
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Clinical Nursing Practice is a comprehensive course that immerses students in the practical application of nursing concepts and skills in real healthcare environments. Through hands-on clinical placements and supervised training, students develop competence in patient assessment, care planning, medication administration, and effective communication with both patients and interdisciplinary healthcare teams. Emphasis is placed on the integration of theoretical knowledge, ethical considerations, evidence-based practice, and critical thinking to ensure safe and high-quality patient care. By the end of the course, students gain the foundational clinical experience necessary for professional nursing roles and ongoing development in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing 2nd Edition by
Kathleen S. Osborn
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67 Chapters
1995 Verified Questions
1995 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3943

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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse with a high level of expertise is providing a report to the oncoming nurse about a particular patient. Which statement would exemplify this nurse's expert level of experience?
A) "I saw that the patient's eyes changed focus, and I kept the airway open until the seizure ended."
B) "I didn't realize that 2 days of bed rest would make the patient so weak."
C) "The other nurse helping me told me that I did a good job with the patient."
D) "I learned that diuretics can cause imbalances of many electrolytes."
Answer: A
Q2) The nurse plans and implements care for a patient based on nursing knowledge and skills. The nurse is functioning within which role?
A) Caregiver
B) Advocate
C) Educator
D) Leader
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse manager that he is going to charge a nurse with battery for actions that occurred in the emergency department. Which characteristics of battery should the manager consider when formulating a response?. Select all that apply.
A) For battery to occur, actual contact must be made.
B) Battery could not have occurred unless the patient specifically told the nurse not to touch him just before the contact occurred.
C) Battery can occur even if the patient is not touched.
D) For the patient to prove battery, an injury must have occurred.
E) It will be difficult for the patient to prove battery occurred because he gave consent for treatment.
Answer: A,C,E
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Sample Questions
Q1) Even though the nurses in a patient care area have been asked to collect data while conducting patient care, several nurses do the data collection only if time is available. Which research problem criteria does the inconsistent collection of data exemplify?
A) Feasible to address
B) Researchable
C) Of interest to the researcher
D) Significant to nursing
Answer: A
Q2) The nurse is implementing stage 2 of a critique of a quantitative research study. In this stage, the nurse will perform which action?
A) Study the findings.
B) Summarize the quality of the study.
C) Review the purpose of the research.
D) Focus on the conduct of the research.
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) A registered nurse is seeking employment at a hospital with magnet status after hearing about the high nurse satisfaction at this hospital. High nursing satisfaction in a hospital with magnet status rating is a result of which commonality?
A) Unlicensed assistive personnel are used to perform direct patient care such as hygiene.
B) Charge nurses direct all care by tight control of nursing services.
C) Responsibility for care of the patient rests with the primary health care provider rather than the nurse.
D) Nurses have a great deal of professional autonomy.
Q2) The nurse is providing care to patients for whom she has 24-hour accountability and responsibility. How would the nurse describe this care delivery system?
A) Team nursing
B) Functional nursing
C) Case method
D) Primary nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing unit has changed its documentation system to documenting by exception. How will this system save time?
A) It eliminates lengthy or repetitive documentation.
B) It allows flexibility and description in the documentation.
C) It allows the reader to easily locate information about a specific problem.
D) It allows for quick and easy retrieval of information.
Q2) The nurse is using the Kardex to plan a patient's care. What information would the nurse expect to find in this document?. Select all that apply.
A) Nursing notes from the previous shift
B) Schedule of diagnostic tests
C) Level of activity
D) Diet
E) IV therapy
Q3) Which aspect of critical thinking would the nurse use when making a nursing diagnosis?
A) Making decisions about an action
B) Identifying potential and actual problems
C) Increasing the likelihood of obtaining good results
D) Getting a better understanding of someone else
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Sample Questions
Q1) While conducting a health history, the nurse nods her head as the patient is talking. What is the nurse's primary rationale for this action?
A) It conveys acknowledgment of the patient's feelings.
B) It helps to reduce the patient's anxiety level.
C) It encourages the patient to continue talking.
D) It allows the nurse time to observe the patient's nonverbal cues.
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the outcomes of a patient's plan of care. Which portions of the critical thinking process are used in this evaluation?. Select all that apply.
A) Revision of cues
B) Generation of alternatives
C) Analysis of the situation
D) Selection of alternatives
E) Collection of information
Q3) A 54-year-old patient reports that she smokes a pack and a half of cigarettes daily and has been smoking since she was 16 years old. The nurse would record a smoking history of ______ pack-years.
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Q1) At the completion of genetic testing, it has been determined that a patient's baby will have Down syndrome. What should the nurse say to the patient after learning this information?
A) "I realize that this news is difficult for you. Is there anything I can do to help you at this time?"
B) "It's not too late to consider ending the pregnancy."
C) "You are young enough to be able to handle the baby's challenges."
D) "It does not matter if the baby has problems; all life is precious."
Q2) The nurse is conducting a class for expectant parents who need genetic counseling. Which statement by a parent would indicate the need for further education?
A) "The reason men and women are so different from one another is that none of their chromosomes are alike."
B) "Half of the sets of chromosomes come from the mother and the other half come from the father."
C) "The 23<sup>rd</sup> pair of chromosomes will determine if our child will be male or female."
D) "One Y chromosome and one X chromosome will produce a male child."
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Q1) The nurse is conducting a nutrition assessment on a patient who has been admitted for hip replacement surgery. The patient reports that he is Jewish and follows the kosher dietary tradition. Which statement by the nurse will have the greatest impact on the patient's nutritional health during his hospitalization?
A) "I'll arrange for a dietitian to come and discuss your food requirements with you."
B) "Would you be more comfortable with having your family bring you food from home?"
C) "Remember that you will need to increase your protein input postsurgery."
D) "Please tell me more about your preferred eating habits."
Q2) The nurse is planning care for a patient with liver cirrhosis and resultant ascites. What intervention should be included to ensure an adequate nutritional status for this patient?
A) Ensure caloric intake of 10 to 15 calories per kg of body weight.
B) Provide small, more frequent, high-protein meals.
C) Encourage foods higher in sodium.
D) Implement a very low-fat diet.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse that she never had "bowel problems" until she started a new job that is highly demanding. What is the nurse's best response to this patient?
A) "You might have had the bowel problems all along but didn't realize it until recently."
B) "There is no connection between the new bowel problems and your new job."
C) "The new job might be a trigger for a stress reaction in your body, causing the new bowel problems."
D) "Because of your new job you may be eating in different places. That can upset your stomach."
Q2) The nurse is attempting to use the therapeutic communication technique of acceptance while interviewing a patient. Which nursing actions support this attempt?. Select all that apply.
A) Asking, "What would you like to talk about today?"
B) Making eye contact as appropriate
C) Nodding when the patient describes a symptom
D) Saying, "Go on."
E) Saying, "Let me see if I understand what you said."
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Sample Questions
Q1) An elderly female patient has a sudden onset of delirium during the first night of hospitalization. What does this episode suggest to the nurse?
A) The patient has an infection.
B) The patient is dehydrated.
C) The cause must be determined immediately because it can signal another health problem.
D) The patient has Alzheimer's disease.
Q2) A patient reports difficulty hearing when talking to family members on the telephone. Which technologies should the nurse consider when replying to this patient?.
Select all that apply.
A) TTY telephones
B) Voice over Internet Protocol (VOIP)
C) Videoconferencing
D) Analog rather than digital telephone
E) Special telephone with higher volume
Q3) A nurse researcher is preparing to study a group of older adults and their response to a nursing intervention. To meet the legal definition of older adult, the study group should include persons _______ years of age or older.
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Q1) A patient is very near the end of life. Which nursing interventions are indicated to assist the family during their grieving process?. Select all that apply.
A) Teach the family about the normal events that occur just prior to death.
B) Remove as much monitoring equipment from the patient and the room as is possible.
C) Support the family's use of cultural and religious customs.
D) Avoid using harsh terms such as "death" or "dying" when describing the situation.
E) Limit the number of people at the bedside to no more than two or three.
Q2) A woman is acting as primary caregiver for her husband, who is on hospice care. The wife needs to keep her own physician's appointment. What advice should the nurse give?
A) "Your husband should be okay for a couple of hours on his own."
B) "Can your daughter take off from work to stay with your husband?"
C) "Hospice can provide a caregiver to be with your husband while you are at your appointment."
D) "Maybe you can delay your appointment until someone can stay with your husband."
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Sample Questions
Q1) When carrying out the order for morphine 2 mg IV every 3 hours prn, the nurse recognizes that which intervention is most appropriate?
A) The nurse should wait until the previous dose of morphine has worn off before administering more.
B) For best results, the patient should receive the morphine every 3 hours.
C) The nurse should assess pain every hour and routinely offer the drug.
D) The nurse should wait until the patient requests the morphine to administer the drug.
Q2) A patient with chronic pain is being started on a "patch." What should the nurse include when instructing the patient about this pain-relieving delivery system?. Select all that apply.
A) It will not work as well as oral pain medications.
B) Do not apply heat over the area where the patch is placed.
C) The patient will never experience breakthrough pain.
D) The patient will never overdose with this delivery method.
E) Do not massage the area where the patch is placed.
Q3) A patient who had abdominal surgery this morning is receiving opioid pain medication on a routine basis. The nurse would hold the medication if the patient's respirations fall below _____ per minute.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is exhibiting addictive behaviors and has admitted to using illegal drugs. Which statements by the patient are consistent with addictive behaviors?. Select all that apply.
A) "I think even as a child I didn't have much self-esteem."
B) "When I was in the hospital for appendicitis, they told me they had to give me more pain medication than normal because I was still in pain."
C) "Sometimes I steal things from stores just to see if I can get away with it."
D) "I like to play it safe. When my friends were bungee jumping off the bridge, I just watched."
E) "I have always been very slow to anger."
Q2) A loading dose of magnesium sulfate 4 g is ordered for a patient. The concentration available is 4 g/250 mL to be given over 30 minutes. The IV pump rate will be set at _______ mL/h.
Q3) A patient withdrawing from alcohol addiction has an order for diazepam (Valium), 10 mg every 4 hours for four doses, then 5 mg every 4 hours for four doses. The drug comes in a concentration of 5 mg/mL. The patient is given a total of ______ mL.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a compromised immune system is admitted to the hospital with an infection. What will most likely be done to help this patient?
A) Discharge the patient early to recover from the infection at home.
B) Place the patient in a semiprivate room.
C) Use isolation techniques to protect the patient from further infection.
D) Place the patient in respiratory isolation.
Q2) The nurse would be concerned that a patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of inflammation after assessing which findings in a leg wound?. Select all that apply.
A) Edema
B) Pain
C) Erythema
D) Coolness of tissues
E) Decreased distal pulses
Q3) Linezolid (Zyvox) 600 mg BID, IV has been ordered for a patient. The nurse receives 600 mg/300 mL with direction to give over 120 minutes. An IV line labeled 15 drops per mL is available. The drop rate will be ______ drops/minute.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for an elderly patient who is intermittently confused, what is the nurse's primary concern regarding fluid and electrolytes?
A) Risk of dehydration
B) Risk of kidney damage
C) Risk of stroke
D) Risk of bleeding
Q2) When caring for a patient diagnosed with hypocalcemia, the nurse would also assess for which other finding?
A) Other electrolyte disturbances
B) Hypertension
C) Visual disturbances
D) Drug toxicity
Q3) A postoperative patient is diagnosed with fluid volume overload. Which assessment would the nurse attribute to this diagnosis?
A) The patient has poor skin turgor.
B) The patient has decreased urine output.
C) The patient reports sleeping on two pillows.
D) The patient's laboratory testing reveals concentrated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing diagnosis would the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with a catheter embolism?
A) Ineffective Coping
B) Fluid Volume Deficit
C) Impaired Skin Integrity
D) Alteration in Comfort
Q2) The nurse inspects the intravenous catheter after removal. Documentation would include which information?. Select all that apply.
A) Length of catheter
B) Condition of access caps
C) Type of catheter
D) Condition of catheter
E) Size of catheter
Q3) The nurse is planning to administer 10 units of platelets to a patient with thrombocytopenia. The nurse plans to have a platelet count drawn within _______ minutes of the end of the transfusion.
Q4) A patient has received a unit of packed red blood cells. If the patient is not bleeding, the nurse would expect that the hematocrit would rise _____ %.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse takes an informed consent document to the patient's room in preparation for an emergency surgical procedure. The patient states, "Doc said he would tell me all about the surgery when he gets here. Do you know what they are going to do?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Let's wait on signing this until your physician has talked to you."
B) "Let me go get a medical surgical textbook so I can use the pictures to explain the procedure."
C) "I am not certain; let me call the nursing supervisor to explain it to you."
D) "Go ahead and sign this so we will have that part done when the physician gets here."
Q2) Which preoperative finding should the nurse report immediately to the rest of the health care team?
A) No prior patient history or family history of malignant hyperthermia
B) Patient's age greater than 70
C) Heart rate of 88 beats per minute
D) Latex allergy
Q3) A patient has postponed an elective surgical procedure. The nurse would advise the patient that a new preoperative health assessment will be necessary if the original assessment document is over _____ days old.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surgical team is assembled and is preparing to conduct a procedure on a patient. Which health care professional is responsible for the overall functioning of the surgical team?
A) Surgeon
B) Circulating nurse
C) Scrub nurse
D) Registered nurse first assistant
Q2) At the conclusion of a surgical procedure, it has been determined that one sponge is missing. How should the nurse manage this situation?
A) Ask housekeeping personnel to look for the missing sponge while preparing the surgical suite for the next procedure.
B) Ask the surgeon to recount the sponges along with the nurse.
C) Refer to AORN standards for guidance.
D) Call the nursing supervisor to report the missing sponge.
Q3) The certified nurse anesthetist suspects a patient is experiencing malignant hyperthermia and will administer dantrolene sodium 3 mg/kg IV. The patient's documented weight is 143 pounds. The nurse will administer _____ mg in the first bolus.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient recovering from surgery conducted in the previous 24 hours. What should the nurse do to assist this patient with pain control?
A) Administer prescribed analgesics around the clock.
B) Administer prescribed analgesics when the patient requests something for pain.
C) Assist the patient to a more comfortable position to reduce the amount of pain.
D) Offer the patient a back rub to reduce the amount of pain.
Q2) The surgical unit has developed a new fast-track system whereby patients are transferred from the operating room to PACU phase II. The nurse anticipates that which patients would benefit from this change?. Select all that apply.
A) A healthy 50-year-old patient with an uncomplicated cataract surgery
B) A 20-year-old basketball player who had arthroscopic repair of the knee
C) A 65-year-old woman who had a hysterectomy for uterine cancer
D) A 40-year-old man who had coronary bypass surgery
E) A 5-year-old whose tonsils and adenoids were removed
Q3) A child who weighs 30 kg is in the PACU. The nurse would collaborate with the child's health care provider if the child's urine output was less than ______ mL per hour.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse detects an abnormality in CN VIII (facial) during a neurological assessment. Which interventions would the nurse consider?. Select all that apply.
A) Have the patient wear an eye patch during the day.
B) Check visual acuity with the Snellen chart.
C) Assess pupils for equality of size and response to light.
D) Provide the patient with an eye shield to wear at night.
E) Warn the patient about the possibility of choking when drinking fluids.
Q2) The patient is exhibiting abnormal posturing to stimuli. Which findings would the nurse document as decerebrate posturing?. Select all that apply.
A) The arms are rigidly extended.
B) The toes are pointed downward.
C) The teeth are clenched.
D) The chin is held against the chest.
E) The arms are hypersupinated.
Q3) The nurse recognizes which observation as a positive Babinski sign?
A) Inability to identify two simultaneous points of pain on the foot
B) Curling of all the toes in response to stroking stimulation
C) Feeling a buzzing sensation in the foot when touched with a tuning fork
D) Dorsiflexion of the great toe, with fanning of the other toes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning a community education session regarding prevention of traumatic brain injury (TBI). The nurse would discuss which risk factors?. Select all that apply.
A) Age over 65
B) Male gender
C) Age under 18
D) High alcohol intake
E) Serving in the military
Q2) A patient diagnosed with a benign brain tumor is scheduled for gamma knife surgery. How would the nurse explain this procedure?
A) "A radioactive seed or capsule will be implanted into the tumor."
B) "A robotic arm device will deliver multiple beams of radiation to the tumor."
C) "This is the traditional method of delivering radiation to a tumor."
D) "The gamma knife is a method of delivering a focused dose of radiation at your tumor."
Q3) A nurse is providing care to a patient with increased intracranial pressure following a closed head injury. The nurse would determine that adequate cerebral perfusion pressure exists if the CPP is at least ____.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with signs of a stroke (CVA). On admission, vital signs were blood pressure 128/70, pulse 68, and respirations
A) Impending brain death
B) Decreasing intracranial pressure
20. Two hours later the patient is not awake, has a blood pressure of 170/70, pulse 52, and the left pupil is now slower than the right pupil in reacting to light. These findings suggest which condition?
C) Stabilization of the patient's condition
D) Increasing intracranial pressure
Q2) A patient experienced onset of weakness, left-sided facial drooping, and difficulty talking 2 hours before presenting in the emergency department. The patient has been in the ED for 30 minutes, and the nurse is aware that t-PA treatment for stroke must be administered within the next _______ hours to be effective.
Q3) A patient has been admitted with stroke-like symptoms. The nurse would report a serum potassium level of less than _____mEq/L as below the desired level.
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). The nurse plans care based on which understanding of the patient's prognosis?
A) The disease progresses slowly and is fatal.
B) The disease will progress over many years but the patient's quality of life will be good.
C) The disease progresses rapidly but can be halted by drug therapy.
D) The disease will progress slowly and can be controlled by medication.
Q2) The nurse is providing care to a patient with mysasthenia gravis (MG). The nurse would plan this care based on which characteristics of the disease?. Select all that apply.
A) Immunosuppressant therapy may be prescribed.
B) Exercise increases muscle strength.
C) Visual problems may be an early symptom.
D) Initial drug treatment often involves cholinesterase inhibitors.
E) Ptosis may be either unilateral or bilateral.
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Q1) The nurse is educating a patient and the family about different types of stabilization devices. Which statement by the patient indicates that the patient understands the benefit of using a halo fixation device instead of Gardner-Wells tongs?
A) "I will have less pain if I use the halo device."
B) "The halo device will allow me to get out of bed."
C) "I am less likely to get an infection with the halo device."
D) "The halo device does not have to stay in place as long."
Q2) A patient with a spinal cord injury (SCI) has complete paralysis of the upper extremities and the lower part of the body. The nurse should use which medical term to correctly describe this in documentation?
A) Hemiplegia
B) Paresthesia
C) Paraplegia
D) Tetraplegia
Q3) The health care provider orders 15 mg IV of ketorolac (Toradol) for a patient who has recently undergone a spinal fusion. The nurse has a 5 milliliter (mL) ampule containing 60 mg of ketorolac. The nurse withdraws ______ mL of ketorolac from the ampule.
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Q1) To establish the location of a respiratory sound, the nurse uses standard landmarks. The nurse locates the second rib as adjacent to which structure?
A) Supersternal notch
B) Sternal angle
C) Costal margin
D) Xiphoid process
Q2) A review of a patient's medical record reveals a 70-pack-year smoking history. The patient says he smokes two packs of cigarettes every day. The nurse calculates that this patient has been smoking for ______ years.
Q3) During the palpation of a patient's chest for expansion, the nurse notices a decrease in expansion of the right side. This finding is consistent with which condition?. Select all that apply.
A) Emphysema
B) Pneumothorax
C) Flail chest
D) Heart failure
E) Influenza
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Q1) A patient has had myocutaneous flap reconstruction for the defect caused by a neck tumor resection. What nursing interventions are indicated for care of this flap?. Select all that apply.
A) Keep the patient in the supine position for at least 24 hours after surgery.
B) Regularly assess the flap for capillary refill.
C) Use tracheostomy ties to help keep the flap in place.
D) Keep the patient's head turned slightly toward the operative side.
E) Keep the patient on strict bed rest until flap healing is established.
Q2) Which individual is most at risk for head and neck cancer?
A) A young female infected with human papillomavirus
B) A male with a 15-year history of smoking and alcohol use
C) A young male who has used smokeless tobacco for 2 years
D) An older male with a history of preferring "meat and potatoes"
Q3) Which patient requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
A) A patient with a mandibular fracture who has facial numbness and tingling
B) A patient with a fractured nasal bone experiencing a nosebleed
C) A patient with a maxillary fracture who has been swallowing frequently
D) A patient with a temporal bone fracture experiencing hearing loss
Q4) The nurse, suctioning a patient's tracheostomy, plans for each suctioning attempt to last no longer than _____ seconds.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements would indicate that a patient diagnosed with asthma needs additional teaching at discharge?. Select all that apply.
A) "I know I shouldn't smoke, but one or two cigarettes a day shouldn't be harmful."
B) "I should monitor my peak flow daily and record it in a diary."
C) "I should rinse my mouth after each use of my corticosteroid inhaler."
D) "Using a spacer with my inhaler will allow for better and more accurate medication delivery."
E) "I should plan to have pulmonary function tests done every 5 years."
Q2) A patient tells the nurse she had the bacilli Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccination as a child because her mother had tuberculosis. How will this patient be screened for tuberculosis?
A) Two-step Mantoux test
B) PPD test
C) Sputum tests
D) Chest X-ray
Q3) A child with recurrent respiratory infection is being evaluated for cystic fibrosis. The nurse explains to the parents that diagnosis is based on history and two sweat chloride tests equal to or over ______ mEq/L.
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Q1) Which interventions should the nurse plan to help reduce a patient's risk of developing ventilator-associated pneumonia?. Select all that apply.
A) Brush the patient's teeth every 4 hours.
B) Regularly drain any accumulated water from ventilator tubing.
C) Place a nasogastric tube to keep the stomach decompressed.
D) Keep the head of the bed at 30 to 45 degrees.
E) Wash the hands before and after patient contact.
Q2) A patient who was in a motor vehicle accident 1 day ago has been diagnosed with lung contusions. The patient develops increasing respiratory distress. The nurse recognizes that which factor will differentiate a diagnosis of acute lung injury (ALI) from a diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A) ALI patients have fewer injuries than ARDS patients.
B) ARDS patients have a lower respiratory rate than ALI patients.
C) ARDS and ALI differ only in the extent of hypoxemia.
D) ALI patients have more inflammation than ARDS patients.
Q3) Arterial blood gases reveal that a patient's PaO<sub>2</sub> is 84% on room air. The patient's FaO<sub>2</sub>/FiO<sub>2</sub> ratio is ______.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78629
Sample Questions
Q1) A review of the medical record reveals that a patient has been diagnosed with paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND). Which questions would the nurse ask to assess the status of this condition?. Select all that apply.
A) "How often do you get up to go to the bathroom at night?"
B) "Are you still waking up at night because you are short of breath?"
C) "How long after you go to bed do you start having trouble breathing?"
D) "Do you still have to sleep on three pillows at night?"
E) "Are you still having palpitations at night?"
Q2) While auscultating the patient's heart sounds, the nurse hears an additional sound immediately following S<sub>2</sub>. The nurse would conduct further assessment for which condition?
A) Ventricular volume overload
B) Ventricular hypertrophy from hypertension
C) Atrial fibrillation
D) A stenotic aortic valve
Q3) A patient has mild pitting edema over the lower legs. A ¼-inch indentation remains in the tissue after the nurse depresses it with a finger. The nurse would document this finding as + _______ pitting edema.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78628
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient received an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD). The nurse would include which instruction during discharge teaching for this patient?
A) "If a family member is in direct contact with you when the ICD discharges, he or she may experience a shock or tingling sensation."
B) "You can activate the ICD whenever you feel a change in your heart rhythm."
C) "The batteries of the ICD won't need to be replaced if the ICD never shocks the heart."
D) "There should be no discomfort if the ICD discharges. You probably won't notice it."
Q2) The nurse admits a patient into the emergency department who complains of light-headedness and nausea. During the assessment, the nurse determines that the radial pulse is 42 and regular, the QRS complex is within normal limits, and there is no measurable PR interval because there is no consistent relationship between the P waves and the QRS complexes. How would the nurse interpret this dysrhythmia?
A) Third-degree AV heart block
B) Sinus bradycardia
C) Supraventricular tachycardia
D) Sinus arrest
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with an arterial line has just been turned and repositioned. After leveling the transducer, what should the nurse do next?
A) Turn the stopcock closest to the patient to the neutral position.
B) Zero the transducer.
C) Increase the arterial line infusion to 5 mL/hour.
D) Prime the transducer system.
Q2) Which nursing instruction is given to the patient whose central venous catheter will be removed?
A) "Take a deep breath."
B) "Roll over to your left side."
C) "Use this gauze to apply pressure over the insertion site."
D) "Place your hand over your head as I remove this line."
Q3) While caring for a patient with a right radial arterial line, the nurse assesses that the fingers of the right hand are cool, pale, and dusky. Which intervention would be important to do first?
A) Obtain a blood pressure in the left arm.
B) Try to obtain a pulse using Doppler ultrasound.
C) Notify the physician stat.
D) Flush the arterial catheter and zero the line.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78626
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse, caring for a patient diagnosed with Prinzmetal's or variant angina, realizes this is a serious type of chest pain. Why is this so?
A) It indicates the presence of coronary artery spasm.
B) It indicates there is associated renal disease.
C) It indicates there is associated pulmonary disease.
D) It indicates the presence of a myocardial infarction.
Q2) An otherwise healthy patient admitted with chest pain is scheduled for diagnostic testing. The nurse anticipates that the results of which test will provide the best information about the patient's coronary artery status?
A) Coronary angiography
B) Stress electrocardiography
C) Echocardiography
D) Nuclear persantine (dipyridamole) stress test
Q3) The nurse, caring for a patient with myocardial damage, would expect which change on the ECG tracing?
A) ST segment elevation
B) Loss of P waves
C) Bradycardia
D) Widening of the QRS complex

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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with infective endocarditis is expressing fear and anxiety related to changes in health status and anticipated procedures. What interventions would the nurse include in this patient's care plan?.. Select all that apply.
A) Provide factual information concerning diagnosis, treatment, disfigurement, disabilities, and prognosis.
B) State that the physician will have to be the one who talks to the patient about the procedure.
C) Explain to the patient that it is better not to be informed prior to procedures, as information increases anxiety.
D) Tell the patient not to worry and that everything will be fine.
E) Explain all procedures and allow the patient time for mental preparation.
Q2) A patient is admitted with acute pericarditis. When auscultating heart sounds, the nurse should ask the patient to assume which position?
A) Sit leaning forward
B) Lie supine
C) Sit upright
D) Lie on the left side
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement by a patient with heart failure would indicate to the nurse that the patient does not understand the discharge instructions?
A) "I will increase my activity a little every day."
B) "I will contact the health care provider if I begin gaining weight."
C) "I will eat a low-sodium diet."
D) "I will pick up my new medications in a few days when I get paid."
Q2) A patient with left-sided heart failure is admitted to the unit. Which assessment is a priority upon admission?
A) Abdominal assessment
B) Neurological status
C) Presence of peripheral edema
D) Airway and oxygenation status
Q3) The nurse assesses for which sign of decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion in a patient with heart failure?. Select all that apply.
A) Reduced mental alertness
B) Increased urine output
C) Abdominal distention
D) Strong peripheral pulses
E) Cachexia
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78623
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with peripheral arterial disease has a nursing diagnosis of Ineffective Tissue Perfusion. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this nursing diagnosis?
A) Assist the patient in taking hot baths.
B) Do not elevate the patient's legs.
C) Encourage the patient to limit activity.
D) Limit visitors.
Q2) A patient's visit to the health care clinic reveals a blood pressure of 142/
A) Notify the physician or primary health care provider immediately.
B) Identify medications the patient has been taking.
C) Discuss the diagnosis of hypertension with the patient.
D) Check the patient's record for the past several blood pressure readings. 90. What is the nurse's next step?
Q3) A patient has the nursing diagnosis Impaired Physical Mobility related to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. To address this nursing diagnosis, the nurse should instruct the patient to walk for at least 30 minutes at least _______ times a week.
Q4) The patient's brachial artery systolic pressure is 144 mmHg, and the right ankle systolic pressure is 120 mmHg. The nurse calculates the patient's ankle-brachial index to be ______.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78622
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for an adolescent who experienced trauma to the spleen that requires its removal. When discussing the proposed surgery with the patient's parents, the nurse would provide which information?. Select all that apply.
A) The spleen is located in the left upper abdominal quadrant.
B) The spleen is involved in the return of bile to the liver.
C) The spleen has a minimal vascular system.
D) The spleen acts as a blood filtration system.
E) The spleen destroys aged red blood cells.
Q2) The preceptor would intervene if the newly licensed nurse planned to test for the iliopsoas sign in which patients?. Select all that apply.
A) A patient immobilized after sustaining a neck injury
B) A 70-year-old patient hospitalized with abdominal pain
C) A patient who had hip-replacement surgery 6 years ago
D) A patient with suspected inflammation of the cecum
E) A patient who may have appendicitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is experiencing manifestations consistent with an oral fungal infection. The patient's health history is unremarkable. Which medication does the nurse anticipate being ordered to manage this condition initially?
A) Nystatin
B) Ciprofloxacin
C) Ampicillin
D) Viscous lidocaine
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with type 1 herpes simplex lesions on the mouth and face. Which statement indicates that the patient understands the information provided by the nurse?
A) "I will have this condition for life."
B) "This was caused by a bacterial infection."
C) "I have come into contact with some type of fungal infection."
D) "An antibiotic will help heal these sores in about 3 days."
Q3) The physician has ordered metoclopramide (Reglan) 2 mg/kg IVP to be given 30 minutes before the start of chemotherapy. The patient weighs 54 kg. The metoclopramide (Reglan) is dispensed in a 10 mg/10 mL vial. The nurse will administer ________ mL of metoclopramide.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78620
Sample Questions
Q1) Which finding in a patient who has a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube for esophageal varices is the priority for follow-up?
A) Left lower leg swollen and reddened
B) Absent bowel sounds to lower-left quadrant
C) Decreased level of consciousness
D) 3 cm darkened area on left heel
Q2) The nurse should include which teaching points when planning discharge for a patient who has a T-tube following a cholecystectomy?. Select all that apply.
A) Keep the skin around the site clean and free from bile drainage.
B) Report drainage of more than 500 mL per day to the health care provider.
C) Primarily maintain a side-lying position to facilitate drainage.
D) Report skin redness or irritation in the drain site area.
E) Pin the drainage tube to clothing to maintain slight traction on the site.
Q3) A patient with pancreatitis asks the nurse, "Why are my stools so frothy and smell so bad?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) "This is a sign of malnutrition."
B) "This indicates your stools have more fat in them."
C) "This is a sign of peptic ulcer disease."
D) "You may be developing diabetes mellitus."
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78619
Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient is admitted with an overdistended bladder. Which diagnostic test can be done to confirm the diagnosis of urine retention?
A) Bladder scan
B) Renal scan
C) Intravenous pyelography (IVP)
D) MRI
Q2) A female patient asks the nurse about ways to prevent recurrent cystitis. What is an appropriate nursing response?
A) "Void before and as soon as possible after sexual intercourse."
B) "Clean the perineal area from back to front."
C) "Soak in a bathtub at least once a week."
D) "Wear clean, nylon underpants."
Q3) A male patient with a urinary stoma says, "I looked at it while you were out of the room. It's not so bad." How should the nurse evaluate this statement?
A) The patient is making progress with coping.
B) The patient is in denial.
C) The patient has not grieved for his body image.
D) The patient is angry.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing instruction to a patient who has been diagnosed with prostate cancer. Which statement by the patient would indicate understanding of the nurse's instruction?
A) "The prostate gland is where sperm are formed."
B) "The prostate gland is located at the neck of my bladder."
C) "The prostate gland produces semen."
D) "The prostate gland is normally very small, only about a quarter of an inch long."
Q2) On assessment the nurse notes that a patient's urinary opening is on the ventral side of the penis. How should the nurse document this finding?
A) Hypospadias
B) Hydrocele
C) Cryptorchidism
D) Varicocele
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Q1) The school nurse is providing health promotion information regarding menstruation to a group of girls in middle school. Which strategies should the nurse suggest to avoid toxic shock syndrome (TSS)?. Select all that apply.
A) Use superabsorbent tampons.
B) Change tampons at least every 4 hours.
C) Alternate the use of tampons and sanitary napkins.
D) Drink additional fluids while menstruating.
E) Take anti-inflammatory medications daily while wearing tampons.
Q2) Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is being discussed with a patient who is scheduled for a total hysterectomy. The patient should be informed she will be at an increased risk for which disorders as a result of HRT?. Select all that apply.
A) Breast cancer
B) Strokes
C) Venous thrombosis
D) Colon cancer
E) Heart attack
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 55-year-old patient who has a history of angina and is being treated with nitroglycerine asks for a prescription to aid with erectile dysfunction. Which nursing intervention is indicated?
A) Explain why the erectile dysfunction medication is not a good idea with the heart medication.
B) Provide education about the medication once the prescription is provided.
C) Remind the patient to stop taking the heart medication when planning to take the erectile dysfunction medication.
D) Suggest a behavioral health consult to analyze the reason for the erectile dysfunction.
Q2) A patient seen in the emergency department for priapism is sent to the medical unit. The admitting nurse should anticipate performing which actions as part of the nursing care plan?. Select all that apply.
A) Assess the penis for color changes.
B) Assess the penis for firmness and rigidity.
C) Administer an analgesic as prescribed for pain.
D) Apply ice packs as prescribed.
E) Push oral fluids.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Laboratory results indicate that a patient's Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test is positive. What intervention does the nurse anticipate?
A) Surgery to evacuate an ectopic pregnancy
B) Pap smear
C) Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test
D) Abdominal CT
Q2) A male patient is "relieved" to learn that he has a sexually transmitted infection (STI) and is not HIV positive. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
A) "Having a sexually transmitted infection does predispose the body to infection with HIV if exposed to the virus."
B) "You are lucky."
C) "I told you not to be concerned."
D) "You would know if you had HIV."
Q3) A patient who is positive for syphilis is allergic to penicillin and is being treated with tetracycline for 28 days. The health care provider orders tetracycline 500 mg to be taken every 6 hours. The prescription is filled with 250 mg tablets. How many tablets will the patient need to take every day to achieve the ordered dosing?
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Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient is scheduled for a stereotactic needle biopsy of a left breast lesion. What information should the nurse provide about this test?
A) This is a three-dimensional mammogram in which a fine-needle aspirate of the mass is taken.
B) This is the gold standard for diagnosis in which a small cut is made in the breast under intravenous sedation.
C) A needle will be inserted into the lesion, guided by ultrasound, and the contents aspirated.
D) The entire lesion is removed along with some of the surrounding tissue.
Q2) A patient who has just been diagnosed with a fibroadenoma in her left breast begins to cry. What information should the nurse provide?. Select all that apply.
A) Fibroadenomas are a nonproliferative type of tumor.
B) The next treatment step will be biopsy.
C) This tumor is caused by normal hormonal fluctuations.
D) The patient will need regular mammograms and other breast screening exams.
E) Fibroadenomas are fluid-filled cysts that may rupture.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which information should the nurse provide for a patient scheduled for an MRI procedure as part of endocrine assessment?. Select all that apply.
A) "You will need to take out your earrings when you get in the MRI suite."
B) "I will remove your transdermal medication patch before you go to the MRI suite."
C) "Be certain to report any permanent cosmetic or other tattoos to the MRI technologist before you enter the MRI suite."
D) "I will help you remove your dentures before you go to the MRI suite."
E) "We will tape over the top of your wedding ring so that you can wear it during the procedure."
Q2) A patient presents to the emergency department with reports of suddenly feeling exhausted. The patient reports loss of appetite, inability to sleep, and weight gain of 5 pounds over the last week. Which finding would the nurse evaluate as being least suggestive of an endocrine disorder?
A) Weight gain
B) Inability to sleep.
C) Sudden exhaustion
D) Loss of appetite
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which interventions would the nurse plan to address the nursing diagnosis Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity for a patient with hypothyroidism?. Select all that apply.
A) Wash daily with antibacterial soap.
B) Apply emollient skin lotion liberally at least twice daily.
C) Use astringent wipes to reduce itching.
D) Assess the need for an alternating air mattress daily.
E) Clean areas between skin folds with alcohol to prevent a yeast infection.
Q2) During a routine physical, a 30-year-old patient remarks, "I had to buy all new shoes because my feet are growing again." How should the nurse reply?
A) "Have you noticed any changes in your hands?"
B) "That is not too bad a problem to have."
C) "We should measure your height."
D) "Have you noticed your heart beating faster?"
Q3) Which clinic patient would the nurse monitor for development of Cushing syndrome?
A) A patient who received radioactive iodine treatment for hyperthyroidism
B) A patient receiving steroid treatment for rheumatoid arthritis
C) A patient who has had surgery on the neck
D) A patient receiving radiation for a brain tumor
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing dietary instruction to a patient diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. The nurse includes information on how to reduce dietary intake of cholesterol to no more than _______ mg per day.
Q2) At a community health screening for blood glucose testing, the nurse would expect which person to have the highest risk for having type 2 diabetes?
A) A 30-year-old Caucasian patient who recently had a baby
B) A patient who lives in a nearby rural farming town
C) A patient following a high-protein diet
D) A 40-year-old with weight centered in the abdomen
Q3) Which information should the nurse include when teaching a patient about fasting blood glucose level testing?
A) "Your test is scheduled for 6:00 a.m., so do not eat or drink anything after midnight."
B) "After the sample is drawn you will be asked to drink a sweet liquid."
C) "This test will indicate your average blood sugar over the last 2 months."
D) "The fasting glucose must be 100 or under to be normal."
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Q1) The nurse plans to use a goniometer during assessment of a patient's musculoskeletal system. Which technique should the nurse use?. Select all that apply.
A) Document the angle of the joint in range of degrees.
B) Place the fulcrum of the goniometer on the joint.
C) Place the movable arm of the goniometer on the stationary part of the joint.
D) Place the stationary arm of the goniometer on the part of the limb that will not move.
E) Move the patient's arm through the normal full range of motion.
Q2) A patient tells the nurse that he has damaged cartilage in his knee. How should the nurse respond to this information?
A) "It will take a few months for the damage to heal."
B) "That is considered a strain and will heal itself in a few weeks."
C) "Exercise will increase the healing time for the cartilage."
D) "Did the doctor talk with you about treatment options?"
Q3) The nurse determines that a patient's shoulder muscle strength is normal when it is graded as _______ or better.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who emigrated from a Third World country has just delivered a baby. The woman says, "In my country, many babies die from polio. I want my baby immunized as soon as possible." The nurse responds, "Your baby will receive the first polio immunization at age _______ months.
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with fibromyalgia. Which statement would indicate that the patient understands the nurse's instruction about the disease?
A) "This disease should run its course in about 18 months."
B) "Because my muscles are so painful, I should avoid exercise."
C) "Following a very low-fat diet has been proven to reduce the symptoms of fibromyalgia."
D) "I need to work on reducing my anxiety about things I cannot control."
Q3) A patient states, "I am in such pain. Do you think I might have fibromyalgia?" Which response by the nurse is indicated?
A) "Have you been in pain over 2 months?"
B) "You must stop smoking before a diagnosis of fibromyalgia can be made."
C) "Have you considered having the blood test for fibromyalgia?"
D) "In which areas do you have pain?"
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assessment of a patient postarthroplasty reveals tachypnea, air hunger, hypoxia, O<sub>2</sub> sat of 86%, declining mental status, and petechiae. What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Apply oxygen at 3 to 4 liters /minute.
B) Call a code for potential cardiac arrest.
C) Prepare the patient for immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation with PEEP.
D) Raise the head of the bed (HOB) and encourage coughing every hour.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a grade II open fracture of the humerus. The nurse plans care for this patient based on which understanding?. Select all that apply.
A) Some crushing of the bone has occurred.
B) Major vascular reconstruction will be required.
C) There is a moderately high risk for developing an infection.
D) The patient has an "inside-out" fracture.
E) An inspection and debridement (I&D) procedure will be required.
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Questions
Q1) The nurse has completed a health assessment, physical examination, and interview with a patient. Which assessment data would support a diagnosis of reactive arthritis?. Select all that apply.
A) The conjunctiva of the right eye is reddened, with a thin, watery drainage.
B) The patient reports increased urine output.
C) The patient reports having "food poisoning" 12 days ago.
D) The patient reports pain in both knees.
E) The patient's right ankle is swollen only on the medial side.
Q2) A patient has been admitted for treatment of early-stage Lyme disease. The nurse would assess for which findings usually associated with this stage of the illness?. Select all that apply.
A) Stiff neck
B) Forgetfulness
C) "Bull's-eye" rash
D) Painful urination
E) Poor motor balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Review of a patient's medical record reveals the presence of petechiae. How would the nurse interpret this information?. Select all that apply.
A) The patient will have a maculopapular rash that extends over at least 30% of the body.
B) The patient has sustained damage to capillary blood vessels.
C) The patient has sustained bruising trauma.
D) The patient will have small purple or red spots.
E) The patient probably has an infection distal to the point where the petechiae begin.
Q2) A patient tells the nurse that she washes her hands many times throughout the day because she wants to kill all the germs before she provides care to her small children. What is the nurse's best response to this patient?
A) "That's a good thing, because hand washing kills all bacteria."
B) "Make sure you use an antibiotic ointment on areas of skin breakdown."
C) "Bacteria are always present on the skin, and too much hand washing could lead to skin breakdown."
D) "When you have young children, there's no such thing as washing your hands too much."
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Q1) A patient diagnosed with HIV/AIDS weighed 180 pounds when diagnosed. The patient has had intermittent fever, diarrhea, and anorexia for the last 30 days. The nurse would be concerned that HIV wasting is occurring if the patient has lost more than _______ pounds.
Q2) A patient is suspected of having an allergic reaction to certain laundry detergents. The nurse recognizes that which diagnostic test result would best confirm a hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Rh antigen with negative results
B) Eosinophils of 2% of the total WBC
C) Prick test with 3 mm erythema
D) Indirect Coombs' showing no agglutination
Q3) Which statement by a patient who has HIV would the nurse evaluate as indicating additional health care teaching is necessary?
A) "I will use an oil-based lubricant when I use condoms."
B) "I know I should not donate blood anymore."
C) "I know I have to assume responsibility when I have sex."
D) "I will not share my toothbrush or razor with my partner."
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would identify which patients as being at increased risk for development of sepsis and septic shock?. Select all that apply.
A) A patient admitted from a nursing home for treatment of a stage 4 pressure ulcer
B) A patient with a ruptured viscus who is vomiting bright red blood
C) A patient who takes methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis
D) A patient who sustained blunt trauma to the spinal cord
E) A patient being treated for aplastic anemia
Q2) The nurse will plan which interventions to reduce metabolic demands in a patient with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?
A) Provide skin care and positioning to prevent breakdown.
B) Use meticulous hand hygiene and aseptic technique for procedures.
C) Place the patient on a high-fat diet to increase energy.
D) Administer antipyretics for fever
Q3) A patient was admitted directly from a physician's office with suspected sepsis. The nurse contacts the pharmacy with the medication orders immediately because the antibiotic must be administered within _______ minutes of admission.
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Q1) A differential blood count has been ordered on a patient being admitted for surgery. How would the nurse explain the purpose of this test?
A) "This test will measure your clotting ability before you are taken to surgery."
B) "This test measures the total number of white blood cells."
C) "This test assesses whether you have responded to the blood transfusion you received last week."
D) "This test measures percentages of the different white blood cells to help us determine if you have an infection."
Q2) A patient's laboratory values indicate a "shift to the left." The nurse would anticipate further testing for which possible conditions?. Select all that apply.
A) Bone marrow disease
B) Undetected infection
C) Presence of foreign cells in the bone marrow
D) Immune system insufficiencies
E) Expected response to immunosuppressive therapies
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Q1) A middle-aged female is experiencing numbness and tingling in her lower extremities as well as difficulty ambulating. The patient's recent complete blood count indicates large, oval-shaped red blood cells with thin membranes. Which therapy would the nurse anticipate discussing in the discharge plan?
A) A diet high in green, leafy vegetables, broccoli, wheat germ, and asparagus
B) A daily multivitamin with extra iron
C) Subcutaneous injections of erythropoietin for a few weeks
D) Lifelong intramuscular parenteral injections of vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
Q2) A patient has been admitted for treatment of hemolytic anemia. Which assessment findings would the nurse immediately discuss with the health care provider?. Select all that apply.
A) Decreased amounts of very dark urine
B) Jaundice
C) Bradycardia
D) Liver palpated below the right costal margin
E) Itching
Q3) A patient has lost 800 mL of blood during surgery. The nurse calculates that the patient has lost _______ mg of iron.
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Q1) A 20-year-old college student is diagnosed with Epstein-Barr virus. The student has a history of smoking and alcohol use and works part-time as a manual laborer for a floor refinishing company. Which factors increase the student's risk of developing cancer?. Select all that apply.
A) Alcohol use
B) Occupation
C) Smoking
D) Viral infection
E) Age
Q2) A patient diagnosed with cancer and scheduled to begin biotherapy asks the nurse how the therapy will treat the cancer. How should the nurse respond?
A) "It changes the body processes that caused the cancer by enhancing your own immunity."
B) "It uses radiation implanted into the cancerous organ."
C) "It uses laser therapy to remove the cancer."
D) "It causes the blood flow to the tumor to be interrupted."
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Q1) The nurse discovers a vascular lesion on a patient's chest. What should the nurse check to help determine if the lesion is petechiae or telangiectasia?
A) Is the lesion scaly?
B) Is the lesion raised?
C) Does the lesion blanch?
D) Is the lesion painful?
Q2) While recording the health history, the nurse learns that a patient has worked at a landfill for the last 35 years. Why is this information important?
A) It reflects the patient's level of education.
B) The patient has had possible exposure to environmental toxins.
C) Patients who work out of doors are more likely to develop skin cancer.
D) The patient probably also uses tobacco.
Q3) While palpating the nail bed of an African American patient, the nurse notes that the nails have linear bands along the nail edge. How would the nurse evaluate this finding?
A) It likely indicates a nutritional deficiency.
B) This is a common finding in dark-skinned individuals.
C) Additional areas should be assessed for cyanosis.
D) The patient has a fungal infection of the nail bed.
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Q1) A child has been diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. How should the nurse describe the disorder to the parents?. Select all that apply.
A) This disorder is also called eczema.
B) There may be others in the family with this disorder.
C) A course of antibiotics will cure this disorder.
D) Children often outgrow this disorder.
E) Something in the child's environment may be causing this skin reaction.
Q2) Inspection of a patient's skin reveals the presence of an irregularly shaped brown patch covered with hair. The patch is palm-sized and is located on the patient's shoulder. The nurse anticipates which diagnosis of this finding?
A) Intradermal nevus
B) Halo nevus
C) Becker's nevus
D) Junctional nevus
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Q1) A nurse assesses that the periwound area of a patient's large abdominal wound is macerated. What change in nursing management will be required because of the maceration?
A) Apply a petroleum-based product to the periwound area.
B) Keep the moist dressing off the periwound area.
C) No new measures are necessary, as this is a normal finding.
D) Apply a separate moist dressing to the periwound area.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with a large wound on the right hip. What nursing measure is the most essential for the patient?
A) Keep the patient on continuous bed rest.
B) Encourage the patient to sit up in a chair as much as possible through the day.
C) Turn the patient from side to side every 2 hours.
D) Keep the patient's weight off the right side.
Q3) A patient has a wound that has tunneling. What dressing technique should the nurse use?
A) Loosely pack several large pieces of dry fluffy gauze into the tunnel.
B) Pack the area with moist squares of gauze to fill the dead space.
C) Use a continuous strip of gauze to pack the tunnel.
D) Leave the space in the tunnel open for drainage.
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Q1) A patient is severely burned over the neck, chest, both arms, and both legs. How should the nurse facilitate fluid resuscitation of this patient?
A) Defer placement of an IV line until the physician can place a central line.
B) Carefully assess the arms and legs for nonburned venous access.
C) Start a small-bore IV catheter in a nonburned area of the hand.
D) Start large-bore IV catheters through burned areas.
Q2) A patient has sustained a moderate burn injury and requires pain management. Which medication prescription should the emergency department nurse implement?
A) Morphine sulfate 4 mg IV every 2 hours
B) Fentanyl 50 mcg IM every 2 hours
C) Codeine 30 mg PO every 3 hours
D) Ibuprofen 800 mg PO every 6 hours
Q3) Which intervention should the nurse plan for a patient who has a sheet skin graft covering a burn on the forearm?
A) Scrub the graft site with mild soap and water twice daily.
B) Perform range-of-motion exercises twice each shift.
C) Use aseptic technique for all contact with the graft.
D) Lift the edges of the graft twice each shift to allow fluid to escape.
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Q1) The nurse notes that the cerumen (earwax) in a patient's ear may indicate an infection. The nurse makes that assessment because of which characteristic of the cerumen?
A) It is nearly absent.
B) It is hardened, dry, and foul-smelling.
C) It is brown, wet, and sticky.
D) It is dry, white, and flaky.
Q2) Which patient report would the nurse evaluate as indicating that changes in accommodation are occurring?
A) "I have noticed that it is more difficult for me to read signs when I am driving."
B) "I have pain behind my eyes."
C) "I have difficulty reading the newspaper."
D) "I get dizzy when watching television."
Q3) Which subjective symptom of the sensory system may also be an objective symptom?
A) Presyncope
B) Vertigo
C) Otalgia
D) Tinnitus

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Q1) A patient experiences an increase in ear pain when the auricle is pulled up and back. The nurse would conduct additional assessment for which condition?
A) Otitis externa
B) Otitis media
C) Labyrinthitis
D) Exostosis
Q2) A patient is admitted with a ruptured tympanic membrane (TM). This may result in a hearing loss due to the disruption of which function of the TM?
A) Separating the outer and inner ear
B) Vibrating with sound waves
C) Covering the eustachian tube
D) Covering the mastoid process
Q3) Which nursing diagnosis is a priority for a patient with severe symptoms of tinnitus, vertigo, sensorineural hearing deficit, nausea, and vomiting?
A) Disturbed Sensory Perception
B) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements
C) Ineffective Individual Coping
D) Disturbed Sleep Patterns
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Q1) The nurse is admitting a patient for laser photocoagulation treatment of diabetic retinopathy. The nurse would immediately contact the health care provider if the patient's diastolic blood pressure is above _______ mmHg.
Q2) A 63-year-old African woman is seen in the clinic for an eye examination. The woman has diabetes, smokes a pack of cigarettes a day, and drinks "a pot" of coffee each day. The nurse identifies which findings from this history as increasing the patient's risk of glaucoma?. Select all that apply.
A) Ethnic origin
B) Age
C) Caffeine intake
D) Comorbidity
E) Smoking
Q3) A patient with dry macular degeneration is being treated conservatively with dietary management. Which foods in particular should the nurse encourage the patient to include in the daily diet?
A) Salad made with dark-green leafy vegetables
B) Lean proteins
C) Baked or steamed white potatoes
D) Whole-grain cereal
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Q1) Which information would the nurse expect to be part of an effective initial disaster preparedness plan for a major metropolitan hospital?
A) Expect early notification of the numbers, types, and severities of casualties that can be expected.
B) The most seriously wounded victims can be expected to arrive first.
C) The initial response will be conducted by in-house staff.
D) Triage and decontamination will be conducted in the field before transport.
Q2) The hospital incident command system (HICS) has been activated following a multivehicle accident. Nurses are moving ambulatory patients to one section of the emergency department. These patients will be assigned which START triage category?
A) Yellow
B) Green
C) Black
D) Red
Q3) After an anthrax exposure, the health care provider orders doxycycline 100 mg PO. The label on the bottle of doxycycline oral powder states to reconstitute with sterile water to prepare a concentration of 0.025 g/5 mL. The nurse should prepare to administer ______ mL to the patient.
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Q1) The nurse is discharging a patient from the emergency department. The patient will need to walk with crutches for a sprained ankle. What should the nurse do to ensure that the patient will safely use the crutches at home?
A) Instruct a family member on the use of the crutches and suggest that he or she access the Internet for any questions.
B) Demonstrate the use of the crutches while the patient observes from the wheelchair.
C) Demonstrate the use of the crutches and ask for a return demonstration before discharge.
D) Provide a written handout on the use of crutches.
Q2) Which characteristics of the emergency department (ED) would the nurse cite as causing long waits and overcrowded conditions? Select all that apply.
A) "We are open 24 hours a day and 7 days a week."
B) "So many of our patients don't have any insurance."
C) "We cannot turn people away even if they don't have an emergent condition."
D) "Patients don't want to wait at the doctor's office and they think they can be seen here faster."
E) "We have such a large population of older people in our community."
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Q1) The nurse is teaching a community education class on prevention of neck injury. Which information would the nurse include in this teaching?
A) Be certain the car's headrests are positioned correctly.
B) Wear a helmet when riding a motorcycle.
C) Ride only in the backseat of a car.
D) Disable side curtain airbags
Q2) A patient presents to the emergency department with brisk hemorrhage from a laceration on the lower leg. How should the nurse address the hemorrhage?
A) Tape ABD pads over the wound and reinforce them when they become saturated.
B) Apply direct manual pressure on the wound.
C) Pack ice directly on the wound to cause vasoconstriction.
D) Apply a tourniquet tight enough to stop all the external bleeding.
Q3) A trauma patient is hemorrhaging from multiple gunshot wounds to the lower abdomen. The nurse provides care based on which priority nursing diagnosis (NDX)?
A) Ineffective Breathing related to shallow respirations
B) Fluid Volume Deficit related to effects of decreased renal perfusion
C) Impaired Ventilation related to airway obstruction
D) Ineffective Tissue Perfusion related to hypovolemia
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