Clinical Nursing Practice
Test Bank
Course Introduction
Clinical Nursing Practice is designed to equip students with hands-on experience in delivering patient-centered care across various healthcare settings. This course emphasizes the application of nursing theories, evidence-based practices, and critical thinking skills in real-world scenarios. Students engage in supervised clinical rotations, where they assess patient needs, perform nursing interventions, and collaborate with interdisciplinary teams to ensure holistic care. Focus areas include patient safety, ethical decision-making, effective communication, infection control, and health promotion. By integrating classroom knowledge with clinical experiences, students develop professional competence, confidence, and a commitment to continuous improvement in nursing practice.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing 7th Editon by Cooper
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57 Chapters
2259 Verified Questions
2259 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Evolution of Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What organization, established during World War II, provided nursing education and training?
A) Nightingale school
B) Cadet Nurse Corps
C) Public health department
D) Frontier Nursing Service
Answer: B
Q2) In 1949, the National Federation of Licensed Practical Nurses (NFLPN) was founded by
Answer: Lillian Kuster
In 1949 the National Federation of Licensed Practical Nurses (NFLPN) was founded by Lillian Kuster. This association is the official membership organization for licensed practical nurses/licensed vocational nurses (LPN/LVNs), and membership is limited to LPNs and LVNs.
Q3) What premise is Maslow's hierarchy of needs based on?
A) All needs are equally important.
B) Basic needs must be met before the next level of needs can be met.
C) Self-actualization is a primary need.
D) Individuals prioritize needs the same way.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Legal and Ethical Aspects of Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients have expectations regarding the health care services they receive. To protect these expectations, which of the following has become law?
A) American Hospital Association's Patient's Bill of Rights
B) Self-determination act
C) American Hospital Association's Standards of Care
D) The Joint Commission's rights and responsibilities of patients
Answer: A
Q2) An older adult is admitted to the hospital with numerous bodily bruises, and the nurse suspects elder abuse. What is the best nursing action?
A) Cover the bruises with bandages.
B) Take photographs of the bruises.
C) Ask the patient if anyone has hit her.
D) Report the bruises to the charge nurse.
Answer: D
Q3) Acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited are defined by ___________ of ______________.
Answer: standards, care
Standards of care define acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited.
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Chapter 3: Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What makes home health care documentation unique?
A) Some charting is retained at the hospital.
B) The physician's office needs separate charting.
C) Different health care providers need access.
D) The physician is the pivotal person in the charting.
Answer: C
Q2) A health care audit that evaluates services provided and the results achieved compared with accepted standards is known as ____________
Answer: quality assurance
quality assessment
quality improvement
Quality assurance/assessment/improvement is an audit in health care that evaluates services provided and the results achieved compared with accepted standards.
Q3) Why is documentation especially significant in managed care?
A) The hospital needs to show that employees care for patients.
B) Institutions are reimbursed only for patient care that is documented.
C) Patients might bring lawsuits if care was not given.
D) Documents may become part of a lawsuit.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is sitting in a chair near the patient's bed, leaning forward to hear what the patient is saying, and does not interrupt. What is the nurse demonstrating?
A) Support
B) Caring
C) Active listening
D) Interest
Q2) What is true about the use of silence in therapeutic communication? (Select all that apply.)
A) Maintaining silence is an effective therapeutic communication technique.
B) Maintaining silence is generally overused in therapeutic communication.
C) The sender often becomes uncomfortable when using silence.
D) The ability to use silence effectively requires skill and timing.
E) Prolonged periods of misunderstood silence can cause tension.
F) Purposeful use of silence often conveys lack of respect.
Q3) What is one of the main characteristics of therapeutic communication?
A) It allows the patient a passive role.
B) It uses only verbal communication.
C) It involves the patient as a person.
D) It is directive.
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Chapter 5: Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) What organized approach might the nurse use when performing a complete physical examination?
A) Maslow's hierarchy of needs
B) A head-to-toe assessment
C) Subjective data collection
D) Objective data collection
Q2) What objective data should the nurse include after a patient assessment?
A) Headache of 3 days duration
B) Severe stomach cramps
C) Flatulence
D) Anxiety
Q3) A systemic, dynamic process by which the nurse, through interaction with the patient, significant others, and health care providers, collects and analyzes data about the patient is known as ______________________.
Q4) NANDA International meets to reorganize diagnosis labels and language every ______ years.
Q5) A multidisciplinary plan that schedules clinical interventions over an anticipated time frame for high-risk, high-volume, and high-cost types of cases is known as a
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Chapter 6: Cultural and Ethnic Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is American-born and works in a large hospital with patients from many cultures. What must this nurse develop to provide the best care?
A) Another language
B) Assessment skills
C) Cultural competence
D) Care planning ability
Q2) What is a set of learned values, beliefs, customs, and practices shared by a group?
A) Race
B) Ethnicity
C) Culture
D) Religion
Q3) The nurse is delivering a meal tray to a female Muslim patient. What intervention is most appropriate for this patient?
A) Offering her a ham and cheese sandwich
B) Providing her with a male nurse
C) Providing her with a female nurse
D) Offering her bacon and eggs
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Chapter 7: Asepsis and Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) What technique should the nurse use when disposing of linens contaminated with feces?
A) Don gown, gloves, and mask
B) Wash hands for 5 minutes after disposal
C) Don gloves only
D) Double-bag the sheets
Q2) What does the nurse describe when giving an example of a fomite vehicle?
A) Rabid dog
B) Person with AIDS
C) Contaminated stethoscope
D) Infected wound
Q3) What can result from the nurse consistently performing hand hygiene and using sterile supplies when caring for patients in the hospital setting?
A) Hospital stay is shortened
B) Sense of self-worth is improved
C) Risk of infection is reduced
D) Nursing care needed is reduced
Q4) The nurse reminds a group of nursing students that the type of asepsis that destroys all microorganisms and their spores is _______ asepsis.
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Chapter 8: Body Mechanics and Patient Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newly hired group of graduate practical/vocational nurses are attending orientation at a long-term care facility. What information will be included regarding considerations of mobility and the older adult? (Select all that apply.)
A) The skin of older adults is more fragile and susceptible to injury.
B) Always support older adults under the soft tissue when moving them in bed.
C) Weakness and hypertension are common signs and symptoms noted in an older adult on bed rest.
D) Aging tends to result in loss of flexibility and joint mobility.
E) Older adults sometimes become fearful when hydraulic lifts are used for transfers.
Q2) To maintain a wide base of support, the nurse should stand with the feet separated by the distance of _______ times the length of the nurse's shoe.
Q3) The nurse is performing passive range of motion (ROM) for the patient. How will the nurse move the joint through ROM?
A) The fullest extent
B) Place the joint in normal position
C) The point of pain
D) Relax the patient
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Chapter 9: Hygiene and Care of the Patients Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is recovering from a hemorrhoidectomy and experiences dizziness within 5 minutes when taking a sitz bath. What action should the nurse implement?
A) Cover the patient to prevent chilling
B) Stay with the patient until the full time for the bath has elapsed
C) Remove the patient from the sitz bath and return to bed
D) Assess vital signs every 5 minutes during the remainder of the sitz bath
Q2) The nurse is providing hand and foot care to a patient and notices the patient has extremely hard nails. Who is the person best prepared to provide nail care for patients with extremely hard nails?
A) Physician
B) RN
C) CNA
D) Podiatrist
Q3) The nurse avoids dragging the patient across the bed linen to decrease the potential risk of skin injury by _________.
Q4) To prevent skin breakdown in a wheelchair-bound patient, the nurse teaches the patient to shift the patient's weight every _______ minutes.
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Chapter 10: Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) When reinforcing the PASS acronym for fire extinguisher use, the nurse reminds the staff that the final "S" stands for ______________.
Q2) What is important for the nurse to determine in order to decrease the risk for injury to a patient?
A) If patient can read English
B) If patient is left-handed
C) If patient is able to eat unassisted
D) If patient can dress independently
Q3) What should a nurse do when encountering a mercury spill?
A) Vacuum the spill
B) Open interior doors
C) Close all outside windows
D) Open any outside windows
Q4) What important safety precaution should the home health nurse teach parents in order to prevent burns to small children?
A) Never leave them unattended
B) Turn pot handles on stoves away from reach
C) Turn hot water on first when filling the bathtub
D) Keep side rails up on the crib
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Chapter 11: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the nurse use the diaphragm of the stethoscope to best assess?
A) Carotid sounds
B) Lung sounds
C) Vascular sounds
D) Low-pitched sounds
Q2) The nurse is alarmed when a patient with a severe head injury of the occipital lobe has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. Where might this finding indicate that there is an injury?
A) Cerebellum
B) Medulla oblongata
C) Cortex
D) Cerebrum
Q3) The home health nurse is preparing to educate a patient regarding electronic self-blood pressure measurement. What information should the nurse provide regarding this procedure? (Select all that apply.)
A) Expect precise values
B) Proper measurement techniques are necessary
C) Cuff fits over clothing
D) Stethoscope is not required
E) Recalibration is not necessary
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Chapter 12: Physical Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A condition in which a patient experiences bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by an increase of deoxygenated hemoglobin in the blood is known as _________________.
Q2) _______________ _________and personal characteristics determine health behavior in individuals and families. More than half of all health problems are the result of behavior and lifestyle.
Q3) Which are infectious diseases? (Select all that apply.)
A) Measles
B) Pneumonia
C) Hay fever
D) Tuberculosis
E) Osteoarthritis
F) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
Q4) Any disturbance of a structure or function of the body is a pathologic condition. What is the term for this condition?
A) Injury
B) Condition
C) Disease
D) Pathology
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Chapter 13: Admission, Transfer, and Discharge
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where can a nurse refer the family of a patient to find a source of financial aid to meet medical expenses?
A) A local bank
B) A clinical nurse specialist
C) The hospital administration
D) Social services
Q2) The nurse completes thorough documentation before, during, and after a transfer to ensure _______ of _______.
Q3) The nurse must be sensitive to an older adult patient experiencing separation anxiety when admitted to the hospital. When a child experiences separation anxiety they will usually cry. What will an older adult often demonstrate when experiencing separation anxiety?
A) Withdrawal
B) Anger
C) Depression
D) Regression
Q4) Because of the stress caused by hospitalization, the nurse assesses a newly admitted older adult patient for ________________.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Surgical Wound Care
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What technique will the nurse implement to assist the postoperative patient to cough?
A) Support the patient's back
B) Offer an antitussive
C) Splint the abdomen with a pillow
D) Lean patient against the bedside table
Q2) The nurse assessing a patient's wound notes pale red watery drainage. How will the nurse most accurately document this finding?
A) Serous drainage
B) Purulent drainage
C) Sanguineous drainage
D) Serosanguineous drainage
Q3) The nurse is providing instruction to a patient regarding home wound irrigation. How far should the patient hold the hand-held showerhead from the wound when irrigating the wound?
A) 2.5 inches
B) 6 inches
C) 12 inches
D) 18 inches
Q4) When preparing to remove a dressing, the nurse should don __________ gloves.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Specimen Collection and Diagnostic Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) New physician orders are transcribed for a patient to receive a colonoscopy. What must be completed before the colonoscopy to indicate the patient has been given full knowledge about what will be done along with its risks and complications?
A) Patients' rights
B) Advance directive
C) Informed consent
D) Patient protection
Q2) The nurse is preparing to collect a urine specimen. What will this nurse include when labeling this specimen? (Select all that apply.)
A) Date and time of collection
B) Identification of last name only
C) Room number
D) Medical record number
E) Insurance information
Q3) What should the nurse do when preparing the patient for an arteriography?
A) Verify if the patient has been taking anticoagulants
B) Keep the patient NPO for 24 hours before the procedure
C) Instruct the patient to have a full bladder for the procedure
D) Inform the patient that a coldness may be felt when dye is injected
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Chapter 16: Care of Patients Experiencing Urgent
Alterations in Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A burn patient is brought into the emergency department with the following burns: half of the front torso, entire left arm, and front of left leg. The nurse should record that the patient has a ______% burn.
Q2) A machinist visits the industrial nurse's clinic with a deep laceration of the thigh. What should be the nurse's first action?
A) Splint the thigh and apply tape to approximate the edges
B) Apply ice and a pressure dressing to the thigh
C) Give a tetanus booster injection
D) Wash the laceration with an antiseptic
Q3) A nurse is assessing victims in an emergency situation. What will the nurse assess for first?
A) Hemorrhage
B) Fractures
C) Mobility
D) Abnormal breathing
Q4) When treating an infant choking on a foreign body, the nurse should use a combination of ______ _________ and chest thrusts.
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Chapter 17: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do people often choose complementary and alternative medicine (CAM)? (Select all that apply.)
A) CAM is less invasive.
B) CAM is more holistic.
C) CAM is focused on treatment of disease.
D) CAM is dedicated to health maintenance.
E) CAM is within the control of the patient.
Q2) People with fractures, rheumatoid arthritis, and osteoporosis are not candidates for ____________ therapy.
Q3) A patient wants to use aromatherapy to treat pneumonia, but the hospital policy will not allow burning of eucalyptus-scented candles. What should the nurse suggest the patient use instead?
A) Another essential oil
B) Prescribed medications
C) A topical eucalyptus product
D) Massage therapy
Q4) ___________________is a noninvasive method an individual can employ to learn control of the body to manage certain conditions. Monitoring equipment is used to measure vital signs and muscle tension. The messages are sent back to the individual.
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Chapter 18: Pain Management, Comfort, Rest, and Sleep
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Q1) The pain relief intervention that stimulates large cutaneous nerve fibers to "close the gate" is the _________ unit.
Q2) What is the best approach for a nurse to use when planning pain relief measures?
A) Use a variety of pain relief methods
B) Use only nonopioid analgesics
C) Use at least three alternating methods
D) Use only one method at a time
Q3) The nurse obtains information from a patient about the site, severity, and duration of the pain. What type of data is this considered?
A) Patient data
B) Objective data
C) Focused data
D) Subjective data
Q4) The nurse is giving a backrub to a patient to relieve pain. What pain theory is the nurse using?
A) Synergism
B) Gate control
C) Distraction
D) Guided imagery
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Chapter 19: Nutritional Concepts and Related Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are elements that are found in food and necessary for good health but that the body cannot make?
A) Important nutrients
B) Life-saving nutrients
C) Essential nutrients
D) Necessary nutrients
Q2) How many kcal/g does 1 g of alcohol provide?
A) 4 kcal/g
B) 5 kcal/g
C) 6 kcal/g
D) 7 kcal/g
Q3) The nurse explains that a patient with a heart problem should follow a decreased sodium diet. What will this diet help reduce the risk for or prevent?
A) Stroke
B) Fluid excretion
C) Heart attacks
D) Obesity
Q4) _____________________softens stools, speeds transit of foods through the digestive tract, and reduces pressure in the colon.
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Chapter 20: Fluids and Electrolytes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient admitted in a state of extreme anxiety has vital signs of: T 98.6° F, P 81, BP 130/86, R 32. What will result if this hyperventilation continues?
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Metabolic alkalosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
Q2) A patient began vomiting and continued to do so for several hours. What is the result of this loss of stomach contents?
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Metabolic alkalosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
Q3) Homeostasis of the hydrogen ion concentration in body fluids depends on the ratio of carbonic acid to bicarbonate in the extracellular fluid. What is this ratio?
A) 1:5
B) 1:10
C) 1:15
D) 1:20
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Chapter 21: Mathematics and Medication Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the same ratio as 2:100?
A) 1:50
B) 5:300
C) 1:20
D) 4:25
Q2) What is the main organ that inactivates and metabolizes drugs?
A) Spleen
B) Liver
C) Lungs
D) Pancreas
Q3) What important principle should be taken to prevent medication errors?
A) Placing an unlabeled syringe on the medication cart
B) Following the six rights of medication administration
C) Leaving a medication with the patient only when family is there
D) Always charting medications before the end of the shift
Q4) The order is for 100 mL to run over 8 hours as a "piggyback." The drop factor of the secondary unit is 15. The nurse should set the drop control to deliver _______ gtts/min.
Q5) To help relax the anal sphincter during the insertion of a suppository, the nurse should ask the patient to ____________.
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Chapter 22: Care of Patients with Alterations in Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the nurse's first priority when a patient receiving IV fluid therapy shows an increase in blood pressure and has bilateral crackles?
A) Raise the head of the bed
B) Slow the infusion
C) Turn the patient to the left side
D) Notify the charge nurse
Q2) When an order for eye irrigation is received, to whom can the nurse delegate the procedure to?
A) The patient
B) Another nurse
C) A nursing assistant
D) A family member
Q3) What gauge needle should be selected by the nurse when preparing to administer blood?
A) 25
B) 22
C) 21
D) 18
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Chapter 23: Life Span Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the family pattern in which the female assumes primary dominance in the areas of child care and homemaking, as well as financial decision making?
A) Autocratic family pattern
B) Patriarchal family pattern
C) Matriarchal family pattern
D) Democratic family pattern
Q2) Separation anxiety includes which stage(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Detachment
B) Protest
C) Anger
D) Despair
E) Withdrawal
Q3) How can a family best assist a toddler who is attempting to feed himself?
A) Encourage the child to use a fork
B) Feed the child themselves using a fork
C) Encourage large portions for easier handling
D) Offer the child finger foods
Q4) Any substance such as a drug, alcohol, or virus that interferes with fetal development is called a(n) _____________.
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Chapter 24: Loss, Grief, Dying, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for the dying mother of a 7-year-old child. What is important for the nurse to understand regarding the child?
A) The child associates death with aggression.
B) The child believes his or her own death cannot be avoided.
C) The child lacks understanding of the concept of death.
D) The child understands death as the inevitable end of life.
Q2) What is the final stage of human growth and development?
A) Integrity
B) Death
C) Despair
D) Resolution
Q3) Following the death of a day-old infant, the nurse brings the baby to the parents. What is the rationale for the parents' visit with the deceased baby?
A) Bond with the family
B) Reinforce the individuality of the baby
C) Generate preparation for another child
D) Make the death a reality
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26
Chapter 25: Health Promotion and Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a positive sign of pregnancy?
A) Positive pregnancy test
B) Positive Chadwick sign
C) Ultrasonic tracing of the fetus
D) Positive Goodell sign
Q2) What should a nurse instruct the patient to do before assessing fundal height?
A) Press her lower back against the examination table
B) Empty her bladder
C) Take a deep breath and hold it
D) Bear down
Q3) During the final weeks of pregnancy, urinary frequency may return due to the enlarged uterus, compressing the bladder against the pelvic bones. What does the nurse suggest to aid in relieving the urinary frequency?
A) Decrease fluid intake
B) Use the knee-chest position
C) Sleep on her side
D) Avoid fluid intake in evening
Q4) The chorion and the amnion are the two components of the ________
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Chapter 26: Labor and Delivery
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Sample Questions
Q1) When trying to differentiate false labor from true labor, the nurse realizes which of the following statements regarding true labor is correct?
A) Discomfort of the contraction is in the fundus.
B) Contractions do not follow a pattern.
C) Contractions get stronger with ambulation.
D) Contractions may stop with ambulation.
Q2) A mother has entered the second stage of labor. When does the second stage of labor end?
A) When the mother begins to push
B) When the baby's head crowns
C) With delivery of the baby
D) With delivery of the placenta
Q3) A woman who is 38 weeks pregnant tells the nurse that the baby has dropped and she is having urinary frequency again. What do these symptoms describe?
A) Lightening
B) Braxton-Hicks contractions
C) Initiation of labor
D) Engagement
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Chapter 27: Care of the Mother and Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where would acrocyanosis be assessed on a newborn?
A) Circumoral area
B) Brow
C) Feet
D) Mucous membrane
Q2) The nurse is giving a bath demonstration for a group of new mothers. What should be included in the demonstration?
A) Apply baby powder generously to keep baby dry.
B) Cleanse perineum from front to back.
C) Use scented soap to make baby smell good.
D) Partially submerge head in water when shampooing.
Q3) When is breast engorgement most likely to occur?
A) When the infant's mouth surrounds the areola when feeding
B) When the breast tissue becomes congested
C) When the breast is emptied completely at each feeding
D) When the infant's mouth grasps the nipple firmly
Q4) The nurse describes the return of the postpartum patient's uterus to a pregravid state as ________________.
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Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should the gestational age of the infant be determined?
A) Within 5 to 10 minutes of delivery
B) Within 1 to 2 hours of delivery
C) Within 2 to 8 hours of delivery
D) Within 12 to 24 hours of delivery
Q2) A patient in her second trimester of pregnancy arrives at the hospital complaining of bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. What condition should the nurse immediately suspect?
A) Abruptio placentae
B) Hemorrhage
C) Placenta previa
D) Placentitis
Q3) What should be specifically monitored in a patient who is hospitalized with gestational hypertension?
A) Blood sugar
B) Temperature
C) Level of consciousness
D) Deep tendon reflexes
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Chapter 29: Health Promotion for the Infant, Child, and Adolescent
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are reasons that a pediatric nurse should stress that health promotion activities must be ongoing? (Select all that apply.)
A) To identify health risks
B) To encourage healthy behavior
C) To strengthen family bonds
D) To improve nutrition
E) To prevent accidents
Q2) The nurse recognizes that preventive programs in schools must be stepped up in order to prevent violence, especially __________.
Q3) To prevent accidental poisoning of a child, where should medications be placed in the home?
A) In a dresser drawer
B) In the medicine cabinet
C) In a locked cupboard
D) On a high shelf
Q4) A nurse emphasizes a study that focused on the amount of time children spend using various media, such as TV, video games, and computers and stated that by cutting this time by ____%, it would have a significant impact on increasing physical activity.
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Chapter 30: Basic Pediatric Nursing Care
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does obtaining the respirations of an infant require a modified approach from that of an adult?
A) Infants breathe through their noses
B) Infants have very rapid respirations
C) Infants' respirations are thoracic in nature
D) Infants' respiratory movements are abdominal
Q2) What is the purpose of a mist tent?
A) To provide a constant oxygen supply
B) To liquefy respiratory secretions
C) To aid in lowering temperature
D) To improve the infant's hydration
Q3) The nurse clarifies that the family-centered care approach terminates which policies? (Select all that apply.)
A) Rigid visiting hours
B) Freedom to choose which medications to take
C) Exclusion of family during procedures
D) Discouraging family to stay overnight
E) Restricting parents from reading the chart
Q4) The nurse is aware that visual acuity evaluation in a child is best assessed after the age of _____ years.
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Chapter 31: Care of the Child with a Physical and Mental or Cognitive Disorder
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing an assessment of a child with recurrent abdominal pain (RAP), the nurse recognizes the child will most likely experience what symptom?
A) Increased temperature
B) Constipation
C) Right quadrant pain
D) Exercise-associated pain
Q2) How should the nurse measure urinary output for an infant with dehydration?
A) Attaching a urine collecting bag
B) Wringing out the diaper
C) Weighing the diaper
D) Inserting a catheter
Q3) Parents of a 6-month-old child, who has just been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia, ask why it was not diagnosed earlier. What would be the best response by the nurse?
A) "Are you sure your child has iron deficiency anemia?"
B) "This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months."
C) "This anemia is caused by blood loss."
D) "The child may not have had it for a long time."
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Chapter 32: Health Promotion and Care of the Older Adult
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should family members of a stroke victim expect to see some of the neurologic involvement disappear?
A) Within 2 to 3 weeks
B) Within 1 to 2 months
C) Within 3 to 6 months
D) Within 6 to 9 months
Q2) The nurse is assisting an older adult patient out of bed when suddenly the patient begins to fall. What is the likely cause of the fall?
A) Fever
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Dehydration
D) A decrease in venous return
Q3) The nurse initiates the application of a draw sheet on every bedfast patient on her unit to facilitate lifting and to prevent _________ forces.
Q4) What is one positive aspect of Parkinson disease?
A) The disease does not alter ability to communicate
B) Anti-Parkinson drugs have few side effects
C) Intellectual function is not impaired
D) Involuntary movements can be controlled
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Chapter 33: Concepts of Mental Health
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assisting the older adult who is despondent about the need to leave his home, what technique should the nurse use?
A) Ask him if he has a drinking problem
B) Explore the option of his moving in with someone
C) Reminisce with the patient and review his life
D) Assess for hopelessness and helplessness
Q2) The majority of people function in a relatively healthy manner. What can diminish their functional capacity?
A) Lack of a support system
B) Periods of crisis
C) Nutritional deficits
D) A physical disease process
Q3) The nurse is assessing a young woman who is a teacher, happily married, raising two children, taking care of her disabled mother, and going to school to get a master's degree. How should the behavior of the young woman be classified?
A) Ego-centered
B) Role integrated
C) High-level wellness
D) Unbounded energy
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Chapter 34: Care of the Patient with a Psychiatric Disorder
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The home health nurse assesses a patient who creates elaborate excuses for not leaving home. Further questioning reveals the patient had not left home for 6 months. How should this be documented?
A) Mania
B) Depression
C) Agoraphobia
D) Anxiety
Q2) A patient is frequently late for appointments because he goes back to his room numerous times to assure himself that none of his belongings have been stolen. What does this behavior represent?
A) Senseless behavior
B) Controlled repetition
C) Obsessive-compulsive
D) Anxiety tension
Q3) What are considered warning signs of suicide? (Select all that apply.)
A) Talking about suicide
B) Increased interactions with friends and family
C) Drug or alcohol abuse
D) Difficulty concentrating on work or school
E) Personality changes
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Chapter 35: Care of the Patient with an Addictive Personality
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse concludes that a significant goal of the care plan for an alcoholic patient has been met when the patient makes which statement?
A) "I drink because I'm lonely."
B) "All my difficulties are related to my drinking."
C) "I wouldn't need to drink if I had my family back."
D) "My drinking helps me cope with the stress of my job."
Q2) A pregnant adolescent tells the nurse that she "only drinks a little." How many drinks per day can cause an adverse effect in an infant?
A) One drink a day
B) Two drinks a day
C) Three drinks a day
D) Four drinks a day
Q3) While creating a methadone protocol for a patient rehabilitating from heroin addiction, the nurse explains that the patient will take methadone for what length of time?
A) Daily for the rest of his life
B) Daily until stabilized, then gradually reduce the dose to zero
C) Weekly for at least 6 months, then decrease the dose to once a month
D) Monthly for 6 to 10 months, then decrease the dose to zero
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Home Health Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How long is the average home health care visit by the skilled nurse?
A) 10 to 15 minutes
B) 20 to 30 minutes
C) 30 to 45 minutes
D) 45 to 60 minutes
Q2) During a time of acute illness, the family may become extremely distressed and neglect the needs of other family members. On what does the family seem to focus?
A) The outcomes
B) The disease
C) The physician
D) The patient
Q3) For physical therapy services to be reimbursed by Medicare, what must be the goal of the therapy?
A) Preventive
B) Restorative
C) Maintenance
D) Educational
Q4) The nurse can best confirm that the patient understands the communication by obtaining ____________ from the patient.
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Chapter 37: Long-Term Care
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the long-term care facility, health care professionals work together to meet the needs of older adults and to go over the care plan with the resident and family members. What is this approach called?
A) Team approach
B) Individualized approach
C) Interdisciplinary approach
D) Outgoing approach
Q2) A nurse helps a family understand that once hospice service is initiated, the focus of care changes from rehabilitation and restoration to what type of care?
A) Maintaining the patient at the optimal level
B) Assisting with funeral planning
C) Relieving the family of care
D) Maintaining comfort as death approaches
Q3) What is included when the LVN/LPN completes the Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI)?
A) Minimum Data Set (MDS) and the signature of the physician
B) Resident Assessment Protocols (RAPs) and the drug list
C) Minimum Data Set, Resident Assessment Protocols, and the RN's signature
D) Resident Assessment Protocols and the signature of the administrator
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Chapter 38: Rehabilitation Nursing
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a victim of post-traumatic stress syndrome. The nurse identifies which techniques as examples of therapeutic communication? (Select all that apply.)
A) Listening
B) Reframing
C) Characterizing
D) Normalizing responses
E) Working to develop trust
Q2) When assessing a patient with a traumatic brain injury, the nurse notes that his memory is improving. The nurse should explain to the family that what other symptom may occur with memory improvement?
A) Decrease in learning ability
B) Depression
C) Anger
D) Increased concentration
Q3) The rehabilitation nurse assesses localized edema around the knee of a patient with paraplegia. The nurse suspects that this is the first sign of __________
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Chapter 39: Hospice Care
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse warns that nausea is a common side effect with opioid treatment. What is the best treatment for nausea caused by opioids?
A) Antiemetics
B) Ice chips
C) Dry crackers
D) Ginger ale
Q2) Because the family is confused about the meaning of palliative care, the hospice nurse needs to explain the focus of care. What is the focus of palliative care?
A) An aggressive approach to prolong life
B) A protocol of pain relief
C) A form of organized care, which relieves the family of responsibility
D) An integrated service of support for alleviation of symptoms
Q3) The hospice nurse explains that to qualify for admission to a hospice, the attending physician must certify that the patient has a life expectancy of fewer than how many months?
A) 2 months
B) 3 months
C) 4 months
D) 6 months
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Chapter 40: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is aware that which muscle group is both striated and involuntary?
A) Skeletal
B) Glial
C) Cardiac
D) Visceral
Q2) What is the function of epithelial membranes?
A) Secretes mucus, lines ends of bones, and lines bursae
B) Lines ends of bones, secretes synovial fluid, and lines internal surfaces of organs
C) Covers the wall of lower digestive tract, secretes mucus, and lines lungs, peritoneum, and pericardium
D) Lines lungs, peritoneum, and pericardium, and secretes synovial fluid
Q3) What is a group of several different kinds of tissues arranged so that together they can perform a more complex function than any tissue alone?
A) Organ
B) System
C) Cell
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
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Chapter 41: Care of the Surgical Patient
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse anticipates that the patient will be given ______________anesthesia because of the extensive tissue manipulation involved in a hysterectomy.
A) general
B) regional
C) specific
D) preoperative
Q2) The nurse is aware that there is a loss of _________ during catabolism after severe tissue injury.
Q3) On the patient's return to the medical-surgical unit, the nurse performing an abdominal assessment can affirm an absence of bowel sounds after listening in each quadrant for at least:
A) 30 seconds.
B) 1 minute.
C) 2 minutes.
D) 3 minutes.
Q4) The nurse explains that to promote deep breathing and improve lung expansion and oxygenation the patient should use the _____________ ______________ at regular intervals during the day.
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Chapter 42: Care of the Patient with an Integumentary Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse debriding a burn wound explains that the purpose of debridement is to:
A) increase the effectiveness of the skin graft.
B) prevent infection and promote healing.
C) promote suppuration of the wound.
D) promote movement in the affected area.
Q2) What should the nurse do when administering a therapeutic bath to a patient who has severe pruritus?
A) Use Burow's solution to help promote healing
B) Rub the skin briskly to decrease pruritus
C) Limit bathing to 3 times a week
D) Ensure that bath area is at least 85 degrees and dehumidified
Q3) What should the nurse examine in assessing a patient for tinea corporis?
A) Soles of the feet
B) Scalp
C) Armpits
D) Abdomen
Q4) The most deadly skin cancer is ________________.
Q5) The three major glands of the skin are __________, ___________, and
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Chapter 43: Care of the Patient with a Musculoskeletal Disorder
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48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse instruct the patient before the initiation of the antimalarial drug hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)?
A) Get a complete blood count to assess anemia.
B) Get a chest x-ray.
C) Get an eye examination.
D) Take prophylaxis for malaria.
Q2) Which patient statement indicates the need for additional teaching for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is taking meloxicam (Mobic)?
A) "I am keeping a daily record of my blood pressure."
B) "I take aspirin before I go to bed."
C) "I know I can take meloxicam with or without regard to meals."
D) "I weigh every day so I will be aware of any weight gain."
Q3) What should the nurse stress to a patient who has had a hip replacement and is beginning strengthening exercises for the unaffected leg?
A) Flex the knee and flex the foot
B) Lift the leg from the mattress and rotate the foot
C) Pull knee to chest and extend the foot
D) Push foot down against the footboard for a count of five
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Chapter 44: Care of the Patient with a Gastrointestinal Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is being evaluated for episodes of hematemesis and dyspepsia tells the nurse that pain occurs when he eats, but pain does not waken him. The nurse recognizes a diagnostic sign of which condition?
A) Duodenal ulcer
B) Gastritis
C) Achalasia
D) Peptic ulcer
Q2) How should the nurse counsel the 34-year-old woman who has been prescribed sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) for Crohn disease? (Select all that apply.)
A) Expose her to sunlight at least 30 minutes a day for vitamin D synthesis
B) Tell her to drink at least 1500 mL of fluid a day
C) Advise assessing self for rash
D) Use alternate birth control methods to oral contraception
E) Take drug on an empty stomach
Q3) Due to frequent bouts of constipation, the nurse examines the bedfast nursing home resident for ulceration of the anus, called __________________.
Q4) The nurse explains that ___________, the chief enzyme of gastric juice, is activated by hydrochloric acid to begin digestion of protein.
Page 46
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Chapter 45: Care of the Patient with a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse clarifies that deterioration progresses through stages before presenting with liver disease. Place the stages in order. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D)
A) Liver disease
B) Inflammation
C) Hepatic insufficiency
D) Destruction
E) Fibrotic regeneration
Q2) Which medical interventions and management systems control the bleeding of esophageal varices? (Select all that apply.)
A) Transfusions
B) Sengstaken-Blakemore tube
C) Band ligation
D) Cryotherapy
E) Portocaval shunt
F) Large doses of vitamin B12
Q3) A ___________occurs when the body encapsulates the autodigestive debris in the pancreatic tissue, frequently becoming an abscess.
Q4) Hepatitis D is usually seen as a co-infection with __________.
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Chapter
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47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that in the event of an invasion of an allergen, the basophils release a strong vasodilator, which is:
A) lysozyme.
B) prothrombin.
C) hematocrit.
D) histamine.
Q2) What would a nurse include in a teaching plan for a home health patient with a hemoglobin of 8.4 mg?
A) Exercising for periods of 30 minutes daily
B) Limiting fluid intake
C) Alternating activity with rest periods
D) Avoiding the use of oxygen
Q3) The home health nurse recommends to the mother of a 12-year-old child with leukemia that the child should have:
A) the series for prevention of hepatitis B.
B) an annual influenza vaccine.
C) an annual pneumococcal vaccine.
D) vitamin B12 shots.
Q4) Neutrophils release ______________, an enzyme that destroys certain bacteria.
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Chapter 47: Care of the Patient with a Cardiovascular or a Peripheral
Vascular Disorder
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58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would assess closely for signs of right-sided heart failure which include (select all that apply):
A) cough.
B) increasing abdominal girth.
C) shortness of breath.
D) edema of feet and ankles.
E) distended jugular veins.
Q2) The nurse reminds the patient who is on Coumadin for the treatment of atrial fibrillation that the ideal is to maintain the international normalized ratio (INR) at between:
A) 1 and 2.
B) 2 and 3.
C) 3 and 4.
D) 4 and 5.
Q3) The cardiac marker ___________ rises 3 hours after a myocardial infarct and measures myocardial contractile protein.
Q4) The life support system that uses special techniques, ventilation equipment, and therapies for emergency situations is ________.
49
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Chapter 48: Care of the Patient with a Respiratory Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 22, is admitted with acute asthma. The patient shows a pulse oximetry level of SaO? of 82%. How should the nurse interpret this?
A) Only 82% of the red blood cells are able to use oxygen.
B) There is only 82% of oxygen bound to the hemoglobin compared with the amount available.
C) Eighteen percent of oxygen is not dissolved in the blood.
D) The muscular respiratory effort is only 18% effective.
Q2) What is inspiratory capacity?
A) The amount of air in the lung after a maximal inhalation
B) The amount of air moved with each normal inhalation and expiration
C) The amount of air that can be inhaled in one breath from the resting expiratory level
D) The amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after maximum inhalation
Q3) How should a patient be positioned after a thoracentesis is completed and the dressing applied?
A) High Fowler
B) Semi-Fowler
C) Side lying on unaffected side
D) Prone
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Chapter 49: Care of the Patient with a Urinary Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prostatectomy technique, which involves an incision through the abdomen and the bladder, is a ____________prostatectomy.
Q2) An intravenous pyelogram confirms the presence of a 4-mm renal calculus in the proximal left ureter of a newly admitted patient. Physician orders include meperidine (Demerol) 100 mg IM q4h PRN, strain all urine, and encourage fluids to 4000 mL/day. What should be the nurse's highest priority when planning care for this patient?
A) Pain related to irritation of a stone
B) Anxiety related to unclear outcome of condition
C) Ineffective health maintenance related to lack of knowledge about prevention of stones
D) Risk for injury related to disorientation
Q3) What should the patient be encouraged to eat during the active phase of acute renal failure?
A) A diet high in sodium
B) A diet high in potassium
C) A diet high in fats
D) A diet high in fluid sources
Q4) _____________ is a term for severe generalized edema.
Q5) _________ is a prostatic pain without evidence of infection or inflammation.
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Chapter
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49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the master gland of the endocrine system?
A) Thyroid
B) Parathyroid
C) Pancreas
D) Pituitary
Q2) What do the Chvostek sign and the Trousseau sign indicate?
A) Low levels of serum calcium
B) High levels of blood sugar
C) Low levels of serum sodium
D) High levels of serum aldosterone
Q3) What is the postoperative position for a person who has had a thyroidectomy?
A) Prone
B) Semi-Fowler
C) Side-lying
D) Supine
Q4) Only ________insulin can be administered intravenously.
Q5) Another term for hyperglycemic reaction is ____________ ______________.
Q6) ________________is the term that describes a condition of normal thyroid function.
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Q7) A condition with a deficiency in growth hormone is called ________________.
Chapter 51: Care of the Patient with a Reproductive Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are true of the Gardasil vaccine? (Select all that apply.)
A) It requires two more immunizations at 6 months after the first dose
B) It reduces incidence of cervical cancer
C) It reduces the incidence of human papilloma virus (HPV)
D) It can be given only to females
E) It should be given before a person becomes sexually active
F) It is safe for people as young as 8 years of age
Q2) Why would the nurse encourage the patient who is recovering from a modified radical mastectomy to exercise the affected arm?
A) To reduce pain
B) To stimulate appetite
C) To reduce lymphedema
D) To increase muscle tension
Q3) What is the recommended age range for a baseline mammogram?
A) 25 and 30 years
B) 31 and 34 years
C) 35 and 39 years
D) 40 and 45 years
Q4) ________are produced in the seminiferous tubules and stored in the epididymis.
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Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why would the nurse encourage a group of teenagers to protect their eyes with dark sunglasses while using a UV lamp?
A) The lamp can cause cataracts.
B) The lamp can cause presbycusis.
C) The lamp can cause keratitis.
D) The lamp can cause ectropion.
Q2) The nurse counsels the 16-year-old boy that playing his music at high volume can result in impairment in hearing related to:
A) damaged tympanic membrane.
B) protective buildup of cerumen.
C) damage of the fine hair cells in the organ of Corti.
D) rupture of the oval window.
Q3) A patient who had an enucleation of the right eye has been admitted PACU. What should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A) Turn, cough, and deep breathe every 3 hours
B) Apply a pressure dressing over the right eye socket
C) Document dressing assessment every 2 hours
D) Turn on the affected side
Q4) The total removal of an eye is a(n) ___________.
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the nurse aware of when assessing a person with a craniocerebral injury?
A) Most injuries of this type are irreversible
B) Open injuries are always more serious than closed injuries
C) Signs and symptoms may not occur until several days after the trauma
D) Trauma to the frontal lobe is more significant than to any other area
Q2) What are the effects of normal aging on the nervous system? (Select all that apply.)
A) Small vessel occlusion
B) Loss of neurons
C) Calcification of cerebrum
D) Reduction of cerebral blood flow
E) Lipofuscin
F) Decrease in oxygen use
Q3) The waxy substance that covers the neuron fibers and increases the rate of transmission of impulses is the ________.
Q4) What does the nurse know about the stroke patient who has expressive aphasia?
A) Has difficulty comprehending spoken and written communication
B) Cannot make any vocal sounds
C) Has total loss and comprehension of language
D) Can understand the spoken word, but cannot speak
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the sequence of a plasmapheresis procedure. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D)
A) Removal of whole blood in one arm
B) Circulation of blood through cell separator
C) Remainder of plasma returned through vein in opposite arm
D) Separation of plasma and its cellular components
E) Replacement of plasma with lactated Ringer
F) Removal of undesirable components
Q2) Which of the following are diseases which result from one's own immune system attacking the body? (Select all that apply.)
A) Lupus erythematosus
B) Glomerulonephritis
C) Polio
D) Rheumatoid arthritis
E) Thrombocytopenic purpura
F) Osteoarthritis
Q3) The nurse stresses that when a person produces his own antibodies against a specific antigen, that process of immunity is ______________ ________________ immunity
Q4) A type IV latex allergy is characterized by________ _______.
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Chapter 55: Care of the Patient with HIV/AIDS
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Sample Questions
Q1) What medication times should the nurse use in writing out a schedule for taking antiretroviral medication three times a day?
A) 8 AM - 2 PM - 8 PM
B) 8AM - 4PM - 12 AM
C) 8AM - 5PM - 1 AM
D) Be given with meals
Q2) The HIV-infected patient who has just seroconverted says he just cannot take all those confusing, expensive antiretroviral (ART) medications. He says he still feels fine, anyway. What should the nurse keep in mind when counseling this patient?
A) Resumption of the ART later in the disease is just as effective
B) Adherence to the ART protocol is essential to the success of the treatment
C) Cessation of the ART may prevent the emergence of a resistant strain of HIV
D) Once ART is initiated it cannot be restarted in the same patient
Q3) ______________ is a type of sexual option classified as "no risk" for a person to become infected with the HIV virus.
Q4) The term that describes an immunosuppressed patient's inability to react to a skin test is __________________.
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57
Chapter 56: Care of the Patient with Cancer
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5510
Sample Questions
Q1) Men over age 50 should consider an annual _________ test and rectal examination.
Q2) A patient, age 39, receiving chemotherapy for treatment of her cancer has a white blood cell count of 1600/mm³. This finding requires nursing interventions to provide which of the following?
A) Adequate fluid intake
B) Protection from falls
C) Protection against infection
D) Frequent small nutritious snacks
Q3) What would the nurse encourage the patient to look for during self-testicular testing? (Select all that apply.)
A) Smooth consistency of testicle
B) Stomachache
C) Breast enlargement
D) Heavy feeling in the scrotum
E) Enlarged blood vessels in scrotum
F) Hematuria
Q4) The nurse remarks that the American Cancer Society (ACS) reports that cancer is the ______ leading cause of death in the United States.
Q5) A ___________ test screens for occult blood in the stool.
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Chapter 57: Professional Roles and Leadership
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5511
Sample Questions
Q1) Which actions would best aid the new nurse in coping with working the night shift? (Select all that apply.)
A) Eat large meals during the night to stay awake
B) Use dark shades to block out light when sleeping
C) Obtain a prescription for sedatives to aid sleep
D) Wear sunglasses on the drive home from work
E) Go directly to bed when arriving home from work
Q2) A new graduate who has achieved the goal of getting others to do something that is believed necessary has demonstrated what skill?
A) Management
B) Leadership
C) Influence
D) Control
Q3) What is the name of the licensing law that defines the title and regulations governing the practice of nursing and states the requirements for licensure?
A) State practice act
B) Nurse regulation act
C) Nurse practice act
D) Legislative act
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