substance Abuse Assessment and Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient tells the nurse that he does not want to attend his wife's family events because he is expected to drink alcohol and he prefers not to. The nurse realizes this patient is describing behaviors found within which theory of substance disorders?

A) Sociocultural

B) Psychological

C) Biological

D) Metaphysical

Q2) A patient tells the nurse that he gets off cocaine for a while and then in a few months finds himself "hanging out in the same places" where he knows he can easily get drugs. How should the nurse respond?

A) "This will happen for the rest of your life. There isn't anything you can do to change it."

B) "This is drug-seeking behavior and is a response to a craving. What can you do instead of going to the places where you can get drugs?"

C) "This is because you are an addict and need the drugs."

D) "Have you considered using a less addictive type of drug instead of the kind you used to use?"

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Chapter 14: Infectious Process and Prophylaxis

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Q1) The nurse needs to change a patient's abdominal wound dressing. Which precautions should be implemented?

A) Standard precautions

B) Contact precautions

C) Droplet precautions

D) Airborne precautions

Q2) A patient diagnosed with active tuberculosis is being admitted to the hospital. The nurse should prepare for this patient to be placed in which type of isolation?

A) Airborne precautions

B) Standard precautions

C) Droplet precautions

D) Contact precautions

Q3) Which finding would indicate that a patient is experiencing a systemic reaction associated with an inflammatory response?

A) Fever

B) Erythema

C) Edema

D) Pain

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Chapter 15: Fluids, Electrolytes and Acid-Base Imbalance

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Q1) The nurse is discussing respiratory and metabolic acids and bases. Which statements would the nurse supervisor evaluate as indicating that the nurse needs more information?. Select all that apply.

A) "When water combines with carbon dioxide, carbonic acid is produced."

B) "Carbon dioxide is a potential acid that is excreted through the lungs."

C) "Body metabolism produces lactic acids, which are constantly eliminated in the lungs."

D) "Sodium bicarbonate buffers the blood by removing hydrogen ions from the blood."

E) "Carbonic acid dissociates into sodium and bicarbonate."

Q2) A patient is found to be in respiratory acidosis. The nurse plans care based on which physiological processes?. Select all that apply.

A) The pH is low.

B) Carbon dioxide is low.

C) The kidneys are attempting to conserve bicarbonate.

D) Potassium is being displaced from cells.

E) A base excess exists.

Q3) The nurse would assess for dehydration if the patient's urine specific gravity is higher than ________.

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Chapter 16: Fluid and Blood Infusion Therapy

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Q1) Which nursing diagnosis would explain the purpose of using a self-sheathing stylet catheter?

A) Risk for Fluid Volume Deficit

B) Risk for Injury

C) Risk for Altered Nutrition

D) Risk for Infection

Q2) A patient admitted 14 hours ago following a motorcycle accident has received 20 units of blood due to massive hemorrhage. Nursing assessment for which complications is essential?. Select all that apply.

A) Coagulation imbalances

B) Acid-base imbalance

C) Hypocalcemia

D) Elevated blood ammonia titers

E) Hypokalemia

Q3) A patient has received a unit of packed red blood cells. If the patient is not bleeding, the nurse would expect that the hematocrit would rise _____ %.

Q4) The nurse is planning to administer 10 units of platelets to a patient with thrombocytopenia. The nurse plans to have a platelet count drawn within _______ minutes of the end of the transfusion.

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Chapter 17: Preoperative Nursing

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Q1) A chart review reveals that a patient being prepared for surgery has been diagnosed with dehydration. Which laboratory results would the nurse review to evaluate the effect of treatment of this condition?

A) Hemoglobin and hematocrit

B) Glucose

C) White blood cell count

D) Platelet count

Q2) According to the medical record a patient is classified as an ASA I. The nurse assessing this patient would plan care for which situation?

A) A patient with severe chronic illness

B) A normally healthy patient

C) A patient with a mild underlying illness

D) A patient whose organs are being harvested for transplant

Q3) For which patient is the nurse most likely to request an order for a preoperative chest X-ray?

A) A 22-year-old with Down syndrome

B) A 50-year-old with a history of gallbladder disease

C) A 16-year-old with a history of abdominal pain

D) A 55-year-old current smoker with a recent productive cough

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Intraoperative Nursing

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Q1) The patient is scheduled for an operative procedure that will require placement of an additional IV line, an indwelling urinary catheter, and a nasogastric tube. The nurse should advocate for these lines to be placed at what time?

A) Prior to transferring the patient to the preoperative holding area

B) In the preoperative holding area

C) After general anesthesia has been induced

D) In the postanesthesia recovery room

Q2) A patient has lost over 1,000 mL of blood during a surgical procedure that is estimated to continue for at least another 2 hours. The nurse anesthetist prepares to administer packed red blood cells during the procedure. Which patient care activity is the nurse anesthetist conducting?

A) Anesthesia maintenance

B) Preanesthetic preparation

C) Postanesthesia care

D) Perianesthetic clinical support

Q3) The certified nurse anesthetist suspects a patient is experiencing malignant hyperthermia and will administer dantrolene sodium 3 mg/kg IV. The patient's documented weight is 143 pounds. The nurse will administer _____ mg in the first bolus.

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Postoperative Nursing

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Q1) Which finding would the PACU nurse evaluate as indicating the patient is progressing toward maintaining his own airway?

A) The patient snores while breathing.

B) The patient is "fighting" the oral airway.

C) The patient requires suctioning every 15 minutes.

D) The patient's oxygen saturation is below 90% on room air.

Q2) A potential research study focuses on identifying topics essential for inclusion in patients' discharge instructions. Such a study might provide insight into which question?

A) How can hospitalizations be reduced?

B) When should the patient be discharged?

C) In what ways can patients better manage their own recovery?

D) How might the nurse improve care provided in the hospital?

Q3) The nurse is assisting a postoperative patient in using an incentive spirometer. Which postoperative complication is the nurse attempting to avoid?

A) Atelectasis

B) Deep vein thrombosis

C) Hemorrhage

D) Pulmonary embolism

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Chapter 20: Nursing Assessment of the Patient With

Neurological Disorders

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Q1) The nurse reads that a patient's reflexes are 3+. How does the nurse interpret this score?

A) The reflexes are weaker than normal.

B) The reflexes are normal.

C) The reflexes are stronger than normal.

D) The reflexes are hyperactive.

Q2) When assessing the patient's cognitive function, the nurse would evaluate which parameter?

A) Ability to smell items placed under the nose while eyes are closed

B) Orientation to time, place, and person, and ability to recall recent and past events

C) Ability to walk with a smooth, steady gait

D) Level of consciousness

Q3) The nurse assesses that a patient is able move her left arm but uses her right arm to assist. The nurse would assign the affected muscle group a strength grade of ______.

Q4) The patient's vision is recorded as 20/

50. The nurse is measuring what this patient can see as compared to what a normal eye can see at _______ feet.

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Chapter 21: Caring for the Patient With an Acute Brain or Cranial Nerve Disorder

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Q1) The patient is supine and the head is flexed to the chest without pain, resistance, or flexion of the hips or knees. The nurse is observing for which finding?

A) Doll's eyes reflex

B) Brudzinski sign

C) Babinski reflex

D) Kernig's sign

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with an intracranial pressure monitoring device. What is the priority nursing diagnosis (NDX) for this patient?

A) Risk for Infection

B) Ineffective Thermoregulation

C) Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity

D) Impaired Physical Mobility

Q3) A patient has been diagnosed with a pituitary adenoma. Which assessment finding supports that it is a nonfunctioning form?

A) 20/60 vision using a Snellen chart

B) A round, moon-shaped face

C) A protruding lower jaw

D) Report of insomnia

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Chapter 22: Caring for the Patient With Cerebral Vascular Disorders

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Q1) The nurse is presenting a community health program regarding stroke. The nurse emphasizes the importance of early transport to the emergency department. What is the primary rationale for this recommendation?

A) Prompt treatment can save cells in the penumbra.

B) Early reperfusion expands the penumbra.

C) Early intervention can decrease autoregulation.

D) Early treatment eliminates the possibility of reperfusion injury.

Q2) The nurse is teaching a wellness class and is discussing the warning signs of stroke. A patient asks, "What is the most important thing for me to remember?" Which is an appropriate response by the nurse?

A) "Know your family history."

B) "Keep a list of your medications."

C) "Be alert for sudden weakness or numbness."

D) "Call 911 if you notice a gradual onset of paralysis or confusion."

Q3) A patient has been admitted with stroke-like symptoms. The nurse would report a serum potassium level of less than _____mEq/L as below the desired level.

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Caring for the Patient With Chronic and Degenerative Neurological Disorders

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Q1) When providing education for a patient newly diagnosed with mild Alzheimer's disease (AD) and the family, the nurse identifies which actions as signs that the disease is progressing in severity?. Select all that apply.

A) The patient repeatedly allows pots of water to boil dry.

B) The patient claims that the newspaper is not readable anymore.

C) The patient becomes agitated when old friends come to visit.

D) The patient is obsessive about how personal belongings are organized.

E) The patient develops a ravenous appetite, especially for carbohydrates.

Q2) A patient complains of occasional periods of confusion and forgetfulness but reports a clear thought process most of the day. The symptoms have been gradually worsening. What is the best initial response by the nurse?

A) "Have you started any new medications?"

B) "You probably have nothing to worry about. It's most likely stress-related."

C) "Everybody has a few problems with memory as they get older."

D) "You should probably have an MRI of your brain."

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Caring for the Patient With Spinal Cord Injuries

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Q1) The school nurse is teaching a session on ways to prevent spinal cord injuries to a group of middle-school students. Which health promotion information should the nurse include?. Select all that apply.

A) Wear a helmet while riding a bicycle or motorcycle.

B) Eat a well-balanced diet with sufficient calcium.

C) Wear sunglasses.

D) Do not dive into unfamiliar water.

E) Do not ride in a car with someone who has been drinking.

Q2) Prehospital emergency personnel have placed a patient in a head brace and on a backboard after a motor vehicle accident. The nurse would advocate for the patient to be removed from this immobilization at what time?

A) As soon as the patient arrives in the emergency department

B) As soon as assessment is completed and a treatment plan is established

C) As soon as a cross-table lateral cervical spine X-ray is taken

D) As soon as the patient is admitted to the neurological intensive care unit

Q3) The health care provider orders 15 mg IV of ketorolac (Toradol) for a patient who has recently undergone a spinal fusion. The nurse has a 5 milliliter (mL) ampule containing 60 mg of ketorolac. The nurse withdraws ______ mL of ketorolac from the ampule.

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26

Chapter 25: Nursing Assessment of the Patient With

Respiratory Disorders

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Q1) A patient from Southeast Asia presents to the clinic with complaints of shortness of breath. The patient says, "I tried to coin my wind illness, but it did not work." Which assessment finding would the nurse expect?

A) The patient is wearing an amulet shaped like a dragon.

B) The patient has burns on the inside of the nose and mouth.

C) The patient is pale from blood loss.

D) The patient has small scrapes across the back and chest.

Q2) A review of a patient's medical record reveals a 70-pack-year smoking history. The patient says he smokes two packs of cigarettes every day. The nurse calculates that this patient has been smoking for ______ years.

Q3) During auscultation of the thorax, the nurse hears a low-pitched creaking sound. What should be the nurse's next action?

A) Have the patient cough to attempt to clear the sound.

B) Have the patient turn to the left side.

C) Collaborate with the physician regarding a chest X-ray.

D) Ask the patient to hold her breath.

Q4) The nurse is assessing a patient for pedal edema. If using the correct technique, the nurse will depress the tissue for _____ seconds.

Page 27

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Chapter 26: Caring for the Patient With Upper Airway Disorders

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Q1) While eating a meal in the hospital, a patient demonstrates difficulty breathing and signs of choking. The nurse realizes that the patient is experiencing which condition?

A) Laryngeal obstruction

B) Pulmonary emboli

C) Epiglottitis

D) An acute myocardial infarction

Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient who has received trauma to the face. It is suspected that damage to the facial nerve (CN VIII) has occurred. The nurse would prepare this patient for which intervention?

A) Surgery

B) Intubation

C) Placement of ice packs to the face for 24 hours

D) Consultation with the patient's dentist

Q3) Which individual is most at risk for head and neck cancer?

A) A young female infected with human papillomavirus

B) A male with a 15-year history of smoking and alcohol use

C) A young male who has used smokeless tobacco for 2 years

D) An older male with a history of preferring "meat and potatoes"

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Chapter 27: Caring for the Patient With Lower Airway Disorders

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78631

Sample Questions

Q1) Which assessment findings would indicate the need for immediate action by the nurse caring for a patient with asthma?. Select all that apply.

A) Tachycardia

B) Diffuse wheezing

C) Retractions

D) Inaudible breath sounds

E) Reduced wheezing

Q2) A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) tells the nurse that he does not always wear the prescribed oxygen at home because it is cumbersome and he is rarely short of breath. What is the nurse's best response to this patient?

A) "Wearing the oxygen will help keep your blood oxygen saturation levels up so your heart does not have to work as hard and will not become enlarged."

B) "You really should wear it at least while sleeping."

C) "You do seem to be doing fine without it."

D) "Keep the oxygen at home and if you become short of breath, you know to put it on until you are able to breathe normally again."

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29

Chapter 28: Caring for the Patient With Complex

Respiratory Disorders

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78630

Sample Questions

Q1) Which interventions should the nurse plan to help reduce a patient's risk of developing ventilator-associated pneumonia?. Select all that apply.

A) Brush the patient's teeth every 4 hours.

B) Regularly drain any accumulated water from ventilator tubing.

C) Place a nasogastric tube to keep the stomach decompressed.

D) Keep the head of the bed at 30 to 45 degrees.

E) Wash the hands before and after patient contact.

Q2) A patient is admitted with pulmonary edema. Which portions of the admission assessment have priority?. Select all that apply.

A) Cardiac history

B) Pulmonary history

C) Renal history

D) Family history of genetic illnesses

E) Vaccination status

Q3) Arterial blood gases reveal that a patient's PaO₂ is 84% on room air. The patient's FaO₂/FiO₂ ratio is ______.

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Page 30

Chapter 29: Nursing Assessment of the Patient With

Cardiovascular Disorders

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78629

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is conducting a physical examination of a patient's heart. Where will the nurse place the stethoscope to best assess the S1 heart sound?

A) Left midclavicular line at the fifth intercostal space

B) Left sternal border at the fifth intercostal space

C) Right midclavicular line at the fifth intercostal space

D) Right sternal border at the third intercostal space

Q2) When palpating a thrill on the precordium, the nurse recognizes that this sign is associated with which cardiac condition?

A) Severe valve stenosis

B) Cardiomyopathy

C) Stenosis of the carotid arteries

D) Aortic aneurysm

Q3) A patient is being evaluated for intermittent chest pain. The nurse's concern about a cardiac origin for this pain would be increased if the patient reports his mother had a myocardial infarction at the age of ______ years or younger.

Q4) The nurse assesses full and bounding pulses in a patient being assessed for cardiac risk factors. The nurse would document this finding as +_____ pulses.

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Chapter 30: Car-Ing for the Patient With Dysrhythmias

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27 Verified Questions

27 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78628

Sample Questions

Q1) After a myocardial infarction, a patient has slowing of atrial contraction. The nurse would anticipate seeing the most evidence of this dysfunction in which part of the electrocardiogram tracing?

A) T wave configuration

B) QRS complex

C) QT interval

D) PR interval

Q2) The nurse is notified by the cardiac monitoring technician that a patient on continuous cardiac monitoring is having frequent alarms. When the nurse enters the patient's room, the patient is in no apparent distress, sitting in the chair and eating. Which are appropriate nursing interventions?. Select all that apply.

A) Confirm that lead wires are properly connected.

B) Assess the placement of electrodes.

C) Remove and reapply new electrodes if nonadherent.

D) Assess skin sites and move an electrode if the skin appears irritated.

E) Call for assistance.

Q3) A nurse analyzing a patient's cardiac monitor tracing counts 12 large squares between two events. The nurse calculates the time interval between these events at _______ second(s).

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Page 32

Chapter 31: Hemodynamic Monitoring

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78627

Sample Questions

Q1) Which actions are correct when the nurse is performing the Allen's test?. Select all that apply.

A) Occlude the radial artery and, after 15 seconds, occlude the ulnar artery.

B) Ask the patient to hold the hand below waist level for 30 seconds before beginning the test.

C) Release pressure over the ulnar artery first.

D) Hold pressure on the radial artery for 30 seconds before assessing the hand.

E) Consider color return to the hand in 20 seconds as a negative test.

Q2) The patient in the critical care area has an invasive hemodynamic pressure monitoring line. Where would the nurse mark the patient's phlebostatic axis?

A) Fourth intercostal space, halfway between the left anterior and posterior chest walls

B) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line

C) Second intercostal space at the anterior chest wall

D) Right side of sternum just below the sternal notch

Q3) The nurse would discard any cardiac output measurement obtained from a pulmonary artery catheter if the measurement was questionable based on the curve or if two measurements differed by _____ %.

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Page 33

Chapter 32: Caring for the Patient With Coronary Artery Disorders

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33 Verified Questions

33 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78626

Sample Questions

Q1) When auscultating the chest of a 75-year-old patient who recently experienced a myocardial infarction (MI), the nurse hears an S₃ and lung crackles. Because of these findings, the nurse would assess for which other condition?

A) Heart failure

B) Extension of the MI

C) Renal failure

D) Liver failure

Q2) A patient enters the emergency department complaining of chest pain that is radiating down the left arm. The emergent treatment plan for this patient includes which nursing actions?. Select all that apply.

A) Morphine intravenously and oxygen

B) Aspirin 325 mg orally

C) Preparation for open heart surgery

D) Heparin drip at 100 units per hour

E) Foley catheter insertion

Q3) After a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), a patient develops a pseudoaneurysm. The nurse would anticipate conservative management if testing proves the pseudoaneurysm to be less than ______ centimeters in diameter as long as the patient is asymptomatic.

Page 34

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Chapter 33: Caring for the Patient With Cardiac

Inflammatory Disorders

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78625

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with mitral regurgitation is instructed to report to the health care provider if it becomes too difficult to perform activities of daily living. What is the nurse's rationale for providing this instruction?

A) Activity intolerance indicates acute respiratory distress.

B) The patient may have experienced a myocardial infarction.

C) These changes indicate that it is time to consider valve replacement.

D) Infective endocarditis is developing.

Q2) A patient is considering valve replacement surgery. The nurse would explain which main differences between biological and mechanical valves?. Select all that apply.

A) Biological valves have a higher incidence of clot formation than do mechanical valves.

B) Biological valves wear out faster than mechanical valves.

C) Mechanical valves sometimes have an audible click.

D) Infections are harder to treat in mechanical valves.

E) There is a higher risk of hemorrhage in the years after surgery if a biologic valve is used.

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35

Chapter 34: Caring for the Patient With Heart Failure

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33 Verified Questions

33 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78624

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse realizes that a patient is experiencing paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) when which symptoms are reported?. Select all that apply.

A) Symptoms occurring at night

B) Pulmonary congestion while lying down

C) Improving cardiac reserve

D) Voiding more than once at night

E) Attacks occurring suddenly

Q2) The nurse, caring for an elderly patient, realizes that aging adults are at higher risk for development of heart failure because of which changes?. Select all that apply.

A) Impaired diastolic filling

B) Increased cardiac reserve

C) Increased maximal heart rate

D) Reduced ventricular compliance

E) High responsiveness to sympathetic nervous system stimulation

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36

Chapter 35: Caring for the Patient With Peripheral Vascular Disorders

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33 Verified Questions

33 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78623

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient on clopidogrel (Plavix) is receiving discharge instructions. What information should the nurse provide?

A) "Be aware of food interactions with the medication."

B) "Take the medication with an NSAID pain reliever if it gives you a headache."

C) "Take vitamin C, vitamin E, and vitamin A supplements daily."

D) "Take the medication with food."

Q2) A patient with Raynaud's disease presents with pallor of the fingers. The patient states that the hands turn white, then blue, then red. How should the nurse explain these symptoms to the patient?

A) "Bleeding is occurring in the interior portion of your hands."

B) "You have inflammation of the small vessels of your hands and feet that will eventually form small clots."

C) "These symptoms are caused by spasm of the small arteries and arterioles in your hands."

D) "Your symptoms are associated with atherosclerosis caused by too many circulating lipids."

Q3) The patient's brachial artery systolic pressure is 144 mmHg, and the right ankle systolic pressure is 120 mmHg. The nurse calculates the patient's ankle-brachial index to be ______.

Page 37

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Chapter 36: Nursing Assessment of the Patient With

Gastrointestinal, Renal, or Urinary Disorders

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78622

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is initiating a history and physical assessment on a patient who reports intermittent right-sided abdomen pain, especially after eating fatty foods. How should the nurse conduct the history?. Select all that apply.

A) Encourage the patient to express his or her concerns.

B) Include documentation of the patient's own words.

C) Direct questions toward ruling out a gallbladder problem

D) Use direct questioning so the interview remains nurse-driven.

E) Establish the nurse-patient relationship.

Q2) When assessing a patient's abdomen, the nurse recognizes the importance of reserving palpation as the last technique. What rationale would the nurse provide for this sequence?

A) Early palpation may result in rebound pain.

B) The technique is likely to increase the patient's level of anxiety.

C) Most patients do not like being touched.

D) The pressure of palpation can interfere with hearing bowel sounds.

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Chapter 37: Caring for the Patient With Gastrointestinal Disorders

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78621

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is hospitalized during an acute exacerbation of symptoms related to Crohn's disease. The nurse shows an understanding of the need for bowel rest by providing which instruction?

A) "Select foods that are high in potassium."

B) "You should eat a soft diet until the diarrhea subsides."

C) "You may find a high-calorie, low-fat, high-fiber diet helpful."

D) "Expect to be started on total parenteral nutrition (TPN)."

Q2) What information should the nurse provide for the patient with a newly created Kock ileostomy (continent ileostomy)?. Select all that apply.

A) The stoma will be reversed when the bowels have had the time to heal.

B) Fecal matter will be removed by a catheter inserted through the stoma.

C) A nipple valve was created to control the flow of fecal matter.

D) The stoma should appear pink and moist.

E) The surgery involved manipulating a portion of the terminal ileum.

Q3) The physician has ordered metoclopramide (Reglan) 2 mg/kg IVP to be given 30 minutes before the start of chemotherapy. The patient weighs 54 kg. The metoclopramide (Reglan) is dispensed in a 10 mg/10 mL vial. The nurse will administer ________ mL of metoclopramide.

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Chapter 38: Caring for the Patient With Hepatic and Biliary Disorders

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78620

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with cholelithiasis who has a new laboratory finding of serum amylase of 300 units/L. The patient states, "My primary health care provider said I don't have pancreatitis." What is the most likely explanation for the laboratory finding?

A) The gallstone is causing acute cholecystitis.

B) The gallstone has migrated to the neck of the pancreas.

C) The gallstone has caused bile to back into the pancreas.

D) The gallstone is blocking the common bile duct.

Q2) Which teaching point is appropriate for a nurse to include when teaching a patient who has undergone a liver transplant?

A) "Your immunosuppressive medications may cause weight loss."

B) "Reduce scheduled tacrolimus to every other day if nausea occurs."

C) "Take acetaminophen (Tylenol) if fever develops."

D) "Report sore throats to your health care provider."

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Chapter 39: Caring for the Patient With Renal and Urinary Disorders

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32 Verified Questions

32 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78619

Sample Questions

Q1) A female patient is admitted with an overdistended bladder. Which diagnostic test can be done to confirm the diagnosis of urine retention?

A) Bladder scan

B) Renal scan

C) Intravenous pyelography (IVP)

D) MRI

Q2) Which age-related change contributes to the increased incidence of urinary tract infections (UTIs) among older adult females?

A) Thinning of vaginal mucosa

B) Enhanced immune response

C) Reduced risk of urinary stasis

D) Reduced focus on personal cleanliness

Q3) Which intervention would be appropriate for a patient in renal failure with the diagnosis of Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements?

A) Provide mouth care before meals.

B) Maximize the protein content of meals and snacks.

C) Provide antiemetics after meals.

D) Weigh once per week.

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Chapter 40: Nursing Assessment of the Patient With

Reproductive Disorders

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78618

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is assessing the medication history of a patient with an enlarged prostate. The nurse would inquire about the use of which herbal supplement?

A) Ginkgo

B) Saw palmetto

C) Green tea

D) Fish oil

Q2) The nurse is providing instruction to a patient who has been diagnosed with prostate cancer. Which statement by the patient would indicate understanding of the nurse's instruction?

A) "The prostate gland is where sperm are formed."

B) "The prostate gland is located at the neck of my bladder."

C) "The prostate gland produces semen."

D) "The prostate gland is normally very small, only about a quarter of an inch long."

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Chapter 41: Caring for the Patient With Female

Reproductive Disorders

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78617

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a postmenopausal woman who has stress incontinence secondary to a prolapsed uterus. The nurse would include which interventions in the teaching plan?. Select all that apply.

A) Kegel exercises

B) Increased caffeine intake

C) Use of progesterone supplements

D) Proper perineal care

E) Use of perineal pads

Q2) The nurse is assisting a patient with ways to reduce the severity of the monthly menstrual discomforts associated with premenstrual syndrome. Which information should the nurse review with this patient?. Select all that apply.

A) Avoid exercise during the days immediately before menstruation.

B) Investigate the use of alternative therapies such as black cohosh root.

C) Follow a low-carbohydrate diet

D) Increase sodium intake.

E) Restrict caffeine intake.

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43

Chapter 42: Caring for the Patient With Male Reproductive Disorders

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33 Verified Questions

33 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78616

Sample Questions

Q1) A 55-year-old patient who has a history of angina and is being treated with nitroglycerine asks for a prescription to aid with erectile dysfunction. Which nursing intervention is indicated?

A) Explain why the erectile dysfunction medication is not a good idea with the heart medication.

B) Provide education about the medication once the prescription is provided.

C) Remind the patient to stop taking the heart medication when planning to take the erectile dysfunction medication.

D) Suggest a behavioral health consult to analyze the reason for the erectile dysfunction.

Q2) The nurse is planning care for a patient who has just been diagnosed with testicular cancer. Surgery is planned. Which patient problem should be included in the plan of care?

A) Bowel incontinence

B) Erectile dysfunction

C) Urinary incontinence

D) Altered body image

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44

Chapter 43: Caring for the Patient With Sexually

Transmitted Diseases

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33 Verified Questions

33 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78615

Sample Questions

Q1) A female patient is complaining of a "watery" vaginal discharge with a "really strong fishy" odor. The nurse asks additional assessment questions related to which disorder?

A) Bacterial vaginosis

B) Yeast infection

C) Trichomoniasis infection

D) Genital warts

Q2) A female patient diagnosed with a chlamydial infection denies any symptoms and asks when she contracted the disease. What information should be provided to the patient?

A) The patient has most likely had the infection for about 1 to 3 weeks.

B) The infection has been in her body for less than 1 month, as no symptoms are present.

C) The infection might have been in her body for an indefinite period of time.

D) Symptoms typically begin a few months after infection.

Q3) A patient who is positive for syphilis is allergic to penicillin and is being treated with tetracycline for 28 days. The health care provider orders tetracycline 500 mg to be taken every 6 hours. The prescription is filled with 250 mg tablets. How many tablets will the patient need to take every day to achieve the ordered dosing?

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Page 45

Chapter 44: Caring for the Patient With Breast Disorders

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33 Verified Questions

33 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78614

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who had breast augmentation surgery last year presents to the clinic and says, "My right breast is so hard all over." The nurse would assess for development of which likely condition?

A) Infection

B) Hemorrhage into the implant

C) Capsule contracture

D) Breast cancer

Q2) A male patient has been diagnosed with breast cancer. The patient says, "How did this happen? I though breast cancer only occurred in women." The nurse would consider which assessment findings as risk factors for this man's condition?. Select all that apply.

A) The man is 5 ft. 10 inches tall and weighs 245 pounds.

B) The patient has periodic exacerbations of severe hepatitis C

C) The patient drinks three or four beers each day after work.

D) The patient works as an over-the-road trucker and is away from home for several days each week.

E) The patient had his spleen removed secondary to an automobile accident when he was a teenager.

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Chapter 45: Nursing Assessment of the Patient Endocrine Disorders

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78613

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has not eaten in 12 hours, and the blood sugar is low. The patient's endocrine system has suppressed the production of insulin. Which form of endocrine communication does this condition represent?

A) Positive feedback

B) Unregulated response

C) Free steroidal influence

D) Negative feedback

Q2) During an endocrine assessment, the nurse notes that the patient's heart rate is sustained at 160 beats per minute. The patient reports nervousness but has no loss of consciousness or reduced mentation. What nursing intervention is priority?

A) Ask how long the patient's heart has been beating so fast.

B) Note the findings in the patient's medical record.

C) Notify the health care provider immediately.

D) Have the patient ambulate around the room and reassess.

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Chapter 46: Caring for the Patient With Glandular and Hormonal Disorders

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33 Verified Questions

33 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78612

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse would consider incorporating which nursing diagnoses into the plan of care for a patient with acute adrenal insufficiency?. Select all that apply.

A) Risk of Ineffective Therapeutic Regimen Management

B) Hyponatremia

C) Fluid Volume Excess

D) Risk for Injury

E) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with elevated serum T3 and T4 levels who receives a new prescription for methimazole (Tapazole). Which patient statement indicates understanding of instructions about this medication?

A) "This medication will increase my metabolism."

B) "As long as I take this medication daily, the time of the dose is not important."

C) "This medication will cure my thyroid problem."

D) "I will need regular blood tests while taking this medication."

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Chapter 47: Caring for the Patient With Diabetes

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32 Verified Questions

32 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78611

Sample Questions

Q1) A newly admitted patient has a fasting serum blood glucose level of 125 mg/dL. How should the nurse interpret this value?

A) This is a critical value that should be reported immediately.

B) The patient has type 1 diabetes.

C) The patient has normal glucose metabolism.

D) The patient may be prediabetic.

Q2) A patient has been recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The patient states, "I am thin and eat all the time. How can I have diabetes?" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

A) "Thin people can be diabetic, too."

B) "Your condition makes it impossible for you to gain weight."

C) "People with type 1 diabetes are usually thin or of normal weight at diagnosis."

D) "Your lab tests indicate the presence of diabetes."

Q3) The nurse is providing dietary instruction to a patient diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. The nurse includes information on how to reduce dietary intake of cholesterol to no more than _______ mg per day.

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Chapter 48: Nursing Management of the Patient With

Musculoskeletal Disorders

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78610

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is assessing an older adult's musculoskeletal system. The nurse would evaluate that which findings represent normal age-related changes?. Select all that apply.

A) Slightly reduced ROM of the shoulder

B) Slower gait

C) Redness and crepitus of the knee joint

D) Inability to abduct the thumb

E) Asymmetry of the pelvis

Q2) A patient tells the nurse that he has had increasing difficulty bending his knees to pick objects up from the floor since he got a desk job about 10 months ago. The nurse suspects that the patient's loss of knee and hip range of motion would be due to which condition?

A) Gout

B) Muscle spasms

C) Pain

D) Atrophy

Q3) The nurse determines that a patient's shoulder muscle strength is normal when it is graded as _______ or better.

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Chapter 49: Caring for the Patient With Musculoskeletal Disorders

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32 Verified Questions

32 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78609

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is being discharged after treatment for a fracture. Which home management instructions would help ensure safety in the patient's home environment?

A) "Place a small rug in front of bathroom sink to reduce your risk of slipping on water."

B) "Be certain that devices used for cooking work properly."

C) "Be sure all walking paths through the house are clear of obstruction."

D) "Move the furniture around so you have lots of things to hold on to for support."

Q2) A 60-year-old man asks the nurse if he should consume sports drinks while mowing the lawn in the summer to prevent dehydration. What response by the nurse is indicated?

A) "As long as you are drinking fluids, it doesn't really matter what they are."

B) "If you drink only one sports drink a day, there should be no problem."

C) "Let me review your lab results from last week before I reply."

D) "You should drink only water."

Q3) A woman who emigrated from a Third World country has just delivered a baby. The woman says, "In my country, many babies die from polio. I want my baby immunized as soon as possible." The nurse responds, "Your baby will receive the first polio immunization at age _______ months.

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Page 51

Chapter 50: Caring for the Patient With Musculoskeletal

Trauma and Surgical Procedures

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33 Verified Questions

33 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78608

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has been casted for a fracture of the left ulna asks the nurse when the cast will come off. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that the cast will be removed when which physiologic parameter has been met?

A) The remodeling phase of the bone healing process has been completed, allowing for application of mechanical stress.

B) A cartilage collar can be clearly felt at the site of the original break.

C) A specific amount of time has passed, predetermined by the severity of the break.

D) The X-ray of the fractured bone shows that the ends are well joined.

Q2) A patient is diagnosed with a compound fracture and is scheduled for immediate surgery. Which nursing diagnosis would have the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period?

A) Impaired Transfer Ability

B) Risk for Post-Trauma Syndrome

C) Risk for Infection

D) Risk for Falls

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Chapter 51: Caring for the Patient With Arthritis and

Connective Tissue Disorders

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78607

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus exhibits a facial rash. What instruction should the nurse provide regarding skin care?. Select all that apply.

A) Avoid being out of doors during the hours of greatest sun intensity.

B) Use sunscreen if sun exposure is possible.

C) Apply hydrocortisone cream 1% to the rash 4 to 6 times per day.

D) Wash the rash with antibacterial soap three times a day.

E) Swim in a chlorinated pool for relief of burning.

Q2) A patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis reports mobility impairment as a result of hip and knee joint stiffness. Which intervention should the nurse include in an education session to address this problem?. Select all that apply.

A) Encouraging frequent periods of rest for the affected hip and knee joints

B) Educating the patient's family to perform passive range-of-motion exercises of the affected joints

C) Instructing the patient in the proper technique for active range of motion of the affected joints

D) Discussing the use of relaxation techniques when affected joints are most painful

E) Suggesting the application of ice to the affected joints to minimize pain

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Page 53

Chapter 52: Nursing Management of the Patient With

Immunological and Inflammatory Disorders

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29 Verified Questions

29 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78606

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is admitted for an infected leg wound. The nurse notes that the patient's band count on the CBC and differential is elevated. How does the nurse interpret this information?

A) The leg wound was caused by a parasite.

B) The patient could be developing sepsis.

C) The patient is healing.

D) The patient has lymphoma in addition to a leg wound.

Q2) A patient has dysfunction of immunity associated with Peyer's patches. The nurse interprets this information to indicate a disorder of which areas?. Select all that apply.

A) The intestines

B) GALT

C) Spleen

D) Axilla

E) Lungs

Q3) The nurse would consider a provisional diagnosis of sepsis as supported by a band count of over ______ % of the total white blood cell count.

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54

Chapter 53: Caring for the Patient With Immune Response Disorders

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78605

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with HIV/AIDS is assigned the nursing diagnosis Impaired Oral Mucous Membranes. Which nursing interventions are indicated?

A) Have the patient rinse out the mouth with an antiseptic mouthwash after each meal.

B) Encourage the patient to suck on ice chips for pain relief.

C) Have the patient use a firm toothbrush to clean the teeth, tongue, and insides of the cheeks at least twice daily.

D) Encourage the patient to chew gum.

Q2) A patient is diagnosed with a type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction. Which patient reaction is an example of this type of reaction?

A) The patient's hands are dry, red, swollen, and itchy after wearing a latex costume to a party 2 days ago.

B) The patient is light-headed and complains of nausea after being stung by a wasp.

C) The patient develops rash and joint pain a week after taking penicillin.

D) The patient goes into shock after receiving a unit of blood.

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55

Chapter 54: Caring for the Patient With Inflammatory

Response, Shock, and Severe Sepsis

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31 Verified Questions

31 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is suspected of having severe sepsis. What should the nurse anticipate concerning antibiotic therapy for this patient?. Select all that apply.

A) Several antibiotics will be started on the same day.

B) The antibiotic prescribed will be one commonly used in the hospital.

C) The initial antibiotic will be broad-spectrum.

D) The antibiotic therapy will be reevaluated in 2 or 3 days and is likely to be changed.

E) Before choosing an antibiotic, the prescriber will ask questions about where the patient lives and has traveled.

Q2) The nurse is concerned that a 10-year-old patient injured in a motor vehicle accident may be developing septic shock. Which assessment findings would support this concern?. Select all that apply.

A) The heart rate is 120 bpm sustained.

B) The patient has thready peripheral pulses.

C) The patient is crying.

D) Capillary refill is 2 seconds.

E) The patient has diarrhea.

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56

Chapter 55: Nursing Assessment of the Patient With

Hematological Disorders

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29 Verified Questions

29 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78603

Sample Questions

Q1) The patient is scheduled to have a mean corpuscular volume (MCV), mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH), and mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) drawn. How would the nurse explain the purpose of these tests?

A) "These tests will help us determine if you have cancer in your blood."

B) "We are testing to see if you have an infection."

C) "These tests will help us determine what kind of anemia you have."

D) "We are testing to see if you have anemia."

Q2) A patient's mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is low. How would the nurse explain this finding to the patient?

A) "Your red blood cells do not have enough hemoglobin."

B) "Your red blood cells are not consistent in size."

C) "Your hematocrit is low."

D) "Your red blood cells are small."

Q3) Which chief complaint would the nurse evaluate as indicating the patient may have problems with erythrocyte levels?

A) "I have been running a low-grade fever for a week."

B) "I have bruises all over my body."

C) "I am sick all the time."

D) "I am so tired all the time."

Page 57

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Chapter 56: Caring for the Patient With Blood Disorders

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33 Verified Questions

33 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78602

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is admitted with thrombocytopenia. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect?. Select all that apply.

A) Increased platelet count

B) Rashlike discoloration of the skin

C) Mucosal bleeding

D) Positive fecal occult test

E) A tendency to bleed after any invasive procedure

Q2) A patient with anemia of chronic disease is prescribed erythropoietin (Epogen) 50 units per kilogram three times a week. The patient weighs 188 pounds. The home health nurse would be certain that at least _____ units of Epogen are available for this week's doses.

Q3) A child is diagnosed with beta-thalassemia major. What should the nurse teach the child's parents?. Select all that apply.

A) "Monitor transfusion of packed red blood cells as ordered."

B) "Prepare yourselves for the care of a child who is seriously ill."

C) "Prioritize the child's activities to allow for rest."

D) "Your child will always be small, with a petite skeletal frame."

E) "Be alert for allergic reactions to common foods such as peanuts and strawberries."

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Chapter 57: Caring for the Patient With Cancer

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Sample Questions

Q1) The TNM classification system is being used to stage a patient's cancer. The nurse would plan to care for a patient with an advanced lesion spreading into adjacent organs if the primary tumor size (T) classification is T_____.

Q2) A patient is deciding on a course of therapy for advanced cancer. Which information should the nurse provide about chemotherapy?. Select all that apply.

A) The only body system not adversely affected by chemotherapy is the genitourinary system.

B) Chemotherapy can result in clotting due to increased platelet counts.

C) Chemotherapy is often a painful experience.

D) Side effects can occur anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract.

E) Some chemotherapeutic agents can result in permanent heart damage.

Q3) A patient tells the nurse that she has a benign tumor that has spread into her lymph glands and that surgery is planned. How should the nurse respond?

A) "What did your doctor tell you about the tumor?"

B) "I hope the tumor can be removed before it spreads any further."

C) "That's a good thing that the tumor is benign."

D) "If the tumor is benign, why are you going to have surgery to remove it?"

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Chapter 58: Nursing Assessment of the Patient With

Integumentary Disorders

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a history of chronic allergic dermatitis is concerned because of an area where the skin has become thickened and rough. How would the nurse document this lesion?

A) Excoriation

B) Ulceration

C) Lichenification

D) Ecchymosis

Q2) The nurse assesses several spider angiomas across the chest and lower abdomen of a 60-year-old patient. The patient reports that these lesions have developed within the last several months. Which nursing statement is indicated?

A) "We should check your blood glucose."

B) "Do you take any vitamin supplements?"

C) "These commonly occur with aging."

D) "We should check you for a bladder infection."

Q3) The nurse is assessing for changes in the nails of a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse would document clubbing of the fingers if the angle of the nail bed exceeds _________ degrees.

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Page 60

Chapter 59: Caring for the Patient With Skin Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The parent of a newborn is concerned because the baby has a quarter-sized, raised, and reddened hemangioma on the lower abdomen. What information should the nurse provide?

A) Surgery will be required to remove this lesion.

B) Because of their bright red color, these lesions are called raspberry hemangiomas.

C) Chances are good that this hemangioma will go away on its own by the time the child reaches age

D) This hemangioma is caused by birth trauma and will clear up in the same time period as a bruise heals.

Q2) A patient diagnosed with scabies asks the nurse how she "caught" the disorder. What information should be provided to the patient?

A) The disorder is transmitted by contact with infected persons or their possessions.

B) The disorder is transmitted via the feces of infected animals.

C) Scabies is a bacterial infection transmitted by direct contact with infected persons.

D) Scabies is a fungal infection transmitted by contact with infected respiratory secretions.

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Chapter 60: Caring for the Patient With Wounds

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with diabetes presents with an ulcer on the end of the great toe. Assessment reveals gangrene extending to the base of the toe. The nurse would evaluate this ulcer as matching criteria for grade ____ on the Wagner Ulcer Grade Classification System.

Q2) The nurse would assess that granulation tissue is developing in a wound when noting which characteristics?. Select all that apply.

A) Beefy red color

B) Blue-gray tinge to the wound bed

C) Small, round nodules in the wound bed

D) Pearly-appearing wound margins

E) Moist tissue

Q3) The nurse who is current on wound care research would consider which product to be antimicrobial when used in wound dressings?

A) Normal saline

B) Tap water

C) Topical gold

D) Topical silver

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Chapter 61: Caring for the Patient With Burn Injuries

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34 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient sustained a radiation injury in an accident at a nuclear power plant. Which assessment questions would the nurse ask to determine the depth of this injury?. Select all that apply.

A) "How close were you to the source?"

B) "How long were you exposed to the source?"

C) "How hot did the source get?"

D) "Was steam produced during the accident?"

E) "Where did the radiation enter and exit your body?"

Q2) An adult patient who weighs 220 pounds has been burned over 70% of the body. Using the Parkland/Baxter formula, the nurse would anticipate administering ______ mL of fluid in the second 8 hours after the patient was burned.

Q3) The nurse has admitted a patient who sustained a partial-thickness burn injury of 28% of total body surface area (TBSA) and a full-thickness injury of 30% of TBSA. Which American Burn Association (ABA) classification would the nurse assign to this injury?

A) Moderate

B) Major

C) Superficial

D) Minor

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Chapter 62: Nursing Assessment of the Patient With

Sensory

Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is doing confrontational field testing. Which techniques are correct?. Select all that apply.

A) Stand behind and slightly to the right or left of the patient.

B) Assume that the nurse's visual field is normal.

C) Assess the patient's right eye with the nurse's left eye.

D) Test eight major quadrants of gaze.

E) Use the nurse's fingers as the test object.

Q2) The nurse notes that the cerumen (earwax) in a patient's ear may indicate an infection. The nurse makes that assessment because of which characteristic of the cerumen?

A) It is nearly absent.

B) It is hardened, dry, and foul-smelling.

C) It is brown, wet, and sticky.

D) It is dry, white, and flaky.

Q3) Which patient statement would the nurse evaluate as indicating that the patient has otalgia?

A) "I fainted when I saw blood on my hand."

B) "My ears ring all of the time."

C) "I feel dizzy most of the time."

D) "When I got up this morning, my ear was hurting."

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Chapter 63: Caring for the Patient With Hearing and Balance Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) An older patient has been diagnosed with presbycusis. The nurse would plan interventions to address which kind of hearing loss that is a common result of aging?

A) Sensorineural

B) Air conduction

C) Conductive

D) Mixed

Q2) A patient diagnosed with profound noise-induced hearing loss (NIHL) states, "I am going to wear ear protection at work from now on. How long before my hearing gets better?" How should the nurse respond?

A) "If you rest your ears from noise, you should be back to normal in a week or so."

B) "As soon as the inflammation in your ear canal clears, your hearing will be much better."

C) "Often the nerve damage in your type of hearing loss is permanent, and hearing does not improve."

D) "It is too late to use ear protection now."

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65

Chapter 64: Caring for the Patient With Visual Disorders

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has a history of dry eye syndrome says, "My eyes don't bother me as long as I put artificial tears in about every 4 hours while I am awake." How should the nurse respond?

A) "You should not use artificial tears that often."

B) "Try to lengthen the time to at least 6 hours between instillations."

C) "If this schedule is giving you relief, try to follow it consistently every day."

D) "Try using the drops every 2 hours and see if your eyes feel better."

Q2) A patient is being discharged after cataract surgery. The nurse evaluates that the patient understands discharge instructions when the patient says, "I should not pick up anything that weighs more than _______ pounds."

Q3) Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) is administered to a patient before a diagnostic procedure. What should patient education about this medication include?

A) Driving may be difficult.

B) The eyes may be red for one or two days.

C) Tears will be yellow.

D) Sunlight will improve vision.

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Chapter 65: Disaster Nursing

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35 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78593

Sample Questions

Q1) The hospital incident command system (HICS) has been activated following a multivehicle accident. Nurses are moving ambulatory patients to one section of the emergency department. These patients will be assigned which START triage category?

A) Yellow

B) Green

C) Black

D) Red

Q2) The hospital has activated its incident command system (HICS) and is currently triaging patients and determining the extent of injuries and casualties. The nurse would refer calls from the media to which person?

A) The safety and security officer

B) The liaison officer

C) The public information officer

D) The incident commander

Q3) A patient has been prescribed 400 mg ciprofloxacin IV for anthrax prophylaxis. The pharmacy has sent a 1 gram vial of ciprofloxacin to the nursing unit to be diluted with 10 mL of sodium chloride. The nurse should administer ____ mL.

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Chapter 66: Caring for the Patient in the Emergency Department

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is admitted to the emergency department with multiple wounds inflicted by an unknown assailant. What action should the nurse take?

A) Clean and dress the wounds as soon as initial assessment is completed.

B) Dispose of bloody clothing in a biohazard bag.

C) Change gloves often during patient care.

D) Keep evidence in the patient's room until it is released to authorities.

Q2) The nurse works in an emergency department (ED) that implements the spot check triage system. Which activity will the nurse triaging patients perform?

A) Starting intravenous access lines

B) Applying cardiac monitoring leads on patients

C) Determining patients' urgency for care

D) Drawing serum laboratory samples

Q3) A patient, assigned the category of nonurgent in the emergency department, begins to have shortness of breath and is dizzy. What should be done to assist this patient?

A) Immediately reassess the patient and assign the category of urgent.

B) Immediately reassess the patient and assign the category of resuscitation.

C) Remind the individual to be patient and wait to be seen.

D) Immediately reassess the patient and assign the category of emergent.

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Chapter 67: Caring for the Patient With Multisystem

Trauma

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Sample Questions

Q1) The emergency services department of a hospital has adopted a policy of tertiary survey for all admitted trauma patients. The nurse understands that this survey will be done within ______ hours of admission.

Q2) A patient is admitted to the ED with massive trauma. What nursing intervention will help protect this patient from coagulopathy?

A) Start oxygen immediately.

B) Cover the patient with a blanket.

C) Place a pillow under the patient's feet.

D) Use sterile technique for all invasive procedures.

Q3) A patient was involved in an automobile accident in which the car left the road and hit a bridge. Which information provided by the paramedics would the nurse evaluate as important in understanding the mechanism of injury? Select all that apply.

A) The speed of the vehicle was estimated at 60 miles per hour when it hit the bridge abutment.

B) The passenger cabin of the vehicle showed no signs of intrusion.

C) It was raining at the time of the crash.

D) Airbags in the car deployed.

E) The patient was wearing a seatbelt.

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