Clinical Nursing Practice
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Clinical Nursing Practice provides students with essential hands-on experience and practical skills necessary for delivering high-quality patient care in various healthcare settings. Through supervised clinical rotations, students apply theoretical knowledge, develop critical thinking abilities, and enhance their competencies in assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation of nursing interventions. Emphasizing patient safety, communication, and ethical considerations, the course prepares students to collaborate effectively with healthcare teams and adapt to diverse clinical environments, laying a strong foundation for professional nursing practice.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 17th Edition by Clayton
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49 Chapters
915 Verified Questions
915 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Drug Definitions, Standards, and Information
Sources
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18857
Sample Questions
Q1) Meperidine (Demerol)is a narcotic with a high potential for physical and psychological dependency.Under which classification does this drug fall?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Answer: B
Q2) Which statement is true about over-the-counter (OTC)drugs?
A) They are not listed in the USP NF.
B) A prescription from a health care provider is needed.
C) They are sold without a prescription.
D) They are known only by their brand names.
Answer: C
Q3) Which legislation authorizes the FDA to determine the safety of a drug before its marketing?
A) Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938)
B) Durham Humphrey Amendment (1952)
C) Controlled Substances Act (1970)
D) Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment (1962)
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Basic Principles of Drug Action and Drug
Interactions
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer tetracycline to a patient diagnosed with an infection.Which medication should not be administered with tetracycline?
A) Ativan
B) Tylenol
C) Colace
D) Mylanta
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse recognizes that which factor(s)would contribute to digoxin toxicity in a 92-year-old patient?
A) Taking the medication with meals
B) Prolonged half-life of the drug digoxin
C) Impaired renal function
D) Diminished mental capacity
Answer: B,C
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Chapter 3: Drug Action Across the Life Span
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a 4-month-old child who is on a water soluble medication for seizures.The child's mother voices concern that the dosage seems "too much" for the child's age and would like the dosage verified.What actions will the nurse take?(Select all that apply.)
A) Verify dosage requirements in the Physicians' Desk Reference (PDR) in mg/kg.
B) Compare the water composition requirements of adults and children.
C) Evaluate lean body mass and total fat content in adults and infants.
D) Chart "refused per mother" on the MAR and do not administer.
E) Compare transportation in the circulation of plasma bound proteins between adults and children.
Answer: A,B
Q2) Which drugs cause birth defects?
A) Teratogens
B) Carcinogens
C) Metabolites
D) Placebos
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: The Nursing Process and Pharmacology
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do the classification systems NIC and NOC provide?
A) Individualized data banks of treatments related to disease processes
B) Standardized language for reporting and analyzing nursing care delivery
C) A measure for cost containment within medical institutions
D) Specialized interventions for rare diseases
Q2) The nurse has determined that the pain medication given to a patient an hour ago has been effective.The nurse is using which step of the nursing process?
A) Evaluation
B) Intervention
C) Nursing diagnosis
D) Planning
Q3) Which task is included in the assessment step of the nursing process?
A) Establishing patient goals/outcomes
B) Implementing the nursing care plan (NCP)
C) Measuring goal/outcome achievement
D) Collecting and communicating data
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Chapter 5: Patient Education to Promote Health
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse and patient are participating in cooperative goal setting regarding drug therapy.The nurse is aware that it is imperative to encourage the patient to perform which task(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Contact the hospital for advice regarding discontinuation of medication.
B) Keep records of essential data needed to evaluate prescribed therapy.
C) See the health care provider regularly.
D) Avoid community-based agencies for assistance.
E) Monitor parameters used to evaluate therapy.
Q2) The nurse is educating a 13-year-old boy newly diagnosed with diabetes and his parents about diet and glucose monitoring.Which domain of learning is represented when the patient expresses concern about feeling different from his peers?
A) Cognitive
B) Psychomotor
C) Affective
D) Learning style
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Chapter 6: Principles of Medication Administration and Medication Safety
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which example best demonstrates safe drug administration by the nurse?
A) Administering an oral medication with the patient sitting upright
B) Asking children to say their name before administering the medication
C) Leaving the medications on the bedside stand after verifying patient identification
D) Returning the unused portion of a medication to a stock supply bottle
Q2) Which medication route provides the most rapid onset of a medication but also poses the greatest risk of adverse effects?
A) Intradermal
B) Subcutaneous (subcut)
C) Intramuscular (IM)
D) Intravenous (IV)
Q3) Which medication order requires nursing judgment and means "administer if needed"?
A) Morphine 4 mg IV stat
B) Morphine 4 mg IV prior to procedure
C) Morphine 4 mg IV four times a day
D) Morphine 4 mg IV every 4 hours PRN
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Chapter 7: Percutaneous Administration
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with metastatic cancer is being admitted for pain control.Which action will the nurse perform in administering a transdermal patch?
A) After removal, dispose of the old patch in a receptacle in the patient's room.
B) Change the fentanyl patch every day, either in the morning or at bedtime.
C) Hold the short-acting oral pain medication when a fentanyl patch is initiated.
D) Label the patch with date, time, dosage, and initials after patch placement.
Q2) The nurse is preparing an otic solution.When instructing the patient in regard to area of administration,the nurse will explain that the solution will be placed
A) into the eye.
B) under the tongue.
C) topically.
D) into the ear.
Q3) Why are sublingual and buccal medications rapidly absorbed?
A) Their action is localized to the mouth.
B) They are metabolized in the liver.
C) Blood flow is diminished in these sites.
D) These drugs pass directly into systemic circulation.
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Chapter 8: Enteral Administration
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oral drug administration includes which principle(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Dependable rate of absorption
B) Most economical
C) Insulin able to be administered via this route
D) Drugs delivered directly by the oral, rectal, or nasogastric (NG) methods
E) Dosage forms are convenient and readily available
Q2) Which route of administration would be ordered by the health care provider if a patient is vomiting?
A) Gastrostomy tube
B) Intradermal
C) Ophthalmic
D) Rectal
Q3) Which nursing action(s)would be appropriate when administering a disposable enema?(Select all that apply.)
A) Position the patient on the left side.
B) Allow the solution to flow in by gravity.
C) Instruct the patient to hold the solution 30 minutes before defecating.
D) Maintain the six rights of medication administration.
E) Lubricate the rectal tube.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Parenteral Administration: Safe Preparation of Parenteral
Medications
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of parenteral medication container is made of glass,is scored,and needs to be broken open before withdrawing the medication?
A) Ampule
B) Carpuject
C) Mix-O-Vial
D) Vial
Q2) Which part of the syringe contains the calibrations for drug volume measurement?
A) Plunger
B) Tip
C) Luer Lok
D) Barrel
Q3) Which nursing action is accurate when administering parenteral medication?
A) Adjust the route of the medication, if needed.
B) Document the response to PRN medications at the end of the shift.
C) Request the pharmacist to provide education about the medication to the patient.
D) Use clinical judgment when rescheduling missed doses of a medication.
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Chapter 10: Parenteral Administration: Intradermal,
Subcutaneous, and Intramuscular Routes
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which gauge needles are used for subcut injections?
A) 14 to 16 gauge
B) 18 to 21 gauge
C) 22 to 24 gauge
D) 25 to 29 gauge
Q2) Which statement(s)about administering medications parenterally is/are true?(Select all that apply.)
A) Subcut absorption is slower than intradermal absorption.
B) Two mL or less should be administered in a subcut site.
C) The gluteal area is recommended for children.
D) Needles 1 to ½ 1 inches in length are common for IM injections.
E) The scapular areas of the back may be used for intradermal injections.
Q3) The nurse administers B IM to a patient in a long-term care facility.After administering this medication,the nurse will(Select all that apply.)
A) carefully recap the needle.
B) identify the patient.
C) massage site of injection.
D) dispose of the used needle according to policy.
E) apply a small bandage to the site.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Parenteral Administration: Intravenous Route
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following the insertion of a central venous access device,the nurse notes a weak,thready pulse and decreased blood pressure.The patient complains of shortness of breath and palpitations.Which action will the nurse take first?
A) Place the patient on the left side.
B) Reassess vital signs.
C) Stop the infusion.
D) Verify placement of the device.
Q2) A patient has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)line inserted to continue IV antibiotic therapy at home.With proper care,how long can this type of venous access device remain in place?
A) 2 months
B) 4 months
C) 6 months
D) 12 months
Q3) What is the composition of hypotonic intravenous solutions such as 0.45% NaCl?
A) Fewer dissolved particles than blood
B) Approximately the same number of dissolved particles as blood
C) Higher concentrations of dissolved particles than blood
D) Electrolytes and dextrose
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Drugs That Affect the Autonomic Nervous System
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prior to the administration of metoprolol,a beta-adrenergic blocking agent,which is most important for the nurse to assess?
A) Blood pressure
B) Lung sounds
C) Mental status
D) Urine output
Q2) Why are beta blockers used cautiously in patients with respiratory conditions?
A) They mask the signs and symptoms of acute hypoglycemia.
B) They cause extensive vasodilation and cardiac overload.
C) They may produce severe bronchoconstriction.
D) They increase hypertensive episodes.
Q3) A patient with Parkinson's disease asks the nurse why anticholinergics are used in the treatment.Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A) "These drugs help you urinate."
B) "These drugs will decrease your eye pressure."
C) "These drugs inhibit the action of acetylcholine."
D) "These drugs will assist in lowering your heart rate."
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Drugs Used for Sleep
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Barbiturates have which common adverse effect(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Residual daytime sedation
B) Headache
C) Hyperactivity
D) Blurred vision
E) Impaired coordination
Q2) An older adult patient received a hypnotic agent at 9:00 PM.At 2:00 AM,the nurse discovers that the patient has removed her gown and is attempting to get out of bed without assistance.What type of medication effect is the patient exhibiting?
A) Allergic
B) Hypersensitivity
C) Paradoxical
D) Therapeutic
Q3) The nurse is explaining the use of medications to a patient with insomnia.Which statement about sedatives is true?
A) A sedative will produce sleep.
B) Sedatives increase the total time in REM sleep.
C) Increased relaxation occurs with sedatives.
D) Sedatives are more potent than hypnotics.
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Chapter 14: Drugs Used for Parkinsons Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing education to a patient recently placed on selegiline disintegrating tablets.Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "This medication will help slow the development of symptoms."
B) "I will place the tablet on my tongue before breakfast."
C) "I may need to use a stool softener for constipation."
D) "I should not push the tablet through the foil."
Q2) What point(s)should be included when teaching a patient about the use of apomorphine for treatment of Parkinson's disease?(Select all that apply.)
A) The restoration of function resulting from stimulation of dopamine receptors is permanent.
B) Apomorphine may be administered intravenously for rapid relief.
C) Apomorphine does not have any opioid activity.
D) A multidose injector pen is commonly used to administer apomorphine.
E) You may experience nausea and vomiting, which can be treated with trimethobenzamide (Tigan).
F) You may experience sleep attacks or episodes of daytime sleepiness.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Drugs Used for Anxiety Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment(s)would be included in the evaluation of a patient with anxiety?(Select all that apply.)
A) Physical examination
B) Psychological evaluation
C) History of precipitation stressors
D) Medication history
E) Substance abuse history
F) Blood glucose level
Q2) A female patient is admitted to the adult psychiatric floor with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder.Anxiolytic medications and group therapy have been prescribed.Evaluation of therapeutic outcomes related to her acute stay can be measured by which assessment(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) She is able to sleep 5 hours during the night.
B) The tremor and pacing she exhibited on admission are reduced.
C) She is able to attend and actively participate in group sessions.
D) She is eating only 10% of her meals.
E) She complains of chest pain before group therapy.
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17
Chapter 16: Drugs Used for Depressive and Bipolar Disorders
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which instruction(s)is/are most pertinent to include in the discharge teaching of a patient on lithium (Eskalith)who is being discharged?(Select all that apply.)
A) "Persistent vomiting and profuse diarrhea are signs of toxicity and must be reported to the health care provider immediately."
B) "It is important to comply with schedules for blood tests to assess therapeutic levels."
C) "You should avoid foods such as Chianti wine and aged cheeses."
D) "The common adverse effects to expect, which are excessive nausea, anorexia, and abdominal cramps, tend to resolve."
E) "You will be gradually weaned off this medication."
F) "Take the medication with food or milk."
Q2) Which area(s)should be addressed by the nurse when obtaining a history of a patient admitted with depression?(Select all that apply.)
A) Current medications and medical history
B) Recent stressors and support system
C) Family history of mood disorder
D) Dietary patterns
E) Insurance coverage
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Drugs Used for Psychoses
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young male patient taking an antipsychotic is experiencing an oculogyric crisis.The nurse prepares to administer
A) diphenhydramine.
B) haloperidol.
C) aripiprazole.
D) risperidone.
Q2) The psychiatric nurse is educating an elderly patient and family about antipsychotic drug therapy.When providing this education,the nurse will include which statement(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Hallucinations may be reduced within 1 week of starting.
B) Rapid increase in dosages will increase frequency of adverse effects.
C) Older patients should be observed for hypertension.
D) Tardive dyskinesia may be reversible in early stages.
E) Full therapeutic response may require 6 to 8 weeks to be achieved.
Q3) To what does potency of an antipsychotic medication refer?
A) Severity of adverse effects associated with the drug
B) Length of time that it takes to reach a therapeutic blood level of the drug
C) Milligram doses used for the medication
D) Effectiveness of the drug in alleviating psychotic behavior
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Drugs Used for Seizure Disorders
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing discharge instructions for a patient with a history of diabetes who has just been diagnosed with seizure disorder.The patient has been prescribed hydantoin therapy.What will the patient most likely experience?
A) Hunger
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Diarrhea
D) Pupil dilation
Q2) The pediatric nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with refractory seizures.The physician orders a ketogenic diet.When the child receives his food tray,the nurse should remove any food containing high levels of A) fat.
B) salt.
C) carbohydrates.
D) vitamin K.
Q3) What is the drug of choice when treating a generalized tonic-clonic seizure?
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Haloperidol (Haldol)
C) Valproic acid (Depakene)
D) Risperidone (Risperdal)
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Drugs Used for Pain Management
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing a baseline neurologic assessment prior to the administration of an NSAID medication,the nurse will assess which patient characteristic(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Vital signs
B) Orientation to date, time, and place
C) Mental alertness
D) Bowel sounds
E) Concurrent use of anticoagulant agents
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient's pain.When the patient describes his pain as cramping and burning,which component of the pain history is being addressed?
A) Depth
B) Location
C) Quality
D) Severity
Q3) What term is used to define an awareness of pain?
A) Tolerance
B) Threshold
C) Perception
D) Sensation
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Cardiovascular Disease and Metabolic Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cardiovascular condition(s)is/are related to coronary artery diseases (CADs)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Angina pectoris
B) Pulmonary stenosis
C) Acute myocardial infarction
D) Pericarditis
E) Venous stasis ulcers
Q2) Drug therapy for initial treatment of metabolic syndrome is targeted at controlling which condition(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Obstructive sleep apnea
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Hypertension
D) Obesity
E) Dyslipidemia
F) Insulin resistance
Q3) What is the most critical approach to the treatment of metabolic syndrome?
A) Psychotherapy
B) Pharmacotherapy
C) Lifestyle management
D) Patient education
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Chapter 21: Drugs Used to Treat Dyslipidemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking a HMG CoA reductase inhibitor and reports muscle aches,soreness,and weakness.The nurse suspects these symptoms to indicate early signs of myopathy.When notifying the physician of these symptoms,the nurse will also be sure to report the results of the patient's
A) serum creatine phosphokinase levels.
B) red blood cell count.
C) urine culture.
D) echocardiogram.
Q2) The nurse has completed an admitting patient history and notes the patient's current medications to be simvastatin (Zocor)and warfarin (Coumadin).What is the result of the interaction of these drugs?
A) Abdominal distention
B) Increased INR
C) Low serum level of simvastatin
D) Hypertension
Q3) What is the desired effect of any antilipemic therapy?
A) Reduced LDLs and total cholesterol levels
B) Reduced HDLs and total cholesterol levels
C) Reduced LDLs and HDLs
D) Reduced HDLs and dietary cholesterol levels
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Chapter 22: Drugs Used to Treat Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient recently prescribed felodipine (Plendil)for treatment of hypertension is experiencing dizziness when rising to a standing position.Which action will the nurse take?
A) Encourage the patient to sit down if feeling faint.
B) Advise the patient to increase dietary sodium.
C) Inform the patient to discontinue the medication.
D) Instruct the patient to monitor weight daily.
Q2) When displayed by the patient,which symptom would be most indicative to the nurse to withhold a recently prescribed beta-adrenergic blocker?
A) Dizziness
B) Peripheral edema
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Wheezing
Q3) The nurse is providing instruction to a patient who was recently prescribed an ACE inhibitor for hypertension.Which is an adverse effect of this medication?
A) Constipation
B) Chronic cough
C) Hypokalemia
D) Nervousness
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Chapter 23: Drugs Used to Treat Dysrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is started on phenytoin (Dilantin),who is also taking amiodarone (Cordarone),should be assessed for what possible effect?
A) Central nervous system depression and sedation
B) Decrease in effectiveness of phenytoin
C) Respiratory depression
D) Increase in serum phenytoin levels
Q2) A patient is taking amiodarone (Cordarone)for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and begins to complain of dizziness.What will the nurse instruct the patient to do?
A) Discontinue the medication immediately.
B) Decrease the medication dosage for 1 week, and then resume the original order.
C) Change positions slowly.
D) Increase the dosage per health care provider directions.
Q3) The patient recently prescribed quinidine is at highest risk for which common adverse effect?
A) Chills
B) Diarrhea
C) Nausea
D) Rash
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25
Chapter 24: Drugs Used to Treat Angina Pectoris
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse transcribes a new order for ranolazine (Ranexa)for a patient with chronic stable angina.Before initiating this medication,the nurse will ensure that which laboratory study result(s)is/are available?(Select all that apply.)
A) Electrocardiography
B) BUN
C) Creatinine
D) Electrolyte levels
E) CBC
F) All of the above
Q2) What is the rationale behind administering calcium channel blockers to patients with angina?
A) They decrease heart rate.
B) They dilate blood vessels.
C) They increase cardiac contractility.
D) They promote fluid excretion.
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26
Chapter 25: Drugs Used to Treat Peripheral Vascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are included in the baseline assessment of PVD?(Select all that apply.)
A) History of heart disease
B) Smoking and dietary habits
C) Current medications
D) Weight
E) Limb pain
F) Mental status
Q2) Which are necessary steps in the assessment of the patient preparing for treatment PVD with pentoxifylline (Trental)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Check for intolerance to caffeine.
B) Obtain baseline data on pain that may be present.
C) Obtain test results for PT and aPTT.
D) Perform baseline gastrointestinal assessment to determine if the patient has nausea, vomiting, or dyspepsia.
E) Ask specifically if the patient has any cardiac symptoms or dizziness.
F) Schedule the patient for an exercise stress test.
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27
Chapter 26: Drugs Used to Treat Thromboembolic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A trauma patient arrives in the emergency department via EMS.He is bleeding profusely.A medical alert bracelet indicates that he is on heparin therapy.The nurse will most likely administer which medication that counteracts the action of heparin?
A) Warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
B) Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
C) Protamine sulfate
D) Vitamin K
Q2) Which nursing intervention(s)would be accurate when administering heparin subcutaneously?(Select all that apply.)
A) Assessment of recent aPTT levels
B) Massaging the site after injection of medication
C) Aspirating after needle insertion
D) Documenting ecchymotic areas
E) Monitoring of vital signs
Q3) Which symptom is indicative of bleeding in a patient taking warfarin (Coumadin)?
A) Bradycardia
B) Petechiae
C) Increased urinary output
D) Dry skin
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Chapter 27: Drugs Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before administering digoxin (Lanoxin),the nurse takes the adult patient's apical pulse for 1 full minute.What additional nursing consideration(s)will be taken before administration of the medication?(Select all that apply.)
A) Review of the digoxin blood level
B) Administration of the medication with pulse less than 60 beats/min
C) Review of serum electrolytes, liver, and kidney function studies
D) Administration of the medication with a pulse of 110 beats/min
E) Obtaining baseline patient assessment data, including lung sounds, vital signs, and weight
Q2) The nurse transcribes a new order for a daily diuretic on a patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure.The nurse will schedule this medication
A) in the morning.
B) after lunch.
C) with dinner.
D) at bedtime.
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Chapter 28: Drugs Used for Diuresis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition warrants the use of acetazolamide (Diamox)as a diuretic?
A) Increased intracranial pressure
B) Increased extravascular fluid pressure
C) Increased intraocular pressure
D) Periorbital edema
Q2) Which patient assessment would alert the nurse to withhold a loop diuretic?
A) Crackles in the lung bases
B) +2 pitting peripheral edema
C) Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L
D) Weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days
Q3) Which are common signs and symptoms of dehydration?(Select all that apply.)
A) Furrowed tongue
B) Decreased intake and output levels
C) Bounding pulse rate
D) Mental confusion
E) Elastic skin turgor
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Chapter 29: Drugs Used to Treat Upper Respiratory Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clinic nurse is assessing a patient being seen for a severe allergic reaction to environmental allergens.Which symptom should the nurse prioritize as the most important?
A) Hypotension
B) Urticaria
C) Dyspnea
D) Rhinorrhea
Q2) What can result if a patient overuses topical decongestants?
A) Hypertensive crisis
B) Allergic reaction
C) Secondary congestion
D) Permanent olfactory damage
Q3) The nurse is teaching a patient about the administration of antihistamines.The nurse will instruct the patient to take the medication at what time of day?
A) PRN throughout the day
B) After contact with an allergen
C) 45 minutes before exposure to an allergen
D) Once nasal congestion begins
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Chapter 30: Drugs Used to Treat Lower Respiratory Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient with a history of COPD to self-administer tiotropium (Spiriva)by dry powder inhalation.Which information provided by the nurse is accurate?
A) The medication capsules can be used multiple times.
B) Press on the canister while inhaling.
C) Avoid breathing into the mouthpiece.
D) Wash the device with cold water.
Q2) The nurse is providing instruction about ipratropium (Atrovent)to a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).Which is a common adverse effect that tends to resolve with therapy?
A) Anxiety
B) Dry mouth
C) Tachycardia
D) Urine retention
Q3) From where do the fluids of the respiratory tract originate?
A) Specialized mucous glands called goblet cells
B) Lymph fluid drawn across nasal membranes by osmosis
C) Specialized beta cells in the islets of Langerhans
D) Cells that produce aqueous humor
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32
Chapter 31: Drugs Used to Treat Oral Disorders
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary pharmacologic therapy for Candida albicans?
A) Steroids
B) Antifungal agents
C) Topical anesthetics
D) Topical anti-inflammatory agents
Q2) The nurse is assisting with care of a patient on chemotherapy with severe mucositis.The patient reports mucous membrane pain level to be "8" on the pain scale.The priority nursing diagnosis for this patient is
A) altered nutrition: less than body requirements.
B) risk for aspiration.
C) fluid volume deficit.
D) pain.
Q3) What is the most common cause of most tooth,gum,and periodontal disease?
A) Sugar
B) Halitosis
C) Plaque
D) Smoking
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33
Chapter 32: Drugs Used to Treat Gastroesophageal Reflux and Peptic Ulcer Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication is used in the treatment of gastric reflux esophagitis and diabetic gastroparesis?
A) Metoclopramide
B) Misoprostol
C) Pantoprazole
D) Ranitidine
Q2) A patient who is taking NSAIDs to treat arthritis asks the nurse why misoprostol has also been prescribed.Which explanation by the nurse is accurate?
A) NSAIDs often cause GI irritation that can result in peptic ulcers.
B) NSAIDs promote the production of prostaglandins and reduce the incidence of gastric irritation.
C) Antiulcer medications eradicate the presence of bacteria in the stomach that cause ulcers.
D) Drug interactions are prevented when antiulcer medications are used in combination with NSAIDs.
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34
Chapter 33: Drugs Used to Treat Nausea and Vomiting
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Sample Questions
Q1) A prepared childbirth nurse educator is discussing potential discomforts during pregnancy with a group of women.When relaying information about nausea and vomiting,the nurse will include which statement(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) The majority of pregnant women experience nausea and vomiting.
B) Severe, persistent vomiting during pregnancy is known as anticipatory vomiting.
C) Vomiting during pregnancy is more common among primigravidas.
D) Prior fetal loss puts a woman at higher risk.
E) Nausea and vomiting during pregnancy can occur at any time of the day.
Q2) A patient expresses concerns about motion sickness.Which medication is most effective in preventing motion sickness?
A) Serotonin antagonists
B) Phenothiazines
C) Corticosteroids
D) Anticholinergics
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Chapter 34: Drugs Used to Treat Constipation and Diarrhea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug would be most effective for an obstetric patient who is complaining of constipation as a result of her enlarging uterus and use of prenatal vitamins?
A) Saline laxative
B) Lubricant laxative
C) Stimulant laxative
D) Mineral oil
Q2) When the nurse assesses bowel habits in a patient,which is the best example of normal bowel elimination?
A) Daily bowel movements
B) Multiple soft stools daily
C) Daily liquid stools
D) Regular bowel elimination pattern of soft stool
Q3) What is the mechanism of action of a stimulant laxative?
A) Draws water into the bowel to facilitate the passage of feces
B) Lubricates the intestinal wall and softens stool
C) Increases bulk and stimulates peristalsis
D) Irritates the intestine directly, promoting peristalsis and evacuation
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Chapter 35: Drugs Used to Treat Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which instruction by the nurse is accurate to include when providing teaching to a patient recently diagnosed with diabetes who has been prescribed insulin?
A) Beta blockers can mask symptoms of hypoglycemia.
B) Lipodystrophy increases the absorption of insulin.
C) Infection will decrease the need for insulin.
D) Excessive exercise will increase the need for insulin.
Q2) Which statement(s)regarding type 2 diabetes mellitus would be correct?(Select all that apply.)
A) Type 2 diabetes is more prevalent in overweight people older than 45 years.
B) A genetic predisposition exists for the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus.
C) Type 2 diabetes requires lifelong insulin replacement.
D) Type 2 diabetes is often diagnosed after complications have resulted.
E) Women have a higher incidence of type 2 diabetes.
Q3) When is the best time for the nurse to administer Lispro?
A) After the patient has started eating
B) Within 10 to 15 minutes of eating
C) 30 minutes before a meal
D) 45 to 60 minutes before a meal
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Chapter 36: Drugs Used to Treat Thyroid Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient would be a candidate for radioactive iodine therapy?
A) A 17-year-old woman with Graves' disease
B) A 64-year-old woman with hypothyroidism
C) A 46-year-old man with heart disease and thyroid cancer
D) An 82-year-old man with myxedema crisis
Q2) What is characteristic of antithyroid drugs that act on the thyroid gland?(Select all that apply.)
A) They are a physiologic hormone replacement.
B) They block synthesis of T<sub>3</sub> and T<sub>4</sub> in the thyroid gland.
C) They destroy T<sub>3</sub> and T<sub>4</sub>.
D) Immediate improvement is observed.
E) They may be used before subtotal thyroidectomy.
Q3) A patient with a history of heart failure has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism.The drug interaction with glycosides and thyroid replacement therapy will most likely require which change in therapy?
A) Decrease in the daily digoxin dosage
B) Gradual increase in the daily glycoside dosage
C) Inability to begin thyroid replacement therapy because of the underlying heart condition
D) Increased thyroid replacement dosage
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Chapter 37: Corticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition would require mineralocorticoid replacement?
A) Addison's disease
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Myxedema
D) Glomerulonephritis
Q2) A patient who has been taking glucocorticoids over the past 3 months for Crohn's disease comes in for a follow-up visit.On assessment,the nurse notes facial edema,thinning extremities,and a fatty deposition (buffalo hump)on the scapular area.The patient reports the symptoms of the Crohn's disease are "somewhat better."
What will the nurse expect the treatment to be?
A) Decrease the steroid dosage by one half.
B) Increase the steroid dosage.
C) Maintain the steroid dosage.
D) Immediately stop the steroid dosage.
Q3) What are functions of glucocorticoids?(Select all that apply.)
A) Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance
B) Have anti-inflammatory activities
C) Regulate protein, carbohydrate, and fat metabolism
D) Provide relief of rheumatoid arthritis
E) Include aldosterone
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Chapter 38: Gonadal Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is progestin therapy used for?(Select all that apply.)
A) Contraception
B) Endometriosis
C) Amenorrhea
D) Abnormal uterine bleeding
E) Cancer
Q2) Which statement is true regarding androgen therapy?
A) Androgen use may cause hyperglycemia.
B) Androgens should be administered with food or milk to avoid gastric irritation.
C) Signs of masculinization will appear and are reversible.
D) Electrolyte imbalances are extremely rare.
Q3) The nurse is completing discharge teaching to a new mother who will begin oral contraceptives.Which common adverse effect(s)should be expected?(Select all that apply.)
A) Elevated blood pressure
B) Breast tenderness
C) Weight gain
D) Edema
E) Increased thirst
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Chapter 39: Drugs Used in Obstetrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which test would the nurse anticipate to be done to determine if preterm labor is present in a patient whose symptoms are questionable?
A) Sonogram
B) Fetal fibronectin test
C) Amniocentesis
D) Doppler study
Q2) Which drug will the health care provider prescribe to soften the cervix of a woman who is at 42 weeks of gestation?
A) Methylergonovine (Methergine)
B) Dinoprostone (Prepidil)
C) Betamethasone (Celestone)
D) Terbutaline (Brethine)
Q3) Which emergency drug must be available when caring for a patient receiving magnesium sulfate?
A) Naloxone
B) Calcium gluconate
C) Dextrose
D) Dopamine
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Chapter 40: Drugs Used in Mens and Womens Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is completing a female reproductive history on a 16 year old.What important assessment(s)should be included?(Select all that apply.)
A) Breast self-examination (BSE) routine
B) Age of menarche and pattern of menses
C) Smoking and blood pressure history when seeking a prescription for oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)
D) Sexual orientation and number of partners
E) Number of pregnancies, live births, miscarriages, and abortions
F) Nutritional intake of carbohydrates
Q2) The nurse is instructing a patient on use of a transdermal contraceptive.When evaluating the patient's understanding of the information provided,the nurse identifies a need for further education when the patient states
A) "Apply the first patch during the first 24 hours of the menstrual period."
B) "Use a backup contraceptive concurrently for the first 7 days of the first cycle."
C) "Fold the used patch over on itself before discarding."
D) "Trim the patch carefully prior to application."
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Chapter 41: Drugs Used to Treat Disorders of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organism causes most UTIs?
A) Proteus mirabilis
B) Klebsiella pneumoniae
C) Escherichia coli
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q2) A 42-year-old woman is admitted with complaints of dysuria,frequency,and lower back pain.The urinalysis report is positive for red blood cells,and the blood work shows an elevated white blood cell count.Which medication will the nurse anticipate that the health care provider will order?
A) Meperidine (Demerol)
B) Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine)
C) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
D) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
Q3) What may become discolored by phenazopyridine (Pyridium)in addition to the urine?
A) Feces
B) Sclera
C) Sputum
D) Saliva
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Drugs Used to Treat Glaucoma and Other Eye Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are important teaching points for the nurse to review with a patient recently diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma?(Select all that apply.)
A) The disease will cause damage to the optic disc if left untreated.
B) Symptoms are sudden and painful when the disease begins.
C) Loss of peripheral vision is a common trigger for diagnosis.
D) Total blindness may result if the glaucoma is not treated.
E) Glaucoma is not a serious disease and will cause only mild inconvenience to the patient.
F) Treatment is only necessary when symptoms are bothersome.
Q2) The nurse is assisting with applanation tonometry on a patient at the ophthalmologist's office.The results indicate the patient's reading to be 15 mm Hg.The nurse interprets this result as _____ IOP.
A) decreased
B) normal
C) slightly increased
D) severely increased
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Chapter 43: Drugs Used to Treat Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the intended outcome of the chemoprotective drug amifostine (Ethyol)?
A) Decreased nausea and vomiting
B) Increased effectiveness of the chemotherapy
C) Maintenance of body weight
D) Decreased renal toxicity
Q2) Which symptom is the patient who is receiving bleomycin (Blenoxane)therapy most likely to exhibit?
A) Increased respiratory rate and cough
B) Weight gain and peripheral edema
C) Numbness and tingling of hands and feet
D) Lethargy and orthostatic hypotension
Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer medroxyprogesterone acetate as prescribed to a patient diagnosed with endometrial carcinoma.When gathering supplies to provide this medication,the nurse will obtain a(n)
A) plastic medication cup.
B) medicine dropper.
C) subcutaneous needle and syringe.
D) intramuscular (IM) needle and syringe.
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Chapter 44: Drugs Used to Treat the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is examining a patient in the emergency department whose chief complaint is a dislocated shoulder.Which assessment data are needed to evaluate the patient?(Select all that apply.)
A) Details related to the mechanism of injury
B) Degree of impairment
C) Pain level
D) Inspection of the affected part for swelling, capillary refill, bruising, redness, localized tenderness, deformities, and paresthesia
E) Elevation of the affected extremity
Q2) Which symptoms will be most important for the nurse to assess for early signs of respiratory distress in the patient who has been given a neuromuscular-blocking agent?
A) Nasal flaring and retraction of intercostal muscles
B) Dyspnea, increased respiratory rate, and cyanosis
C) Restlessness, anxiety, and lethargy
D) Pallor, stridor, and diaphoresis
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Chapter 45: Antimicrobial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse will monitor patients on cephalosporins and loop diuretics for which adverse effect?
A) Hepatic toxicity
B) Ototoxicity
C) Nephrotoxicity
D) Splenotoxicity
Q2) The health care provider has prescribed penicillin and probenecid for a patient with a sexually transmitted disease.What is the purpose of combining these medications?
A) To accelerate the excretion of the penicillin
B) To inhibit the absorption of penicillin to allow the drug to remain in the transport phase
C) To inhibit the excretion of the penicillin
D) To reduce toxic effects associated with penicillin
Q3) What adverse effect may manifest as dizziness,tinnitus,and progressive hearing loss?
A) Ear infection
B) Drug allergy
C) Ototoxicity
D) Idiosyncratic reaction
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are essential fatty acids used in the body?(Select all that apply.)
A) Building cell membranes
B) Energy production
C) Prostaglandin production
D) Catalyzing metabolic reactions
E) Eicosanoid production
F) Stimulation of growth hormone
Q2) A patient who is 8 weeks' postpartum would like to begin a moderate intensity exercise program to lose the remaining 20 lb she gained during her pregnancy.Which exercise regimen will the nurse recommend to accomplish this goal best?
A) Walking 2 miles daily in 1 hour, four times weekly
B) Jogging 4 miles in 20 minutes, three times weekly
C) Walking 4 miles in 1 hour daily
D) Jogging 2 miles in 20 minutes, twice weekly
Q3) Which meal contains the best sources of dietary fiber?
A) Eggs, bacon, orange juice
B) Salad, whole wheat toast, sliced peach
C) Roast beef, mashed potatoes with gravy, corn, milk
D) Grilled hamburger on a bun, fresh carrot sticks, potato chips
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Herbal and Dietary Supplement Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with diabetes,hypertension,chronic obstructive pulmonary disease,and angina reports to the nurse that she is taking an aloe juice drink to treat constipation.When assessing this patient for adverse interactions,the nurse will prioritize
A) pulse rate.
B) blood pressure.
C) lung sounds.
D) blood glucose monitoring.
Q2) The use of which medication would alert the nurse to educate the patient about using ginkgo biloba cautiously?
A) Antiemetics
B) Anti-inflammatories
C) Anticoagulants
D) Antibiotics
Q3) Which herb is used to stimulate the innate immune system?
A) Aloe
B) Echinacea
C) Chamomile
D) Ginger
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Chapter 48: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) What important point(s)of patient education should be included about disulfiram (Antabuse)therapy?(Select all that apply.)
A) The patient should return for liver function tests in 10 to 14 days following initiation of therapy.
B) Headache, fatigue, and a metallic taste are common adverse effects that usually resolve.
C) Avoid alcohol ingestion to prevent a reaction.
D) Carefully read all labels for possible alcohol content, including perfumes and over-the-counter (OTC) medications such as cough syrups.
E) Report to the health care provider any allergic symptoms, such as hives or pruritus.
Q2) A 16-year-old male has been referred to the community mental health center following legal charges of driving under the influence.Which screening tests would be appropriate to use on this patient?
A) Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST)
B) Adolescent Alcohol Involvement Scale (AAIS)
C) Adolescent Drug Abuse Diagnosis (ADAD)
D) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI 2)
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Miscellaneous Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing information to a patient with chronic gout arthritis who is prescribed probenecid.Which information by the nurse is accurate regarding the action of this drug?
A) It prevents uric acid crystal formation.
B) It promotes uric acid excretion.
C) It provides analgesia.
D) It treats acute gout attacks.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with a new prescription for donepezil (Aricept)for symptoms of mild dementia.Which symptom exhibited by the patient should the nurse report to the physician immediately?
A) Bradycardia
B) Vomiting
C) Diarrhea
D) Dyspepsia
Q3) Which laboratory test result would the nurse observe when a patient has hepatotoxicity?
A) Decreased bilirubin
B) Increased albumin
C) Decreased alkaline phosphatase
D) Increased alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
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