Clinical Nursing Practice
Review Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Nursing Practice provides students with comprehensive hands-on experience in delivering patient-centered care across various healthcare settings. The course emphasizes the application of theoretical knowledge to real-world clinical scenarios, focusing on the development of critical thinking, clinical decision-making, communication, and technical nursing skills. Students will learn to perform nursing assessments, administer medications, manage patient care plans, collaborate with multidisciplinary teams, and maintain professional standards and ethical principles. Through supervised clinical placements, learners gain confidence and competence essential for entry-level nursing roles, ensuring readiness for the dynamic demands of modern healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Adult Health Nursing 6th Edition by Barbara Christensen
Available Study Resources on Quizplus 17 Chapters
676 Verified Questions
676 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1169 Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plasma membrane is constructed so that
A) it is strong enough to keep the cell whole.
B) nutrients can enter and waste products can leave.
C) only oxygen can pass through.
D) blood cells can pass through.
Answer: A
Q2) The type of tissue composed of cells that contract in response to a message from the brain or spinal cord is
A) epithelial.
B) connective.
C) membrane.
D) muscle.
Answer: D
Q3) Epithelial membranes function is to:
A) Secrets mucous, line ends of bones and line bursae
B) Line ends of bones, secrete synovial fluid, line internal surfaces of organs
C) Cover the wall of lower digestive tract, secrets mucous and lines lungs, peritoneum and pericardium
D) Line lungs, peritoneum and pericardium and secrete synovial fluid
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Care of the Surgical Patient
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is transferred from the operating room to the recovery room after undergoing an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of his left ankle. Which is the first assessment to make?
A) Check ankle dressings.
B) Check airway for patency.
C) Check intravenous site.
D) Check vital signs.
Answer: B
Q2) A 45-year-old patient has had a repair of a cerebral aneurysm and is presenting signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which postoperative nursing interventions would be contraindicated?
A) Coughing every 2 hours
B) Leg exercises every 2 hours
C) Monitoring intravenous therapy at 50 ml/hr
D) Assessing vital signs every 2 hours
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Care of the Patient With an Integumentary Disorder
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most deadly skin cancer is ________________.
Answer: melanoma
Malignant melanoma is a cancerous neoplasm that invades the epidermis, dermis, and sometimes the subcutaneous tissue.
Q2) Melanocytes give rise to the pigment melanin which is responsible for skin color. The melanocytes can be found in
A) Dermis
B) Superficial fascia
C) Epidermis
D) Loose connective tissue
Answer: C
Q3) Which may indicate a malignant melanoma in a nevus on a patient's arm?
A) Even coloring of the mole
B) Decrease in size of the mole
C) Irregular border of the mole
D) Symmetry of the mole
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Care of the Patient With a Musculoskeletal Disorder
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In gangrene, there is an acute infection to the skeletal muscle. If untreated, _________ will destroy the tissue.
Q2) A patient, age 64, has osteoarthritis of the left hip. He has had a left total hip replacement. The nurse should
A) encourage use of the high Fowler's position.
B) administer oxygen through a nasal cannula.
C) encourage use of an incentive spirometer.
D) turn the patient frequently from side to side.
Q3) A 71-year-old patient is manifesting signs and symptoms of gout. When assessing him for signs and symptoms of gout, the nurse should pay particular attention to A) dietary intake of foods high in cholesterol.
B) mobility in the hip and knee joints.
C) edema or discoloration of the great toe.
D) a history of trauma or occupational injury.
Q4) The term unicompartmental knee arthroplasty is also referred to as A) partial knee replacement.
B) removal of the kneecap.
C) total knee replacement.
D) total knee replacement bilaterally.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Care of the Patient With a Gastrointestinal Disorder
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Constipation is a problem for many older adults. The medical management to prevent constipation includes (Select all that apply):
A) Decreasing physical activity
B) Decreasing fluid intake
C) Nutritional diet high in fiber
D) Increasing fluid intake
E) Increasing daily activity
F) Decreasing strict daily routines
Q2) The most lethal complication of a peptic ulcer is
A) bleeding.
B) perforation.
C) severe pain.
D) gastric outlet obstruction.
Q3) Lavage
A) Internal application of pressure by means of inflated balloon to prevent GI bleeding
B) Irrigation of stomach to remove secretions
C) Relieve abdominal distention
D) Instillation of liquid nutritional supplements into stomach
Q4) Flexible sigmoidoscopy should be performed every ________ years.
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Chapter 6: Care of the Patient With a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary
Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What instructions should the patient receive before undergoing a paracentesis?
A) NPO 12 hours before procedure
B) Empty bladder before procedure
C) Strict bed rest after procedure
D) Empty bowel before procedure
Q2) A patient was scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, but complications developed and he underwent an open cholecystectomy with a T-tube inserted into the common bile duct. The purpose of the T-tube is to
A) decompress the duct and relieve pain caused by stimulation the sphincter of Oddi.
B) improve diaphragmatic expansion and prevention of atelectasis.
C) shorten postoperative recovery and hasten the healing process.
D) keep the duct open and allow drainage of the bile until edema resolves.
Q3) The patient's cirrhosis of the liver has also caused a dilation of the veins of her lower esophagus secondary to vessel hypertension, resulting in her developing the complications of:
A) Varices
B) Diverticulosis
C) Crohn's disease
D) Achalasia cyst
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Chapter 7: Care of the Patient With a Blood or Lymphatic Disorder
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spleen is a highly vascularized organ located in the left upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity. The main functions of the spleen are (Select all that apply)
A) Serve as reservoir for blood
B) Destroy worn-out RBCs
C) Promote phagocytosis
D) Responsible for development of T Lymphocytes
E) Continuously produce RBCs during lifetime
Q2) A patient is admitted with fatigue; discomfort; enlarged, painless cervical lymph nodes; and pruritus. A lymph node biopsy yields a diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease. The nurse is aware that the abnormal cells noted by the pathologist in Hodgkin's disease are called
A) Rodem-Lee cells.
B) Bullus-Frendelenburg cells.
C) Stevens-Jorgens cells.
D) Reed-Sternberg cells.
Q3) A sudden reduction in blood volume may lead to _________ shock.
Q4) _____________ are leukocytes which destroy and remove cellular waste, bacteria, and solid particles.
Q5) The organ that forms lymphocytes is the __________.
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Chapter 8:
Care of the Patient With a Cardiovascular or a Peripheral Vascular Disorder
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been admitted after the insertion of a pacemaker because of bradycardia. She asks what third-degree heart block is, and the nurse replies
A) "Coronary blood vessel occlusion causing slow contraction of the right ventricles."
B) "Sclerosis of cardiac valves causing slow pulse."
C) "A defect in AV junctions slows and impairs conduction of impulses from the SA node to the ventricles."
D) "Increased pressure in the pulmonary vessels."
Q2) An _____________is an enlarged, dilated portion of an artery and may be the result of arteriosclerosis, trauma, or a congenital defect.
Q3) A patient, age 72, was admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of angina pectoris. Characteristic signs and symptoms of angina pectoris include
A) substernal pain that radiates down the left arm.
B) epigastric pain that radiates to the jaw.
C) indigestion, nausea, and eructation.
D) fatigue, shortness of breath, and dyspnea.
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Chapter 9: Care of the Patient With a Respiratory Disorder
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient, age 91, has COPD and complains of dyspnea and fatigue. Activity intolerance, related to an imbalance between the oxygen supply and demand, is a nursing diagnosis for COPD. Which nursing intervention would be inappropriate?
A) Teach pursed-lip breathing.
B) Provide oxygen therapy as ordered.
C) Plan care to provide optimum rest.
D) Provide a cool shower.
Q2) Which nursing intervention does the nurse add to the care plan to help a patient with thick sputum mobilize and expectorate those secretions?
A) Drink salty fluids such as broth and bouillon.
B) Drink 3 to 4 L of water a day.
C) Inhale cool mist from a vaporizer for 15 minutes four times a day.
D) Sit in a tub of hot water three times a day.
Q3) Which position is the most beneficial for a patient after surgery for creation of a tracheostomy?
A) Trendelenburg
B) Dorsal recumbent
C) Lithotomy
D) Mid-Fowler's
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Care of the Patient With a Urinary Disorder
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which can reduce the risk of skin impairment secondary to urinary incontinence?
A) Decreasing fluid intake
B) Catheterization of the elderly patient
C) Limiting the use of medication (diuretics, etc.)
D) Frequent toileting and meticulous skin care
Q2) The patient is receiving continuous bladder irrigation after a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). He complains of a "spasmlike" pain over his lower abdomen. Which of these actions should the nurse perform first in response to this complaint?
A) Inform the nurse in charge.
B) Decrease the continuous bladder irrigation flow.
C) Administer the prescribed analgesic.
D) Check the catheter and drainage system for obstruction.
Q3) The physician orders a urinalysis and urine culture. To obtain the urine specimen, the nurse would first instruct the patient about
A) collecting the urine for a 24 hour period.
B) obtaining a clean-catch specimen.
C) bringing in an early morning specimen.
D) limiting fluid intake to concentrate the urine.
Q4) Aldactone (spironolactone) is classified as a ______________-sparing diuretic.
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Chapter 11: Care of the Patient With an Endocrine Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three major life-threatening complications postoperatively of a thyroidectomy are: (Select all that apply)
A) Hemorrhaging
B) Seizures
C) Tetany
D) Hypoglycemia
E) Thyroid crisis (storm)
F) SIADH
Q2) A 63-year-old patient on the medical floor has a diagnosis of adrenal hyperfunction (Cushing's syndrome). She will probably have to adhere to a diet that contains
A) less sodium.
B) more calories.
C) less potassium.
D) more carbohydrates.
Q3) Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign are tests to determine:
A) low levels of blood calcium.
B) high levels of blood calcium.
C) low levels of blood sodium.
D) high levels of blood sodium.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Care of the Patient With a Reproductive Disorder
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mammogram is the most useful method of diagnosing breast cancer because it A) is the most reliable method of detecting breast cancer before it becomes palpable. B) is inexpensive and covered by most medical insurance plans. C) involves no radiation and takes only a few minutes. D) involves no pain or discomfort and is readily available.
Q2) The nurse admits a patient, age 72, who is scheduled for a vaginal hysterectomy. In what position will this patient be placed in the operating room for her surgery?
A) Lateral
B) Lithotomy
C) Trendelenburg
D) Supine
Q3) At what age should a male be taught testicular self-exam (TSE)?
A) 10
B) 13
C) 15
D) 20
Q4) ________ are produced in the seminiferous tubules and stored in the epididymis.
Q5) _____________ are benign tumors of the uterus.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Care of the Patient With a Visual or Auditory Disorder
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rapid onset of decreased vision, halos around lights, and severe eye pain are indications of
A) closed-angle glaucoma.
B) open-angle glaucoma.
C) retinal detachment.
D) diabetic retinopathy.
Q2) The nurse answers the call light of a newly admitted patient. The patient tells the nurse she is blind and asks the nurse to assist her to the bathroom. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Take the patient by the arm and lead her slowly to the bathroom.
B) Walk slightly ahead of the patient and allow the patient to hold the nurse's elbow.
C) Give the patient exact descriptive directions to the bathroom so that she can walk there independently.
D) Lead the patient to the bathroom by the hand, describing the location and providing verbal clues.
Q3) _____________ is a medical term for blurred vision.
Q4) Schiötz tonometry is a diagnostic test for __________.
Q5) Decreasing visual acuity is a sign of _________ __________.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Care of the Patient With a Neurologic Disorder
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A therapeutic measure to reduce increased intracranial pressure is
A) suction the patient every 2 hours.
B) place in a semiprone position.
C) reduce fluid intake.
D) keep the patient flat in bed.
Q2) A female patient is diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Upon physical assessment, the nurse notices her left eyelid is drooping. The nurse's notes would document this as ___________ of the eyelid.
Q3) An 83-year-old patient has had a stroke. He is right-handed and has a history of hypertension and "little" strokes. He presents with right hemiplegia. To afford him the best visual field, the nurse should approach him
A) from the right side.
B) from the left side.
C) from the center.
D) from either side.
Q4) Involuntary rhythmic movement of the eyes, with oscillations that may be horizontal, vertical, or mixed movements, is called ___________________.
Q5) The avoidance of ___________ __________ decreases the risk for lung cancer.
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Chapter 15: Care of the Patient With an Immune Disorder
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a patient history, the nurse notices that the patient has had five upper respiratory infections in the past 18 months. The nurse begins to suspect that the patient may have an immunodeficiency disease because the first evidence of this disease is
A) an increased susceptibility to infection.
B) an increased coagulation problem.
C) a problem with hemostasis.
D) localized edema, raised wheals.
Q2) A 25-year-old male patient with severe rhinitis asks the nurse what is causing his nose to run. The symptoms are caused by a reaction to a substance, usually a protein, that causes the formation of an antibody and reacts specifically with an antibody called a(n)
A) proliferation.
B) complement.
C) antigen.
D) lymphokine.
Q3) The purpose of immunotherapy is _____________.
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17
Chapter 16: Care of the Patient With HIV-Aids
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse clarifies that the least likely method for children to contract AIDS is
A) during intrauterine life with an HIV-positive mother.
B) during the birth process of an HIV-positive mother.
C) from other children who have AIDS.
D) from receiving transfusions contaminated with the HIV virus.
Q2) Snacks such as bananas and apricot nectar, which are high in potassium, are recommended because
A) electrolytes are lost through fever.
B) diarrhea is a common problem.
C) snacks help fight fatigue.
D) potassium helps fight infection.
Q3) In reviewing a patient's chart to determine whether she has progressed from HIV disease to AIDS, the nurse should look for
A) CD<sub>4</sub>+ count below 500, chronic fatigue, night sweats.
B) HIV-positive test result, CD<sub>4</sub>+ count below 200, history of opportunistic disease.
C) weight loss, persistent generalized lymphadenopathy, chronic diarrhea.
D) fever, chills, CD<sub>4</sub>+ count below 200.
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Chapter 17: Care of the Patient With Cancer
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37 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemical means of pain management include the use of opioids and nonopioids. A valuable nonopioid analgesic in the treatment of certain levels of cancer pain is A) steroids.
B) acetaminophen.
C) codeine.
D) morphine.
Q2) A patient who has malignant cancer secondary to a high-grade lymphoma has been admitted with muscle weakness, tetany, paresthesias, and convulsion. The nurse notices he is being treated for tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) and initial treatment has not been successful. The nurse must prepare the family for the next step in treatment, which is
A) whole blood transfusion.
B) a bone marrow biopsy.
C) immediate radiation treatment.
D) dialysis.
Q3) The term ____________ is used for various substances that are known to contribute to cancer.
Q4) _________ is the term for uncontrolled or abnormal growth of cells. They may be benign or malignant.
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