
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Clinical Nursing Practice is a foundational course that immerses students in the essential principles and hands-on skills required for effective patient care in a healthcare setting. Emphasizing a holistic approach, the course covers health assessment, patient safety, nursing interventions, and communication techniques, while integrating critical thinking and evidence-based practice. Students will participate in clinical simulations and supervised clinical placements, allowing them to apply theoretical knowledge to real-life scenarios, collaborate with healthcare teams, and develop professional competencies necessary for delivering quality care to diverse patient populations.
Recommended Textbook
Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 9th Edition by Burchum
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
110 Chapters
1446 Verified Questions
1446 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/469

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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient how a medication works to treat an illness. To do this,the nurse will rely on knowledge of which topic?
A) Clinical pharmacology
B) Drug efficacy
C) Pharmacokinetics
D) Pharmacotherapeutics
Answer: D
Q2) A patient tells the nurse that an analgesic he will begin taking may cause drowsiness and will decrease pain up to 4 hours at a time. Based on this understanding of the drug's effects by the patient,the nurse will anticipate which outcome?
A) Decreased chance of having a placebo effect
B) Decreased motivation to take the drug
C) Improved compliance with the drug regimen
D) Increased likelihood of drug overdose
Answer: C
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse consults a drug manual before giving a medication to an 80-year-old patient. The manual states that older-adult patients are at increased risk for hepatic side effects. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Contact the provider to discuss an order for pretreatment laboratory work.
B) Ensure that the drug is given in the correct dose at the correct time to minimize the risk of adverse effects.
C) Notify the provider that this drug is contraindicated for this patient.
D) Request an order to give the medication intravenously so that the drug does not pass through the liver.
Answer: A
Q2) A nurse is reviewing a patient's medical record before administering a medication. Which factors can alter the patient's physiologic response to the drug? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ability to swallow pills
B) Age
C) Genetic factors
D) Gender
E) Height
Answer: B,C,D
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse about pharmaceutical research and wants to know the purpose of randomization in drug trials. The nurse explains that randomization is used to do what?
A) To ensure that differences in outcomes are the result of treatment and not differences in subjects
B) To compare the outcome caused by the treatment to the outcome caused by no treatment
C) To make sure that researchers are unaware of which subjects are in which group
D) To prevent subjects from knowing which group they are in and prevent preconception bias
Answer: A
Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?
A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.
B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.
C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.
D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adult male patient is 1 day postoperative from a total hip replacement. On a pain scale of 0 to 10,with 10 being the greatest pain,the patient reports a pain level of 10. Which medication would be most appropriate for the nurse to administer to this patient?
A) 60 mg morphine sulfate PO
B) 75 mg meperidine [Demerol] intramuscularly
C) 6 mg morphine sulfate intravenously
D) Fentanyl [Duragesic] patch 50 mcg transdermally
Q2) A patient tells the nurse that the oral drug that has been prescribed has caused a lot of stomach discomfort in the past. What will the nurse ask the prescriber?
A) Whether a sublingual form of the medication can be given
B) Whether the medication can be given by a parenteral route instead
C) Whether an enteric-coated form of the drug is available
D) Whether the patient can receive a sustained-release preparation of the drug
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What occurs when a drug binds to a receptor in the body?
A) It alters the receptor to become nonresponsive to its usual endogenous molecules.
B) It increases or decreases the activity of that receptor.
C) It gives the receptor a new function.
D) It prevents the action of the receptor by altering its response to chemical mediators.
Q2) A patient reports becoming "immune" to a medication because it no longer works to alleviate symptoms. The nurse recognizes that this decreased effectiveness is likely caused by:
A) antagonists produced by the body that compete with the drug for receptor sites.
B) decreased selectivity of receptor sites, resulting in a variety of effects.
C) desensitization of receptor sites by continual exposure to the drug.
D) synthesis of more receptor sites in response to the medication.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient about a drug that induces P-glycoprotein. The nurse will explain that this drug may cause which effect on other drugs?
A) Decreased absorption in the intestines
B) Decreased elimination through the kidneys
C) Increased brain exposure
D) Increased fetal absorption
Q2) The nurse is providing multiple medications to a patient whose spouse brings grapefruit juice every morning. The nurse will be concerned about which classes of drugs? (Select all that apply.)
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
C) Aminoglycosides
D) Beta blockers
E) Penicillins
Q3) Which statement about food and drug interactions is true?
A) Foods alter drug absorption and metabolism but not drug action.
B) Medications are best absorbed on an empty stomach.
C) Patient discomfort is the food and drug interaction of most concern.
D) Some foods can inhibit CYP isoenzymes and alter drug metabolism.
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Page 8
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13 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is given a new medication and reports nausea within an hour after taking the drug. The nurse consults the drug information manual and learns that nausea is not an expected adverse effect of this drug. When the next dose is due,what will the nurse do?
A) Administer the drug and tell the patient to report further nausea.
B) Hold the drug and notify the provider of the patient's symptoms.
C) Report the symptoms of nausea to the MEDWATCH program.
D) Request an order for an antiemetic to counter this drug's effects.
Q2) A nurse is preparing to give an antibiotic to a patient who reports being allergic to antibiotics. Before giving the medication,what will the nurse do first?
A) Ask whether the patient has taken this antibiotic for other infections
B) Question the patient about allergies to other medications
C) Request an order for a lower dose of the antibiotic
D) Request an order for an antihistamine
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a newly admitted older patient who has recently lost 15 pounds. The nurse notes that the patient is taking warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory tests will the nurse discuss with this patient's provider?
A) Blood glucose and C-reactive protein
B) Complete blood count and hepatic function tests
C) Renal function tests and serum electrolytes
D) Serum albumin and coagulation studies
Q2) A patient asks a nurse why a friend who is taking the same drug responds differently to that drug. The nurse knows that the most common variation in drug response is due to differences in each patient's:
A) drug receptor sites.
B) hypersensitivity potential.
C) metabolism of drugs.
D) psychosocial response.
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Q1) A patient in her second trimester of pregnancy tells the nurse she is worried that a medication she took before knowing she was pregnant might have harmed the fetus. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient what she took and when she learned she was pregnant.
B) Contact the patient's provider to request an ultrasound.
C) Counsel the patient to consider termination of the pregnancy.
D) Suggest to the patient that she go to a high-risk pregnancy center.
Q2) A pregnant patient in active labor is admitted to the emergency department. A toxicology screen and a physical assessment reveal that the patient is an active heroin addict. The nurse who cares for the neonate after delivery should anticipate which clinical manifestations?
A) Passivity and flat affect
B) Diarrhea and salivation
C) A shrill cry and irritability
D) Restless sleep and seizures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching nursing students about pediatric medication administration. What will the nurse include when discussing pediatric drug research?
A) Early studies revealed that less than 10% of drugs known to be effective in adults were effective in children.
B) Research findings show that drug doses may be safely calculated by extrapolating adult dosing.
C) Studies showed a significant percentage of unanticipated and potentially lethal side effects in children.
D) There is no need to continue with pediatric-specific drug research, since early studies were reassuring.
Q2) A child will receive 750 mg of an antibiotic for 10 days. The child attends day care. The drug may be dosed in several ways and is available in two concentrations. Which dosing regimen will the nurse discuss with the child's provider?
A) 250 mg/5 mL-375 mg PO twice daily
B) 250 mg/5 mL-250 mg PO three times daily
C) 500 mg/5 mL-250 mg PO three times daily
D) 500 mg/5 mL-375 mg PO twice daily
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for an older adult patient during the immediate postoperative period after a total hip replacement. The surgeon has ordered meperidine [Demerol] for severe pain. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the medication as prescribed and initiate a fall risk protocol.
B) Ask for a PRN order for diphenhydramine [Benadryl] for the expected side effect of itching.
C) Request an order for morphine instead of meperidine [Demerol].
D) Suggest to the surgeon that the patient receive diazepam [Valium] to reduce anxiety and the need for narcotics.
Q2) A nurse is making a home visit to an older adult woman who was recently discharged home from the hospital with a new prescription. The nurse notes that a serum drug level drawn the day before was subtherapeutic. What will the nurse do next?
A) Ask the patient if she has difficulty swallowing pills.
B) Count the pills in the prescription bottle.
C) Notify the provider to request more frequent dosing.
D) Request an order for renal function tests.
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13
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse learns about a drug that interferes with transmitter storage in the PNS. The transmitter affected by this drug causes an increased heart rate. What response will the nurse expect to see when this drug is administered?
A) Bradycardia
B) Positive inotropic effects
C) Prolonged receptor activation
D) Tachycardia
Q2) A nurse is administering drug X to a patient. The drug information states that the drug acts by activating receptors in the peripheral nervous system by increasing transmitter synthesis. The nurse understands that the effect of this drug is to:
A) activate axonal conduction.
B) enhance transmitter storage.
C) increase receptor activation.
D) synthesize supertransmitters.
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14
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient about a medication that alters sympathetic nervous system functions. To evaluate understanding,the nurse asks the patient to describe which functions the sympathetic nervous system regulates. Which answer indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "The digestive functions of the body"
B) "The cardiovascular system"
C) "The fight-or-flight response"
D) "Body temperature"
Q2) A patient is wheezing and short of breath. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 88 beats per minute,a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute,and a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg. The prescriber orders a nonspecific beta agonist medication. Besides evaluating the patient for a reduction in respiratory distress,the nurse will monitor for which side effect?
A) Hypotension
B) Tachycardia
C) Tachypnea
D) Urinary retention
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15
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient received atropine intravenously before surgery. The recovery room nurse notes that the patient is delirious upon awakening and has a heart rate of 96 beats per minute,a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute,and a blood pressure of 110/78 mm Hg. The nurse notifies the anesthesiologist,who will order:
A) activated charcoal to minimize intestinal absorption of the antimuscarinic agent.
B) an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor to compete with the antimuscarinic agent at receptors.
C) an antipsychotic medication to treat the patient's central nervous system symptoms.
D) ipratropium bromide [Atrovent] to counter the respiratory effects of the antimuscarinic agent.
Q2) Bethanechol [Urecholine] is used to treat urinary retention but is being investigated for use in which other condition?
A) Gastric ulcers
B) Gastroesophageal reflux
C) Hypotension
D) Intestinal obstruction
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16
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse working in the emergency department is assigned to a child who is arriving by ambulance after being involved in a spill of organophosphate insecticides. What will the nurse expect to be the initial priority for treating this child?
A) Administering diphenhydramine to control secretions
B) Giving diazepam to control seizures
C) Providing mechanical ventilation and oxygen
D) Reporting the spill to the Environmental Protection Agency
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient who is newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis about managing the disease. Which is important when teaching this patient about adverse effects of cholinesterase inhibitors?
A) "There are very few serious side effects associated with your medication."
B) "It is important to notify your provider if you have excessive saliva."
C) "If you experience urinary urgency, you may need to increase your dose."
D) "Excessive sweating is a minor side effect and will improve over time."
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17
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Q1) While preparing a patient for a second esophageal dilation procedure,the nurse explains that succinylcholine [Anectine] will be used for muscle relaxation. The patient is anxious and reports not being able to swallow for several hours after the previous procedure. What will the nurse do?
A) Be prepared to provide mechanical ventilation after the procedure.
B) Have dantrolene available, because this patient is at increased risk for side effects.
C) Reassure the patient that this is expected after neuromuscular blockade.
D) Request an order for a pseudocholinesterase level.
Q2) A patient with hepatitis requires endotracheal intubation. Which agent does the nurse expect to be administered to facilitate this procedure?
A) Atropine
B) Cisatracurium [Nimbex]
C) Rocuronium [Zemuron]
D) Vecuronium [Norcuron]
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18
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because they cause vasoconstriction,alpha<sub>1</sub>-adrenergic agonists are especially useful for:
A) causing hemostasis in skin and mucous membranes.
B) producing mydriasis to facilitate ophthalmic examinations.
C) slowing the heart rate in tachycardic patients.
D) treating hypotension.
Q2) A patient is receiving dobutamine [Dobutrex] as a continuous infusion in the immediate postoperative period. The patient also is receiving a diuretic. What adverse drug reactions are possible in this patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Angina
B) Dysrhythmias
C) Hypotension
D) Oliguria
E) Tachycardia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin taking propranolol [Inderal] for hypertension. Which statement by the nurse is important when teaching this patient about the medication?
A) "Check your hands and feet for swelling and report that to your provider."
B) "It is safe to take this medication with a calcium channel blocker."
C) "Stop taking the drug if you become short of breath."
D) "Take your pulse and do not take the medication if your heart rate is fast."
Q2) A nurse is caring for a newborn 1 day after delivery. The infant's mother used betaxolol during pregnancy. The nurse will expect to monitor this infant for which condition?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Respiratory distress
D) Tachycardia
Q3) Which are adverse effects of alpha blockade? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hypertension
B) Reflex tachycardia
C) Nasal congestion
D) Ejaculation
E) Hypernatremia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A prescriber orders transdermal clonidine [Catapres TTS] for a patient with hypertension. What will the nurse teach this patient?
A) That medication given by transdermal patch has fewer systemic side effects
B) That localized skin reactions are uncommon
C) To apply the patch to intact skin on the forearm or leg
D) To change the patch every week
Q2) A patient with hypertension has a previous history of opioid dependence. Which medication would the nurse question?
A) Clonidine [Catapres]
B) Guanabenz [Wytensin]
C) Methyldopa
D) Reserpine [Serpasil]
Q3) A prescriber orders clonidine [Kapvay] ER tablets for a 12-year-old child. The nurse understands that this drug is being given to treat which condition?
A) ADHD
B) Hypertension
C) Severe pain
D) Tourette's syndrome
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8 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks a nurse to explain what drug tolerance means. The nurse responds by telling the patient that when tolerance occurs,it means the patient:
A) has developed a psychologic dependence on the drug.
B) may need increased amounts of the drug over time.
C) will cause an abstinence syndrome if the drug is discontinued abruptly.
D) will have increased sensitivity to drug side effects.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students how the CNS adapts to psychotherapeutic medications. Which statement by a nursing student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Adaptation can lead to tolerance of these drugs with prolonged use."
B) "Adaptation helps explain how physical dependence occurs."
C) "Adaptation often must occur before therapeutic effects develop."
D) "Adaptation results in an increased sensitivity to side effects over time."
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22
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse provides teaching for a patient who will begin taking rotigotine [Neupro] to treat Parkinson's disease. What will the nurse include in teaching?
A) "If you develop nausea and vomiting, you should stop taking the medication."
B) "If you need to stop this drug, your provider will order a gradual withdrawal."
C) "You will start this drug regimen with a higher than usual loading dose."
D) "You will take this medication by mouth with food."
Q2) A patient who is newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa [Dopar]. The patient asks the nurse about drugs to prevent disease progression. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) "Levodopa may prevent disease progression in higher doses and is safe to use for this purpose."
B) "MAO-B inhibitors and dopamine agonists have both shown neuroprotective effects in human studies."
C) "Vitamin E has been shown to delay neuron degeneration and may be used as adjunctive therapy."
D) "While some drugs show promise, there are no studies that have proven a neuroprotective effect."
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Page 23
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for an older adult man who has Alzheimer's disease (AD). The patient's daughter wants to know if testing can be done to determine her risk for developing the disease. What will the nurse tell her?
A) Female gender is known to increase the risk.
B) Genetic testing can provide a definitive measure of the risk.
C) Patients with the apolipoprotein E2 gene (apoE2) are more likely to develop the disease.
D) Advancing age and family history are known risk factors.
Q2) A patient is worried about the risk of developing Alzheimer's disease,because both parents had the disease. The nurse will tell this patient that known risk factors include what? (Select all that apply.)
A) Advanced age
B) Alcoholism
C) Family history
D) Gender
E) Obesity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides teaching for a 25-year-old patient who will receive mitoxantrone [Novantrone] for worsening relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I may experience cardiac side effects several years after receiving this drug."
B) "I should report fever, chills, cough, and hoarseness immediately."
C) "I will need an infusion of this medication once weekly."
D) "I will need a liver function test and a pregnancy test before each dose."
Q2) A patient has been newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS),and the nurse provides teaching about the medications for the disease. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I may need to take additional drugs at times of acute relapse."
B) "I will need to take medication indefinitely."
C) "If medication is begun early, permanent remission can be achieved."
D) "Some symptoms may need to be managed with symptom-specific drugs."
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is providing teaching to a patient newly diagnosed with partial seizures who will begin taking oxcarbazepine [Trileptal]. The patient also takes furosemide [Lasix] and digoxin [Lanoxin]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I may need to increase my dose of Trileptal while taking these medications."
B) "I may develop a rash and itching, but these are not considered serious."
C) "I should report any nausea, drowsiness, and headache to my provider."
D) "I should use salt substitutes instead of real salt while taking these drugs."
Q2) A patient who has a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital after an increase in seizure frequency,and the prescriber orders carbamazepine [Tegretol] 100 mg twice daily to be added to the patient's medication regimen. The nurse reviewing the patient's medical history notes that the patient is already taking lamotrigine [Lamictal] 375 mg
twice daily. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss which action?
A) Reducing the carbamazepine dose to 50 mg twice daily
B) Reducing the lamotrigine dose to 225 mg twice daily
C) Increasing the carbamazepine dose to 200 mg twice daily
D) Increasing the lamotrigine dose to 500 mg twice daily
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with cerebral palsy has severe muscle spasticity and muscle weakness. The patient is unable to take anything by mouth. The nurse is correct to anticipate that which medication will be ordered for home therapy?
A) Baclofen [Lioresal]
B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]
C) Diazepam [Valium]
D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]
Q2) Which patient should receive dantrolene [Dantrium] with caution?
A) A 20-year-old woman with a spinal cord injury
B) A 45-year-old man with a history of malignant hyperthermia
C) A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis
D) An 8-year-old child with cerebral palsy
Q3) A nurse is teaching the parent of a child with spastic quadriplegia about intrathecal baclofen [Lioresal]. Which statement by the parent indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I can expect my child to be more drowsy when receiving this medication."
B) "I should not notice any change in my child's muscle strength."
C) "I will contact the provider if my child is constipated or cannot urinate."
D) "If my child has a seizure, I should stop giving the medication immediately."
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about local anesthetics. Which statement by a student reflects an understanding of the teaching?
A) "Local anesthetics affect large myelinated neurons first."
B) "Local anesthetics affect motor and sensory nerves."
C) "Local anesthetics do not block temperature perception."
D) "Local anesthetics do not cause systemic effects."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who has a second-degree burn on one arm about the use of a topical anesthetic for pain. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I will apply a thin layer of the medication to a small area of skin."
B) "I will cover the burn with a dressing after applying the medication."
C) "I will make sure to apply the medication to the entire burn area."
D) "I will use the medication only on the most painful, blistered areas."
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Sample Questions
Q1) A surgical patient is receiving succinylcholine [Anectine] with an inhalation anesthetic. The patient is intubated,has an indwelling urinary catheter,and has ongoing monitoring of vital signs. Which symptom during the perioperative period is cause for concern?
A) Elevated temperature
B) Increased urine output
C) Muscle paralysis
D) No response to painful stimuli
Q2) The nurse cares for patients who receive propofol extended [Diprivan]. What are important nursing considerations for these patients? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ensuring that respiratory support equipment is readily available
B) Maintaining the rate of intravenous infusion at 6 mg/kg/hr
C) Refrigerating open vials of the drug up to 24 hours
D) Stopping the infusion if a patient's CPK is greater than 5000 units/L
E) Using a local anesthetic at the IV site prior to infusing the drug
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking methadone [Dolophine] for 5 months to overcome an opioid addiction. The nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following electrocardiographic changes?
A) Prolonged QT interval
B) Prolonged P-R interval
C) AV block
D) An elevated QRS complex
Q2) A patient with cancer has been taking an opioid analgesic four times daily for several months and reports needing increased doses for pain. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) PRN dosing of the drug may be more effective.
B) The risk of respiratory depression increases over time.
C) The patient should discuss increasing the dose with the provider.
D) The patient should request the addition of a benzodiazepine to augment pain relief.
Q3) A patient who has developed opioid tolerance will experience which effect?
A) Decreased analgesic effect
B) Decreased constipation
C) Increased euphoria
D) Increased respiratory depression

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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8422
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks the nurse why the provider has ordered a combination product containing an opioid analgesic and an NSAID for a patient who has cancer. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "There are decreased effects of NSAIDs on the GI tract when a combination product is used."
B) "There are fewer adverse effects from both drugs when used in a combination product."
C) "There is a decreased likelihood of opioid dependence when it is given in combination with an NSAID."
D) "There is increased pain relief with the combination than when either product is used alone."
Q2) A patient who has had cancer for 1 year uses a fentanyl transdermal patch for pain relief. The patient reports having three or four episodes of pain (which she rates as 8 or 9 on a scale of 1 to 10)each day,and each episode lasts 15 to 30 minutes. The nurse will contact the provider to:
A) discuss the use of an adjuvant analgesic.
B) request an order for an NSAID.
C) request a strong, short-acting opioid PRN.
D) suggest increasing the dose of fentanyl.
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Page 31

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8423
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of numbness in the extremities. The nurse notes that the patient's hands and feet are cool and pale. When conducting a health history,the nurse learns that the patient has a history of migraine headaches. The nurse recognizes this patient's symptoms as:
A) ergotamine withdrawal.
B) ergotism.
C) severe migraine symptoms.
D) sumatriptan side effects.
Q2) A patient on the unit complains of cluster headaches. A new graduate nurse is asked to differentiate between a migraine headache and cluster headaches. The graduate nurse is correct to state that manifestations and/or risk factors for a patient with cluster headaches include what? (Select all that apply.)
A) Female gender
B) Male gender
C) Complaints of nausea and vomiting
D) Short duration (15 minutes to 2 hours)
E) Auras before the onset of headache pain
F) Throbbing, sometimes piercing pain
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8424
Sample Questions
Q1) What are negative symptoms of schizophrenia? (Select all that apply.)
A) Delusions
B) Disordered thinking
C) Poor judgment
D) Poor self-care
E) Poverty of speech
Q2) A parent reports being afraid that a child may have schizophrenia because of disorganized speech and asocial behaviors. The nurse will tell this parent that which of the following must also be present to make a diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)
A) A decrease in self-care, job, or school function
B) A history of substance abuse
C) A 1-month duration of active phase symptoms
D) Continuous signs of disturbance for longer than 6 months
E) The presence of manic episodes
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33
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8425
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with major depression with severe symptoms and begins taking an antidepressant medication. Three weeks after beginning therapy,the patient tells the nurse that the drug is not working. The nurse will counsel this patient to ask the provider about:
A) adding a second medication to complement this drug.
B) changing the medication to one in a different drug class.
C) increasing the dose of this medication.
D) using nondrug therapies to augment the medication.
Q2) A patient has been taking an SSRI antidepressant for major depression and reports having headaches and jaw pain. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) This represents an irreversible extrapyramidal side effect.
B) Discuss discontinuing the antidepressant with the provider.
C) Discuss these symptoms with a dentist.
D) Try stress-relieving methods and relaxation techniques.
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34

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8426
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient recently was diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The patient,who has a history of seasonal allergies,is an athlete who participates in track. The nurse is teaching the patient about lithium [Lithobid],which the prescriber has just ordered. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "I can continue to use ibuprofen as needed for muscle pain."
B) "I should drink extra fluids before and during exercise."
C) "I should not use antihistamines while taking lithium."
D) "I should report muscle weakness and tremors to my provider."
Q2) A patient with bipolar disorder has frequent manic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The prescriber orders risperidone [Risperdal] in addition to the lithium [Lithobid] that the patient is already taking. The patient asks the nurse why another drug is needed. The nurse will tell the patient that the risperidone is used to:
A) elevate mood during depressive episodes.
B) help control symptoms during manic episodes.
C) manage tremors associated with lithium use.
D) prevent recurrence of depressive episodes.
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8427
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in the emergency department is given intravenous diazepam [Valium] for seizures. When the seizures stop,the nurse notes that the patient is lethargic and confused and has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. The nurse will expect to administer which of the following?
A) Flumazenil [Romazicon]
B) Gastric lavage
C) Respiratory support
D) Toxicology testing
Q2) A patient with a new-onset seizure disorder receives a prescription for phenobarbital. The patient reports being concerned about the sedative side effects of this drug. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Phenobarbital doses for seizures are nonsedating."
B) "This is a short-acting barbiturate, so sedation wears off quickly."
C) "Tolerance to the sedative effects will develop in a few weeks."
D) "You may actually experience paradoxical effects of euphoria."
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36

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8428
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been taking alprazolam [Xanax] to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)reports recently stopping the medication after symptoms have improved but reports having feelings of panic and paranoia. Which initial action by the nurse is correct?
A) Ask the patient if the medication was stopped abruptly.
B) Instruct the patient to resume taking the alprazolam.
C) Notify the provider that the patient is experiencing a relapse.
D) Suggest that the patient discuss taking buspirone [Buspar] with the provider.
Q2) A patient who has obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)has been undergoing behavioral therapy but continues to exhibit symptoms that interfere with daily life. Which intervention will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Alprazolam [Xanax]
B) Buspirone [Buspar]
C) Deep brain stimulation
D) Fluoxetine [Paxil]
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8429
Sample Questions
Q1) A child has been taking SD methylphenidate [Ritalin],10 mg at 0800 and 1200 and 5 mg at 1600,for 2 months. The parents tell the nurse that the child sometimes misses the noon dose while at school. The child's appetite is normal. The teacher has reported a slight improvement in hyperactivity and impulsivity. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the prescriber whether this child could be given methylphenidate [Concerta].
B) Contact the prescriber to suggest using a nonstimulant medication.
C) Reinforce the need to take all doses as prescribed.
D) Suggest drug holidays for the child on weekends.
Q2) A patient who is morbidly obese is admitted for treatment. The prescriber orders lisdexamfetamine [Vyvanse]. The nurse will be concerned if this patient shows signs of:
A) anorexia.
B) dyspnea.
C) insomnia.
D) loquaciousness.
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8430
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for four patients. The nurse would be concerned about which patient developing a substance use disorder?
A) A college student who reports having experimented with marijuana in the past year
B) An older adult patient with terminal cancer who requires twice the normal dose of morphine for pain relief
C) A patient in moderate to severe pain after a total hip replacement who asks for pain medication an hour before the next dose is due
D) A patient whose history indicates the use of prescription narcotic analgesics for back and headache pain
Q2) A psychiatric nurse is caring for a drug-addicted patient. The nurse knows that the ideal goal of drug rehabilitation for this patient is:
A) abstinence from the drug.
B) decreasing episodes of relapse.
C) minimizing drug cravings.
D) reduction of drug use.
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8431
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells a nurse that she drinks wine for its cardioprotective effects. She wants to know how much is safe. The nurse is correct in telling her that:
A) "A couple of glasses of wine 1 or 2 days a week will help prevent heart disease."
B) "Abstaining from alcohol completely is the best way to prevent heart disease."
C) "If you drink only on weekends, you will minimize your risk of developing heart disease."
D) "Cardioprotective effects are greatest in people who live an unhealthy lifestyle."
Q2) During a health history,the nurse asks a male patient about alcohol use. The patient tells the nurse that he and his wife are trying to conceive a pregnancy and he is using alcohol to lower his inhibitions. What will the nurse counsel this patient?
A) "Alcohol causes increased masculinization."
B) "Alcohol may cause testicular atrophy and sterility."
C) "Alcohol will improve your chances of conceiving."
D) "Alcohol will also help you to ejaculate."
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8432
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient reports a desire to stop smoking and asks what is available without a prescription to help with smoking cessation. The nurse tells the patient that which method is best?
A) Abrupt discontinuation to shorten withdrawal effects
B) Nicotine replacement and 1-800-QUITNOW
C) Nicotine replacement products tapered over a year
D) Support groups without the use of medications
Q2) A patient who has just found out she is pregnant tells the nurse she wants to quit smoking. She asks about pharmacologic aids to help her quit. The nurse is correct to tell her what?
A) "Nicotine replacement therapy is harmful, but it is safer than smoking, so it can be used."
B) "Psychosocial support is the only recommended treatment for smoking cessation during pregnancy."
C) "Varenicline [Chantix] is safe to use during pregnancy."
D) "You should try to taper off your smoking gradually, because none of the drugs are safe."
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8433
Q1) A pregnant patient reports using marijuana during her pregnancy. She asks the nurse whether this will affect the fetus. What should the nurse tell her?
A) Children born to patients who use marijuana will have smaller brains.
B) Neonates born to patients who use marijuana will have withdrawal syndromes.
C) Preschool-aged children born to patients who use marijuana are more likely to be hyperactive.
D) School-aged children born to patients who use marijuana often have difficulty with memory.
Q2) A provider orders clonidine [Catapres] for a patient withdrawing from opioids. When explaining the rationale for this drug choice,the nurse will tell this patient that clonidine [Catapres] is used to:
A) prevent opioid craving.
B) reduce somnolence and drowsiness.
C) relieve symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
D) stimulate autonomic activity.
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8434
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking digoxin is admitted to the hospital for treatment of congestive heart failure. The prescriber has ordered furosemide [Lasix]. The nurse notes an irregular heart rate of 86 beats per minute,a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute,and a blood pressure of 130/82 mm Hg. The nurse auscultates crackles in both lungs. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern?
A) Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL
B) Oxygen saturation of 90%
C) Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
D) Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
Q2) A patient with chronic congestive heart failure has repeated hospitalizations in spite of ongoing treatment with hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL] and digoxin. The prescriber has ordered spironolactone [Aldactone] to be added to this patient's drug regimen,and the nurse provides education about this medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I can expect improvement within a few hours after taking this drug."
B) "I need to stop taking potassium supplements."
C) "I should use salt substitutes to prevent toxic side effects."
D) "I should watch closely for dehydration."
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8435
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient collapses after running a marathon on a hot day and is brought to the emergency department to be treated for dehydration. The nurse will expect to provide which therapy?
A) Intravenous hypertonic fluids given slowly over several hours
B) Intravenous hypotonic fluids administered in stages
C) Intravenous isotonic fluids given as a rapid bolus
D) Oral electrolyte replacement fluids with potassium
Q2) A nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who has a nasogastric tube with continuous suction. The nurse notes that the patient has shallow respirations and suspects that this patient has developed:
A) metabolic acidosis.
B) metabolic alkalosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) respiratory alkalosis.
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44

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8436
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with hypertension is admitted to the hospital. On admission the patient's heart rate is 72 beats per minute,and the blood pressure is 140/95 mm Hg. After administering an antihypertensive medication,the nurse notes a heart rate of 85 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg. What does the nurse expect to occur?
A) A decrease in the heart rate back to baseline in 1 to 2 days
B) An increase in the blood pressure within a few days
C) An increase in potassium retention in 1 to 2 days
D) A decrease in fluid retention within a week
Q2) A nurse is teaching a nursing student how blood can return to the heart when pressure in the venous capillary beds is very low. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Constriction of small muscles in the venous wall increases venous pressure."
B) "Negative pressure in the left atrium draws blood toward the heart."
C) "Skeletal muscles relax to allow the free flow of blood."
D) "Venous valves help prevent the backflow of blood."
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8437
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been taking an antihypertensive medication for several years is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The prescriber changes the patient's medication to an ACE inhibitor. The patient asks the nurse why a new drug is necessary. What is the nurse's response?
A) "ACE inhibitors can prevent or reverse pathologic changes in the heart's structure."
B) "ACE inhibitors help lower LDL cholesterol and raise HDL cholesterol."
C) "ACE inhibitors increase venous return to the heart, improving cardiac output."
D) "ACE inhibitors regulate electrolytes that affect the cardiac rhythm."
Q2) A patient who is taking furosemide [Lasix] and digoxin will begin taking captopril [Capoten]. The nurse is providing information about the drug. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I can use acetaminophen for analgesia if needed."
B) "I should stop taking the Lasix about a week before starting the Capoten."
C) "I should take this medication on a full stomach."
D) "I will need to have blood tests done every 2 weeks for a few months."
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8438
Sample Questions
Q1) Which are therapeutic uses for verapamil? (Select all that apply.)
A) Angina of effort
B) Cardiac dysrhythmias
C) Essential hypertension
D) Sick sinus syndrome
E) Suppression of preterm labor
Q2) A nurse is preparing to assist a nursing student to administer intravenous verapamil to a patient who also receives a beta blocker. The nurse asks the nursing student to discuss the plan of care for this patient. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will check to see when the last dose of the beta blocker was given."
B) "I will monitor vital signs closely to assess for hypotension."
C) "I will monitor the heart rate frequently to assess for reflex tachycardia."
D) "I will prepare to administer intravenous norepinephrine if necessary."
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8439
Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient with essential hypertension is being treated with hydralazine 25 mg twice daily. The nurse assesses the patient and notes a heart rate of 96 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 110/72 mm Hg. The nurse will request an order to:
A) administer a beta blocker.
B) administer a drug that dilates veins.
C) reduce the dose of hydralazine.
D) give the patient a diuretic.
Q2) Which medications are most likely to cause postural hypotension? (Select all that apply.)
A) Minoxidil
B) Diltiazem [Cardizem]
C) Prazosin [Minipress]
D) Captopril [Capoten]
E) Losartan [Cozaar]
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8440
Sample Questions
Q1) Which two-drug regimen would be appropriate for a patient with hypertension who does not have other compelling conditions?
A) Hydrochlorothiazide and nadolol
B) Hydralazine and minoxidil
C) Spironolactone and amiloride
D) Trichlormethiazide and hydrochlorothiazide
Q2) A patient takes an ACE inhibitor to treat hypertension and tells the nurse that she wants to become pregnant. She asks whether she should continue taking the medication while she is pregnant. What will the nurse tell her?
A) Controlling her blood pressure will decrease her risk of preeclampsia.
B) Ask the provider about changing to an ARB during pregnancy.
C) Continue taking the ACE inhibitor during her pregnancy.
D) Discuss using methyldopa instead while she is pregnant.
Q3) A patient with hypertension will begin taking an alpha<sub>1</sub> blocker. What will the nurse teach this patient?
A) A persistent cough is a known side effect of this drug.
B) Eat foods rich in potassium while taking this drug.
C) Move slowly from sitting to standing when taking this drug.
D) Report shortness of breath while taking this drug.
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Page 49

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8441
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking digoxin [Lanoxin] 0.25 mg,and furosemide [Lasix] 40 mg,daily. Upon routine assessment by the nurse,the patient states,"I see yellow halos around the lights." The nurse should perform which action based on this assessment?
A) Check the patient for other symptoms of digitalis toxicity.
B) Withhold the next dose of furosemide.
C) Continue to monitor the patient for heart failure.
D) Document the findings and reassess in 1 hour.
Q2) An 88-year-old patient with heart failure has progressed to Stage D and is hospitalized for the third time in a month. The nurse will expect to discuss which topic with the patient's family?
A) Antidysrhythmic medications
B) End-of-life care
C) Heart transplantation
D) Implantable mechanical assist devices
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8442
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about dofetilide [Tikosyn] to treat dysrhythmias. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Dofetilide is a first-line medication to treat atrial flutter or atrial fibrillation."
B) "Dofetilide carries a lower risk of causing torsades de pointes than other drugs."
C) "Dofetilide is used for patients with severe symptoms of atrial dysrhythmias."
D) "Dofetilide may be safely used as outpatient therapy to treat atrial fibrillation."
Q2) A prescriber has ordered propranolol [Inderal] for a patient with recurrent ventricular tachycardia. The nurse preparing to administer this drug will be concerned about what in the patient's history?
A) Asthma
B) Exercise-induced tachyarrhythmias
C) Hypertension
D) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia associated with emotion
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8443
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has begun taking an HMG-COA reductase inhibitor. Which statement about this class of drugs made by the nurse during patient education would be inappropriate?
A) "Statins reduce the risk of morbidity from influenza."
B) "You should come into the clinic for liver enzymes in 1 month."
C) "Statins reduce the risk of coronary events in people with normal LDL levels."
D) "You should maintain a healthy lifestyle and avoid high-fat foods."
Q2) A patient who recently started therapy with an HMG-COA reductase inhibitor asks the nurse,"How long will it take until I see an effect on my LDL cholesterol?" The nurse gives which correct answer?
A) "It will take 6 months to see a change."
B) "A reduction usually is seen within 2 weeks."
C) "Blood levels normalize immediately after the drug is started."
D) "Cholesterol will not be affected, but triglycerides will fall within the first week."
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Page 52

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8444
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with stable exertional angina has been receiving a beta blocker. Before giving the drug,the nurse notes a resting heart rate of 55 beats per minute. Which is an appropriate nursing action?
A) Administer the drug as ordered, because this is a desired effect.
B) Withhold the dose and notify the provider of the heart rate.
C) Request an order for a lower dose of the medication.
D) Request an order to change to another antianginal medication.
Q2) A hospitalized patient complains of acute chest pain. The nurse administers a 0.3-mg sublingual nitroglycerin tablet,but the patient continues to complain of pain. Vital signs remain stable. What is the nurse's next step?
A) Apply a nitroglycerin transdermal patch.
B) Continue dosing at 10-minute intervals.
C) Give a second dose of nitroglycerin in 5 minutes.
D) Request an order for intravenous nitroglycerin.
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8445
Sample Questions
Q1) A postoperative patient will begin anticoagulant therapy with rivaroxaban [Xarelto] after knee replacement surgery. The nurse performs a history and learns that the patient is taking erythromycin. The patient's creatinine clearance is 50 mL/min. The nurse will:
A) administer the first dose of rivaroxaban as ordered.
B) notify the provider to discuss changing the patient's antibiotic.
C) request an order for a different anticoagulant medication.
D) request an order to increase the dose of rivaroxaban.
Q2) A patient is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain. An electrocardiogram shows changes consistent with an evolving myocardial infarction. The patient's cardiac enzymes are pending. The nurse caring for this patient will expect to:
A) administer aspirin when cardiac enzymes are completed.
B) give alteplase [Activase] within 2 hours.
C) give tenecteplase [TNKase] immediately.
D) obtain an order for an INR.
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Page 54

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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8446
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is giving aspirin to a patient during acute management of STEMI. The patient asks why a chewable tablet is given. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Aspirin is absorbed more quickly when it is chewed."
B) "Chewing aspirin prevents it from being metabolized by the liver."
C) "Chewing aspirin prevents stomach irritation."
D) "More of the drug is absorbed when aspirin is chewed."
Q2) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of chest pain that has lasted longer than 1 hour and is unrelieved by nitroglycerin. The patient's electrocardiogram reveals elevation of the ST segment. Initial cardiac troponin levels are negative. The patient is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula. Which drug should be given immediately?
A) Aspirin 325 mg chewable
B) Beta blocker given IV
C) Ibuprofen 400 mg orally
D) Morphine intravenously
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8447
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with hemophilia B is admitted to the hospital for surgery. The patient's history reveals long-term use of factor replacement as prophylaxis for bleeding episodes. The nurse anticipates that the provider will order which medication to prevent excessive perioperative bleeding?
A) Desmopressin
B) Factor VIII
C) Ibuprofen
D) Tranexamic acid
Q2) The parents of a boy with hemophilia A want to know why their son will receive factor replacement on an ongoing basis rather than when needed for bleeding episodes. They tell the nurse that the boy's grandfather,who had the same disease,received the drug only when he had bleeding. The nurse will give the parents which information about ongoing therapy?
A) It can reverse progression of the disease.
B) It is cheaper, because the amounts of the drug used are less.
C) It is used to minimize long-term damage to the joints.
D) It prevents the development of inhibitors.
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8448
Sample Questions
Q1) A 12-year-old female patient is admitted to the hospital before sinus surgery. The nurse preparing to care for this patient notes that the admission hemoglobin is 10.2 gm/dL,and the hematocrit is 32%. The nurse will ask the child's parents which question about their daughter?
A) "Does she eat green, leafy vegetables?"
B) "Has she begun menstruating?"
C) "Is she a vegetarian?"
D) "Is there a chance she might be pregnant?"
Q2) The nurse is taking a medication history on a newly admitted patient. The patient reports taking folic acid and vitamin B<sub>12</sub>. The nurse notifies the provider because of the concern that folic acid can:
A) cause fetal malformation.
B) mask the signs of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency.
C) negatively affect potassium levels.
D) worsen megaloblastic anemia.
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8449
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is about to undergo a procedure to harvest hematopoietic stem cells from the bone marrow. Which medication will the nurse anticipate giving before this procedure?
A) Filgrastim [Neupogen]
B) Pegfilgrastim [Neulasta]
C) Oprelvekin [Neumega]
D) Sargramostim [Leukine]
Q2) A patient with a hemoglobin of 7.2 gm/dL begins therapy with an ESA. Two weeks later the patient's hemoglobin is 8.3 gm/dL. The nurse anticipates that the provider will:
A) reduce the ESA dose.
B) discontinue the ESA.
C) order a blood transfusion.
D) order heparin.
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8450
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides dietary counseling for a patient newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. Which instruction should be included?
A) "You may eat any foods you want and cover the glucose increase with sliding scale, regular insulin."
B) "Most of the calories you eat should be in the form of protein to promote fat breakdown and preserve muscle mass."
C) "Your total caloric intake should not exceed 1800 calories in a 24-hour period."
D) "You should use a carbohydrate counting approach to maintain glycemic control."
Q2) A patient with type 1 diabetes is eating breakfast at 7:30 AM. Blood sugars are on a sliding scale and are ordered before a meal and at bedtime. The patient's blood sugar level is 317 mg/dL. Which formulation of insulin should the nurse prepare to administer?
A) No insulin should be administered.
B) NPH
C) 70/30 mix
D) Lispro [Humalog]
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Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin taking methimazole [Tapazole] for Graves' disease about the medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Because of the risk for liver toxicity, I will need frequent liver function tests."
B) "I should report a sore throat or fever to my provider if either occurs."
C) "I will need a complete blood count every few months."
D) "It is safe to get pregnant while taking this medication."
Q2) A patient with hypothyroidism begins taking PO levothyroxine [Synthroid]. The nurse assesses the patient at the beginning of the shift and notes a heart rate of 62 beats per minute and a temperature of 97.2°F. The patient is lethargic and difficult to arouse. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order for which drug?
A) Beta blocker
B) Increased dose of PO levothyroxine
C) Intravenous levothyroxine
D) Methimazole [Tapazole]
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Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of growth hormone and reconstitutes the medication. After adding the diluent,the nurse notices that the preparation is cloudy. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the drug as ordered.
B) Discard the drug and prepare another dose.
C) Notify the prescriber.
D) Shake the drug to dissipate the particles.
Q2) A patient with antidiuretic hormone deficiency is receiving desmopressin (DDAVP). The nurse will teach this patient to:
A) avoid grapefruit juice.
B) increase sodium intake.
C) monitor blood pressure.
D) reduce fluid intake.
Q3) A clinic patient who has cirrhosis of the liver develops hypervolemic hypernatremia. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order?
A) Conivaptan [Vaprisol]
B) Desmopressin [DDAVP]
C) Tolvaptan [Samsca]
D) Vasopressin [Pitressin]

Page 61
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Q1) A patient who has chronic adrenal insufficiency is admitted to the hospital for an open cholecystectomy. The nurse obtaining the admission history learns that the patient takes hydrocortisone 25 mg PO daily in the morning. The patient's surgery is scheduled for the next morning. The nurse will expect an order to:
A) administer the usual morning dose of hydrocortisone 25 mg PO.
B) administer hydrocortisone 50 mg PO in the morning.
C) administer hydrocortisone 50 mg IV before surgery.
D) withhold the morning dose of hydrocortisone and give it after surgery.
Q2) A patient with Cushing's syndrome has undergone surgery and radiation treatment. The nurse will expect to teach the patient about which medication?
A) Cosyntropin
B) Dexamethasone
C) Fludrocortisone acetate [Florinef]
D) Ketoconazole [Nizoral]
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Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who has had a hysterectomy and is about to begin hormone therapy to manage menopausal symptoms. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Because I am not at risk for uterine cancer, I can take hormones indefinitely."
B) "I can take estrogen to reduce my risk of cardiovascular disease."
C) "I should take the lowest effective dose for the shortest time needed."
D) "I will need a progestin/estrogen combination since I have had a hysterectomy."
Q2) A 50-year-old postmenopausal patient who has had a hysterectomy has moderate to severe vasomotor symptoms and is discussing estrogen therapy (ET)with the nurse. The patient is concerned about adverse effects of ET. The nurse will tell her that:
A) an estrogen-progesterone product will reduce side effects.
B) an intravaginal preparation may be best for her.
C) side effects of ET are uncommon among women her age.
D) transdermal preparations have fewer side effects.
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Q1) A patient at increased risk for thromboembolic disorders will begin taking a progestin-only oral contraceptive. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of how this oral contraceptive works?
A) "I will need to use backup contraception if I miss a pill."
B) "Irregular bleeding is an indication that I should stop using this drug."
C) "The mini-pill is safer than combination OCs and is just as effective."
D) "The progestin-only mini-pill will prevent me from ovulating."
Q2) A nurse working in a family planning clinic is preparing to administer a first dose of intramuscular DMPA [Depo-Provera] to a young adult patient. The woman tells the nurse she has just finished her period. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the injection today and counsel backup contraception for 7 days.
B) Administer the injection today and tell her that protection is immediate.
C) Obtain a pregnancy test to rule out pregnancy before administering the drug.
D) Schedule an appointment for her to receive the injection in 3 weeks.
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Q1) A patient with infertility will begin taking menotropins [Repronex]. The nurse will evaluate this patient's history to determine whether the:
A) patient has a history of hyperinsulinemia.
B) patient has excessive prolactin secretion.
C) patient's pituitary can produce LH and FSH.
D) patient's ovaries are capable of responding to gonadotropins.
Q2) A patient with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)asks the nurse what she can do to improve her chances of getting pregnant. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Clomiphene will help induce ovulation but will not treat the other symptoms of polycystic ovarian disease."
B) "If I lose weight, my infertility and irregular periods could resolve without medications."
C) "Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and reduces male hormone levels."
D) "Spironolactone, which reduces androgens and facial hair, is helpful if I'm trying to conceive."
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Q1) A patient is admitted to the obstetric unit in preterm labor at 36 weeks' gestation. The prescriber orders a tocolytic agent. When teaching the patient about this medication,the nurse will tell her that tocolytics:
A) are given until term to reduce fetal mortality.
B) are used to help the fetal lungs mature.
C) help delay delivery while glucocorticoids are given.
D) help treat the infections that cause preterm labor.
Q2) A pregnant patient is 1 week post-term and will receive intravenous oxytocin. Which will the nurse evaluate before starting the infusion? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cervical ripening
B) Fetal monitoring
C) Renal function
D) Respiratory function
E) Uterine activity
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Q1) A 14-year-old male patient has not begun puberty. His parents tell the nurse that their son does not want to go to school,because he gets teased. The nurse learns that the boy's father did not begin puberty until age 16 years. Laboratory tests on this child do not reveal true hypogonadism. What will the nurse tell these parents when they ask what can be done for their son?
A) "A limited course of androgen therapy may be prescribed, but it is not necessary."
B) "He will eventually begin puberty, so this is nothing to worry about."
C) "He will probably have to receive injections of androgens for 3 to 4 years."
D) "The risk of accelerated growth plate closure is too great to warrant androgen therapy."
Q2) A nurse is obtaining a history and reviewing the chart of an adult male patient who has been taking oral androgens. Which assessment would warrant notifying the provider?
A) Acne and increased facial hair
B) Breast enlargement
C) Increased libido
D) Nausea, anorexia, and fatigue
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Q1) A patient with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia is admitted to the unit. The patient is taking multiple medications,including terazosin [Hytrin]. During the evening rounds,the patient begins to complain of dizziness and nasal congestion. Upon assessment,the patient is somnolent and has a blood pressure of 101/42 mm Hg. The nurse is correct to suspect:
A) priapism.
B) sinus infection.
C) allergic reaction.
D) adverse effects.
Q2) Tadalafil [Cialis] was prescribed 4 weeks ago for a patient with erectile dysfunction. The patient also takes prazosin [Minipress] for hypertension. Which statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the use of tadalafil [Cialis]?
A) "I can take this up to 2 times a day, just before intercourse."
B) "I have a little renal trouble, so I should take a higher dose."
C) "I should take this medication with food."
D) "I should take this medication no more than once a day."
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is discussing the role of antibodies in the complement system with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student is correct?
A) "Antibodies activate the complement cascade by turning on the alternative pathway."
B) "Antibodies that are free in solution can activate the complement system."
C) "Antibodies flag target cells to be lysed by membrane attack complexes."
D) "Antibody receptors are nonspecific to antigenic determinants."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about a specific acquired immunity system. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity are both types of specific acquired immune responses."
B) "Each exposure to an antigen causes a faster, more intense response."
C) "Immune responses occur only after exposure to a foreign substance."
D) "The skin is a factor in specific acquired immunity."
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Q1) The public health nurse is teaching a group of parents about immunizations. The nurse tells the parents that after receiving the varicella virus vaccine,children should temporarily avoid close contact with whom? (Select all that apply.)
A) Neonates
B) Siblings
C) Relatives older than 65 years
D) Pregnant women
E) Individuals infected with HIV
Q2) A 1-year-old child receives the MMR vaccine. The next day the child's parent calls the nurse to report that the child has a temperature of 103°F. What will the nurse do?
A) File an adverse event report with the Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS).
B) Notify the child's provider that thrombocytopenia is likely to occur.
C) Reassure the parent that fever can occur with the MMR vaccine.
D) Tell the parent to take the child to the emergency department.
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Q1) A nursing student asks the nurse how antibodies provide immune suppression. The nurse responds by telling the student that antibodies:
A) block T-cell function.
B) boost immune responses.
C) reduce proliferation of B cells.
D) suppress interferon production.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient after recent renal transplantation. The patient is taking sirolimus [Rapamune] to prevent transplant rejection. What other medications would the nurse expect the patient to be taking?
A) Rifampin and ketoconazole
B) Carbamazepine and phenobarbital
C) Cyclosporine and glucocorticoids
D) Amphotericin B and erythromycin
Q3) The nurse knows that which immunosuppressants are among the most effective?
A) Azathioprine [Imuran] and everolimus [Zortress]
B) Cyclosporine [Sandimmune] and tacrolimus [Prograf]
C) Methotrexate [Rheumatrex] and muromonab-CD3 [Orthoclone OKT3]
D) Sirolimus [Rapamune] and methylprednisolone
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Q1) A pregnant patient asks the nurse if she can take antihistamines for seasonal allergies during her pregnancy. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Antihistamines should be avoided unless absolutely necessary.
B) Second-generation antihistamines are safer than first-generation antihistamines.
C) Antihistamines should not be taken during pregnancy but may be taken when breast-feeding.
D) The margin of safety for antihistamines is clearly understood for pregnant patients.
Q2) Which parenteral antihistamines have sedative effects that are classified as low to none? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cetirizine [Zyrtec]
B) Clemastine [Tavist Allergy]
C) Desloratadine [Clarinex]
D) Fexofenadine [Allegra]
E) Loratadine [Claritin]
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Q1) A patient who reports regular consumption of two or three alcoholic beverages per day asks about taking acetaminophen when needed for occasional recurrent pain. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) "Do not take more than 2 gm of acetaminophen a day."
B) "Do not take more than 3 gm of acetaminophen a day."
C) "Do not take more than 4 gm of acetaminophen a day."
D) "Do not take a fixed-dose preparation with opioid analgesics."
Q2) An adolescent is brought to the emergency department by a parent who reports that the patient took a whole bottle of extended-release acetaminophen tablets somewhere between 8 and 10 hours ago. The nurse will anticipate administering which of the following?
A) Acetylcysteine [Mucomyst]
B) Activated charcoal
C) Hemodialysis
D) Respiratory support
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Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students why glucocorticoids are preferred over nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs in the treatment of inflammation. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Glucocorticoids act by multiple mechanisms and have more anti-inflammatory effects than NSAIDs."
B) "Glucocorticoids have fewer side effects than nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs."
C) "Glucocorticoids help avert damage to tissues from lysosomal enzymes."
D) "Glucocorticoids reduce the immune component of inflammation."
Q2) A patient who is a long-distance runner has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis in both knees and will begin glucocorticoid therapy. When teaching the patient about the medication,the nurse will include what information?
A) "By reducing inflammation, this drug will slow the progression of your disease."
B) "Glucocorticoids are used as adjunctive therapy during acute flare-ups."
C) "Oral glucocorticoids cause less toxicity than intra-articular injections."
D) "You may resume running when the pain and swelling improve."
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Q1) A patient who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA)for 1 month and has generalized symptoms is taking high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)and an oral glucocorticoid. The provider has ordered methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The patient asks the nurse why methotrexate is necessary since pain and swelling have been well controlled with the other medications. The nurse will tell the patient that:
A) a methotrexate regimen can reduce overall costs and side effects of treatment.
B) starting methotrexate early can help delay joint degeneration.
C) starting methotrexate now will help increase life expectancy.
D) with methotrexate, doses of NSAIDs can be reduced to less toxic levels.
Q2) A patient is beginning therapy with oral methotrexate [Rheumatrex] for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will teach this patient about the importance of:
A) having routine renal and hepatic function tests.
B) limiting folic acid consumption.
C) reporting alopecia and rash.
D) taking the medication on a daily basis.
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Q1) A patient is being treated with warfarin [Coumadin] to prevent thrombus. The patient develops hyperuricemia,and the provider orders allopurinol [Zyloprim]. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss ____ the ____ dose.
A) increasing; allopurinol
B) increasing; warfarin
C) reducing; allopurinol
D) reducing; warfarin
Q2) A patient with chronic gout is admitted to the hospital for treatment for an infection. The patient is receiving allopurinol and ampicillin. The nurse is preparing to administer medications and notes that the patient has a temperature of 101°F and a rash. What will the nurse do?
A) Withhold the allopurinol and notify the prescriber of the drug reaction.
B) Withhold the ampicillin and contact the provider to request a different antibiotic.
C) Request an order for an antihistamine to minimize the drug side effects.
D) Suggest giving a lower dose of the allopurinol while giving ampicillin.
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Q1) A 65-year-old female patient tells a nurse that she has begun taking calcium supplements. The nurse learns that the patient consumes two servings of dairy products and takes 1200 mg in calcium supplements each day. The patient's serum calcium level is 11.1 mg/dL. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) She should increase her dietary calcium in addition to the supplements
B) The amount of calcium she takes increases her risk for heart attack and stroke
C) To continue taking 1200 mg of calcium supplement since she is over age 50
D) To supplement her calcium with 10,000 units of vitamin D each day
Q2) A patient with severe glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis will start therapy with teriparatide [Forteo]. What will the nurse expect to administer?
A) 20 mcg once daily subQ
B) 20 mcg twice daily subQ
C) 10 mcg once daily subQ
D) 10 mcg twice daily subQ
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Q1) A patient has just received a prescription for fluticasone/salmeterol [Advair Diskus]. What will the nurse include as part of the teaching for this patient about the use of this device?
A) "You do not need good hand-lung coordination to use this device."
B) "You will begin to inhale before activating the device."
C) "You will need to use a spacer to help control the medication."
D) "You will take 2 inhalations twice daily."
Q2) A patient with asthma will be using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI)for delivery of an inhaled medication. The provider has ordered 2 puffs to be given twice daily. It is important for the nurse to teach this patient that:
A) the patient should inhale suddenly to receive the maximum dose.
B) the patient should activate the device and then inhale.
C) the patient should store the MDI in the refrigerator between doses.
D) the patient should wait 1 minute between puffs.
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Q1) A patient who has seasonal allergies in the spring and fall asks the nurse about oral antihistamines. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Anticholinergic effects are more common with second-generation antihistamines."
B) "First-generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine [Benadryl], are more effective."
C) "Make sure you take antihistamines only when you have symptoms to minimize side effects."
D) "You should take oral antihistamines daily during each allergy season to get maximum effects."
Q2) A nurse provides teaching to a patient with allergic rhinitis who will begin using an intranasal glucocorticoid. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "If the glucocorticoid causes burning or itching, I should use it every other day."
B) "I should use a decongestant if necessary before using the glucocorticoid."
C) "I should use the glucocorticoid whenever I have symptoms."
D) "I will probably develop systemic effects from the topical glucocorticoid."
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Q1) A patient is diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which medication does the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Cimetidine [Tagamet]
B) Esomeprazole [Nexium]
C) Ranitidine [Zantac]
D) Sucralfate [Carafate]
Q2) A patient who takes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)for arthritis asks a nurse what can be done to prevent ulcers. The nurse will recommend asking the provider about using which medication?
A) Antibiotics
B) Histamine-2 receptor antagonists
C) Proton pump inhibitors
D) Mucosal protectants
Q3) When metronidazole [Flagyl] is a component of the H. pylori treatment regimen,the patient must be instructed to do what?
A) Avoid any alcoholic beverages
B) Avoid foods containing tyramine
C) Take the drug on an empty stomach
D) Take the drug with food
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Q1) Which laxatives may be used safely in infants? (Select all that apply.)
A) Castor oil
B) Docusate sodium (Colace)
C) Glycerin suppositories
D) Lactulose
E) Milk of magnesia
Q2) A patient with renal disease is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Before the procedure,the nurse will anticipate administering:
A) glycerin suppository.
B) magnesium hydroxide (MOM).
C) polyethylene glycol and electrolytes.
D) sodium phosphate.
Q3) A patient has been taking psyllium [Metamucil] two to three times daily for several days. The patient complains of stomach pain but has not had a stool. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient to drink a full glass of water.
B) Give another dose of the psyllium.
C) Request an order for a bisacodyl [Dulcolax] suppository.
D) Palpate the patient's abdomen and auscultate for bowel sounds.
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Q1) A patient who has traveler's diarrhea asks the nurse about using loperamide to stop the symptoms. What will the nurse tell the patient about this drug?
A) "Loperamide is used for moderate to severe symptoms only."
B) "This drug is useful as prophylaxis to prevent symptoms."
C) "This drug is only effective to treat certain infectious agents."
D) "Use of this drug may prolong symptoms by slowing peristalsis."
Q2) A patient with Crohn's disease will begin receiving an initial infusion of infliximab [Remicade]. The nurse explains how this drug works to treat this disease. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I may have an increased risk of infections, such as tuberculosis, when taking infliximab."
B) "I should report chills, fever, itching, and shortness of breath while receiving the infusion."
C) "This drug sometimes provides a complete cure of inflammatory bowel disease."
D) "I will take the second dose in 2 weeks, the third dose in 6 weeks, and then a dose every 8 weeks thereafter."
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Q1) A pregnant patient is discussing nutrition and vitamin supplements with the nurse. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the use of nutrition and supplements during pregnancy?
A) "I can get adequate folic acid by consuming foods fortified with synthetic folate."
B) "I need reduced amounts of vitamin C while pregnant to lower my risk of hemorrhage."
C) "I should take vitamin K so my baby won't be vitamin K deficient at birth."
D) "Excessive amounts of vitamin A [retinol] can cause birth defects in my baby."
Q2) A patient asks how she can consume optimal amounts of folate,because she is trying to get pregnant. The nurse will advise this patient to do what?
A) Eat foods naturally high in folate.
B) Stop worrying, because folate is present in many foods.
C) Take synthetic folate on an empty stomach.
D) Take synthetic folate in addition to foods high in folate.
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Q1) A nurse performing an admission history on a patient learns that the patient is taking orlistat [Xenical],warfarin [Coumadin],and levothyroxine [Synthroid]. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to discuss increasing the warfarin dose.
B) Give the levothyroxine at least 4 hours before giving the orlistat.
C) Suggest that the patient avoid fatty foods while taking these medications.
D) Tell the patient to take the orlistat on an empty stomach.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of patients about weight management options. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Although some drugs often show benefits, these benefits do not outweigh the risks."
B) " Antiobesity drugs should be used only as adjuncts to a comprehensive weight loss program of diet and exercise."
C) "Most patients regain lost weight when antiobesity drugs are discontinued."
D) "The side effects of most of these drugs are too uncomfortable to maintain compliance."
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Q1) A patient has a viral sinus infection,and the provider tells the patient that antibiotics will not be prescribed. The patient wants to take an antibiotic and asks the nurse what possible harm could occur by taking an antibiotic. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Antibiotics are mutagenic and can produce changes that cause resistance."
B) "Even normal flora can develop resistance and transfer this to pathogens."
C) "Host cells become resistant to antibiotics with repeated use."
D) "Patients who overuse antibiotics are more likely to have nosocomial infections."
Q2) The nurse is teaching a pharmacology refresher course to a group of nurses. A student asks what host factors affect the choice of agents in antimicrobial therapy. The nurse will tell the students that such host factors include what? (Select all that apply.)
A) Age
B) Gender
C) Immune system status
D) Infection site
E) Weight
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Q1) The parent of an infant with otitis media asks the nurse why the prescriber has ordered amoxicillin [Amoxil] and not ampicillin [Unasyn]. What will the nurse tell the parent?
A) Amoxicillin is a broader spectrum antibiotic than ampicillin.
B) Amoxicillin is not inactivated by beta-lactamases.
C) Ampicillin is associated with more allergic reactions.
D) Ampicillin is not as acid stable as amoxicillin.
Q2) A patient has an infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The prescriber has ordered piperacillin and amikacin,both to be given intravenously. What will the nurse do?
A) Make sure to administer the drugs at different times using different IV tubing.
B) Suggest giving larger doses of piperacillin and discontinuing the amikacin.
C) Suggest that a fixed-dose combination of piperacillin and tazobactam [Zosyn] be used.
D) Watch the patient closely for allergic reactions, because this risk is increased with this combination.
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86

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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8478
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving vancomycin [Vancocin]. The nurse notes that the patient is experiencing flushing,rash,pruritus,and urticaria. The patient's heart rate is 120 beats per minute,and the blood pressure is 92/57 mm Hg. The nurse understands that these findings are consistent with:
A) allergic reaction.
B) red man syndrome.
C) rhabdomyolysis.
D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
Q2) A patient who has cystic fibrosis has a Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection and the provider has ordered aztreonam [Cayston]. What will the nurse teach this patient about administration of this drug?
A) Administer the drug intramuscularly twice daily.
B) Give a daily dose every day for 28 days and then stop.
C) Inhale the powdered drug as ordered three times each day.
D) Use the nebulizer to administer the drug three times daily.
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8479
Sample Questions
Q1) A child with an upper respiratory infection caused by B. pertussis is receiving erythromycin ethylsuccinate. After 2 days of treatment,the parent asks the nurse why the child's symptoms have not improved. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Erythromycin eliminates the bacteria that causes the infection, but not the toxin that causes the symptoms."
B) "We may need to add penicillin or another antibiotic to increase the antimicrobial spectrum."
C) "We will need to review the culture sensitivity information to see whether a different antibiotic is indicated."
D) "Your child may have developed a suprainfection that we need to culture and treat."
Q2) A 6-week-old infant who has not yet received immunizations develops a severe cough. While awaiting nasopharyngeal culture results,the nurse will expect to administer which antibiotic?
A) Clindamycin [Cleocin]
B) Doxycycline [Vibramycin]
C) Erythromycin ethylsuccinate
D) Penicillin G
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Page 88

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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8480
Sample Questions
Q1) Which patients may receive gentamicin safely? (Select all that apply.)
A) A 6-day-old newborn
B) A 5-year-old child
C) A pregnant woman
D) A woman breast-feeding an infant
E) An elderly patient with renal disease
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with an infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus,and the prescriber orders intravenous gentamicin and penicillin (PCN). Both drugs will be given twice daily. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer gentamicin, flush the line, and then give the penicillin.
B) Give the gentamicin intravenously and the penicillin intramuscularly.
C) Infuse the gentamicin and the penicillin together to prevent fluid overload.
D) Request an order to change the penicillin to vancomycin.
Q3) A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of gentamicin to a patient who is receiving the drug 3 times daily. The nurse will monitor ____ levels.
A) peak
B) peak and trough
C) serum drug
D) trough
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8481
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who takes an ACE inhibitor and an ARB medication who will begin taking TMP/SMZ to treat a urinary tract infection. Which serum electrolyte will the nurse expect to monitor closely?
A) Calcium
B) Chloride
C) Potassium
D) Sodium
Q2) A patient with bronchitis is taking TMP/SMZ,160/800 mg orally,twice daily. Before administering the third dose,the nurse notes that the patient has a widespread rash,a temperature of 103°F,and a heart rate of 100 beats per minute. The patient looks ill and reports not feeling well. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the dose and request an order for an antipyretic medication.
B) Withhold the dose and request an order for an antihistamine to treat the rash.
C) Withhold the dose and notify the provider of the symptoms.
D) Request an order for intravenous TMP/SMZ, because the patient is getting worse.
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90

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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8482
Sample Questions
Q1) A 30-year-old male patient reports having two to four urinary tract infections a year. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient?
A) "Make sure you void after intercourse and drink extra fluids to stay well hydrated."
B) "We will treat each infection as a separate infection and treat with short-course therapy."
C) "You will need to take a low dose of medication for 6 months to prevent infections."
D) "You will need to take antibiotics for 4 to 6 weeks each time you have an infection."
Q2) A 20-year-old female patient has suprapubic discomfort,pyuria,dysuria,and bacteriuria greater than 100,000/mL of urine. Which are the most likely diagnosis and treatment?
A) Uncomplicated lower urinary tract infection treatable with short-course therapy
B) Complicated lower urinary tract infection treatable with single-dose therapy
C) Uncomplicated upper urinary tract infection requiring 14 days of oral antibiotics
D) Complicated upper urinary tract infection requiring parenteral antibiotics
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8483
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with high-risk factors for tuberculosis will begin therapy for latent TB with isoniazid and rifampin. The nurse learns that this patient takes oral contraceptives. The nurse will counsel this patient to discuss ____ with her provider.
A) another birth control method
B) reducing the rifampin dose
C) reducing the isoniazid dose
D) increasing the oral contraceptive dose
Q2) Which patient should begin treatment for tuberculosis?
A) A patient with HIV and a tuberculin skin test result of a 4-mm region of induration
B) A recent immigrant from a country with a high prevalence of TB with a 10-mm region of induration
C) A patient with no known risk factors who has a job-related tuberculin skin test result of a 12-mm area of induration
D) An intravenous drug abuser with a tuberculin skin test result of a 5-mm region of induration
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Page 92

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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8484
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer oral ofloxacin to a patient. While taking the patient's medication history,the nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin and theophylline. The correct action by the nurse is to request an order to:
A) reduce the dose of ofloxacin.
B) increase the dose of ofloxacin.
C) increase the dose of theophylline.
D) monitor coagulation levels.
Q2) A nursing student is caring for a patient with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)who also has a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)skin infection. The prescriber has ordered daptomycin [Cubicin]. The nurse encourages the student to approach the provider to request a different antibiotic because of which facts about daptomycin? (Select all that apply.)
A) It causes significant renal impairment.
B) It is approved only for bloodstream and skin infections.
C) It increases the risk of serious cardiorespiratory events.
D) It is more likely to produce resistant strains of bacteria.
E) It is not effective against MRSA infections.
Page 93
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8485
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving amphotericin B [Abelcet] for a systemic fungal infection. In spite of receiving diphenhydramine and acetaminophen before initiation of treatment,the patient has fever and chills with rigors. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss the addition of which drug?
A) Aspirin
B) Dantrolene
C) Hydrocortisone
D) Omeprazole
Q2) A patient has an invasive aspergillosis infection. Which antifungal agent is the drug of choice for this infection?
A) Amphotericin B
B) Fluconazole [Diflucan]
C) Posaconazole [Noxafil]
D) Voriconazole [Vfend]
Q3) Which superficial mycosis is generally treated with oral antifungal agents?
A) Tinea capitis
B) Tinea corporis
C) Tinea cruris
D) Tinea pedis
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Page 94

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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8486
Sample Questions
Q1) A male patient with hepatitis C will begin triple drug therapy with pegylated interferon alfa 2a [Pegasys],ribavirin [Ribasphere],and boceprevir [Victrelis]. The patient tells the nurse that his wife is pregnant. What will the nurse tell him?
A) Boceprevir is contraindicated in males whose partners are pregnant.
B) He should use a barrier contraceptive when having sex.
C) He should use dual drug therapy with pegylated interferon alfa and ribavirin only.
D) This combination drug therapy is safe for him to use.
Q2) A patient with HIV and mucocutaneous HSV is being treated with foscarnet after failing treatment with acyclovir. After 2 weeks,the patient's dose is increased to 90 mg/kg over 2 hours from 40 mg/kg over 1 hour. The patient reports numbness in the extremities and perioral tingling. What will the nurse do?
A) Notify the provider and request an order for a serum calcium level.
B) Notify the provider of potential foscarnet overdose.
C) Request an order for a creatinine clearance level.
D) Request an order of IV saline to be given before the next dose.
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8487
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is HIV positive and has a previous history of drug and alcohol abuse. The patient is being treated with combination therapies,including didanosine [Videx]. Which laboratory findings would most concern the nurse?
A) Increased serum amylase and triglycerides and decreased serum calcium
B) Decreased serum amylase and serum triglycerides and increased serum calcium
C) Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit
D) Increased serum amylase, decreased triglycerides, and increased platelets
Q2) The nurse asks a graduate nurse,"When a patient in the initial phase of HIV infection is assessed,which findings would you expect to see?" The graduate nurse would be correct to respond with which conditions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Respiratory distress
B) Fever
C) Myalgia
D) Lymphadenopathy
E) Insomnia
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96

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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8488
Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient has come to the STD clinic and has been diagnosed with a Trichomonas vaginalis infection. What education should be provided to this patient?
A) Male partners should always be treated, even if they are asymptomatic.
B) The applicator for the vaginal gel should be washed after each application.
C) The infection is not completely eliminated with the medication.
D) The medication should be taken twice daily for 2 weeks.
Q2) A patient admitted to the hospital is using metronidazole [Flagyl] 0.75% gel. The nurse understands that this agent is used to treat which condition?
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Gardnerella vaginalis
C) Haemophilus ducreyi
D) Trichomonas vaginalis
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8489
Sample Questions
Q1) For which patient would a topical antiseptic be most appropriate?
A) A patient with a systemic infection
B) A patient with a medium-sized abscess
C) A patient who has a wound with moderate exudate
D) A patient who needs to have wounds cleansed for prophylaxis
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient with an infection caused by Bacillus anthracis. What action is most important for reducing the transmission of this disease?
A) Disinfecting the bedpan with an antiseptic solution
B) Using antibacterial hand soap when washing the hands
C) Using an alcohol-based hand rub after each patient contact
D) Wearing gloves while caring for the patient
Q3) A clinic nurse is preparing to sterilize instruments used in clinic procedures. The nurse will place the instruments in glutaraldehyde [Cidex-7]. Which actions are necessary when using this product? (Select all that apply.)
A) Acidifying the solution to improve its antiseptic properties
B) Cleansing the hands with an alcohol-based hand rub
C) Ensuring adequate ventilation in the room where the solution is used
D) Removing blood from the instruments before soaking them
E) Soaking the instruments for 10 hours or longer
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Page 98
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8490
Sample Questions
Q1) A child has been diagnosed with enterobiasis,and the prescriber orders mebendazole [Vermox] to treat the infestation. When teaching this child's parents about the treatment,the nurse will include which statement?
A) "A single dose of mebendazole will eradicate the infestation."
B) "Everyone in the household should be treated with mebendazole."
C) "Serious complications of this type of infestation are common."
D) "Treatment should be limited to family members with symptoms."
Q2) A young female patient is seen in a rural clinic after complaining of abdominal pain. The patient is wearing dirty clothing and is barefoot. The provider orders a complete blood count,which shows that the patient is anemic. The nurse may suspect that this patient has which of the following infestations?
A) Ancylostomiasis (hookworm)
B) Ascariasis (giant roundworm)
C) Enterobiasis (pinworm)
D) Trichuriasis (whipworm)
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99

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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8491
Sample Questions
Q1) Which are adverse effects of quinine [Qualaquin]? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cinchonism
B) Hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency
C) Increased ventricular rate
D) Nightmares
E) Prolonged QT interval
Q2) A patient who has contracted falciparum malaria has received a prescription for artemether/lumefantrine [Coartem] and tells the nurse she thinks she may be pregnant. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) "Ask your provider about taking only the artemether component."
B) "The medication should be taken with food to prevent nausea."
C) "This drug is safe during the first trimester of pregnancy."
D) "You should talk to your provider about a different medication."
Q3) A patient who takes imipramine has a moderate infection with P. vivax that is chloroquine resistant. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order?
A) Artemether/lumefantrine [Coartem]
B) Atovaquone/proguanil [Malarone]
C) Artesunate
D) Quinine
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Page 100

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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8492
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient from Africa is being treated for East African trypanosomiasis. The nurse is preparing to administer a first dose of suramin sodium [Germanin]. To prevent serious side effects,which action will the nurse take?
A) Administer a small test dose before giving the drug.
B) Ask the patient to lie flat while the drug is given.
C) Give a high-fat snack with the drug to minimize gastric upset.
D) Suggest to the provider that liver function tests (LFTs) be performed.
Q2) A child is diagnosed with cryptosporidiosis,and the prescriber orders nitazoxanide [Alinia]. While preparing the child's parents to administer this drug,the nurse will:
A) determine whether the child is taking immunosuppressant medications.
B) instruct the family to have the child take the drug on an empty stomach.
C) teach the parents that yellow discoloration of the sclerae represents a serious side effect.
D) tell the parents that headache, dry mouth, and a metallic taste are common.
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13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8493
Sample Questions
Q1) A child is seen in a clinic with a chief complaint of itching,especially at night. The nurse observes small ridges and dotted lines of erythema on the child's neck and buttocks. The nurse will expect the provider to order which medication initially?
A) Benzyl alcohol [Ulesfia]
B) Ivermectin [Stromectol]
C) Malathion [Ovide]
D) Permethrin [Elimite]
Q2) A nurse is teaching a parent about treating a child for scabies. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of the treatment?
A) "I should wash all bedding and clothing as well as applying the medicine."
B) "I will apply the cream to the visible burrows and areas of itching."
C) "More than one application of the cream may be needed."
D) "The cream may cause systemic side effects."
Q3) Which patient should not use lindane? (Select all that apply.)
A) A child with a history of seizures
B) A patient who has used lindane in the past 2 months
C) A person who weighs 115 pounds
D) A person with an autoimmune disorder
E) A person with atopic dermatitis
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8494
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse explains to a patient with cancer why it is difficult to achieve 100% cell kill to cure cancer with chemotherapy. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "It is necessary to continue giving the same dose of chemotherapeutic agents throughout therapy, even if toxicity occurs."
B) "Symptoms of cancer often disappear before all malignant cells are eradicated."
C) "The immune system attacks chemotherapeutic agents and renders them impotent."
D) "The immune system often fails to recognize cancer cells as foreign."
Q2) A patient who has leukemia is receiving chemotherapy and develops severe anemia. The provider has ordered hospitalization and blood transfusions. The patient asks the nurse about using erythropoietin (epoetin alfa)instead. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) "Ask your provider about ordering erythropoietin instead of a transfusion."
B) "Erythropoietin (epoetin alfa) can make your leukemia worse."
C) "Erythropoietin is used to prolong life in patients with myeloid malignancies."
D) "You will probably receive erythropoietin along with the transfusion."
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8495
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse on an oncology unit prepares to administer the fourth cycle of docetaxel [Taxotere] to a patient with breast cancer. Which clinical finding would cause the nurse to withhold the dose and call the prescriber?
A) Alanine transaminase (ALT) 1.2 times the upper limit
B) Alkaline phosphatase 2 times the upper limit
C) Neutrophil count below 1500/mm<sup>3</sup>
D) Creatinine clearance of 130 mL/min/1.73 m<sup>2</sup>
Q2) A patient who has a brain tumor will receive a nitrosourea agent. A nursing student asks why this type of drug is used for this type of cancer. The nurse will tell the student that nitrosoureas are useful because they:
A) are lipophilic.
B) are bifunctional alkylating agents.
C) have a broad spectrum of antineoplastic characteristics. D) have delayed bone marrow suppression.
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8496
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer a first dose of ado-trastuzumab emtansine [Kadcycla] to a patient who has metastatic breast cancer. Which nursing action is correct?
A) Administer a test dose with an antihistamine.
B) Ensure that the patient has HER2-positive disease.
C) Infuse the initial dose over 30 to 45 minutes.
D) Review renal function tests.
Q2) A patient with advanced cancer of the prostate begins treatment with leuprolide [Lupron Depot] injections and will receive 7.5 mg IM once per month. After the first injection,the patient experiences an increase in cancer symptoms. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Desensitization to the drug over time will result in a decrease in these symptoms.
B) The dose of leuprolide may have to be increased to 22.5 mg per month.
C) These symptoms indicate a need for surgical castration to treat the cancer.
D) This is a sign that the patient's cancer is getting worse.
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105
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8497
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin using a fixed-dose preparation of dorzolamide and timolol [Cosopt] for open-angle glaucoma. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Blurred vision, tearing, or eye dryness may occur with this medication."
B) "I may experience a bitter taste in my mouth after instilling these eye drops."
C) "I will need to instill two eye drops 3 times daily in each eye."
D) "If I notice redness in my eyes or eyelids, I should stop using these drops."
Q2) A patient is about to undergo emergency surgery for acute angle-closure glaucoma. Before surgery,which agent(s)will the nurse expect to administer? (Select all that apply.)
A) Acetazolamide
B) Brimonidine [Alphagan]
C) Mannitol
D) Phenylephrine
E) Timolol
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106

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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8498
Sample Questions
Q1) A teenaged female patient has begun to develop acne and asks a nurse how to minimize pimple formation. What will the nurse recommend?
A) Asking the provider about oral contraceptives
B) Cleansing the face gently 2 to 3 times daily
C) Eliminating greasy foods from the diet
D) Using an abrasive agent to scrub the face
Q2) A female patient with baldness asks a nurse about the safety and efficacy of minoxidil [Rogaine]. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Hair regrowth is most effective when baldness has developed recently.
B) Minoxidil cannot be used by female patients.
C) Once hair has been restored, minoxidil may be discontinued, because hair loss will stop.
D) Systemic side effects, such as headaches and flushing, are common.
Q3) A patient will begin initial treatment for severe acne. Which regimen will the nurse expect the provider to order?
A) Clindamycin/benzoyl peroxide [BenzaClin] and tretinoin [Retin-A]
B) Doxycycline [Vibramycin] and tretinoin [Retin-A]
C) Erythromycin [Ery-Tab) and benzoyl peroxide
D) Topical clindamycin and isotretinoin [Accutane]
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Page 107

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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8499
Sample Questions
Q1) Which are components of otitis externa management? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ciprofloxacin and hydrocortisone otic drops
B) Cleaning the ear canals with a cotton-tipped applicator
C) Keeping the external ear canal dry after swimming
D) Taking systemic antibiotics, such as amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]
E) Using a solution of alcohol and acetic acid to dry and acidify the ear
Q2) A nurse is teaching a parent about the observation strategy for managing a 3-year-old child's ear infection. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should not give analgesics, because they may mask important symptoms."
B) "I will give ibuprofen or acetaminophen for pain or fever as needed."
C) "I will let my provider know if the symptoms are not better in 1 week."
D) "There is a slight risk of mastoiditis if antibiotic therapy is delayed."
Q3) A nurse is discussing health maintenance with the parent of a newborn infant. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of ways to reduce the incidence of otitis media?
A) "I should hold my baby in an upright position during feeding."
B) "I should keep my baby out of day care during cold and flu season."
C) "My baby should not use a pacifier after 6 months of age."
D) "The pneumococcal vaccine will prevent my baby from getting ear infections."
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8500
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse provides teaching for a patient who will begin taking bosentan [Tracleer] for pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH). Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about this medication?
A) "I may take this medication with or without food."
B) "I may develop irreversible liver damage while taking this drug."
C) "I should not take cyclosporine while taking this medication."
D) "I will need to have lab tests every month while taking this drug."
Q2) A nurse is quizzing a nursing student who is preparing to care for a patient with cystic fibrosis. The patient uses inhaled tobramycin [TOBI],dornase alfa [Pulmozyme],ibuprofen,and salmeterol [Serevent Diskus]. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of this patient's drug regimen?
A) "Dornase alfa is used as needed to decrease viscosity of sputum."
B) "Ibuprofen is used to minimize pleuritic pain associated with coughing."
C) "Salmeterol acts by causing bronchodilation and improving ciliary function."
D) "Tobramycin is given via a metered-dose inhaler to avoid systemic side effects."
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109

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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8501
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin taking immunosuppressant drugs for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will caution this patient to avoid which dietary supplement?
A) Black cohosh
B) Echinacea
C) Feverfew
D) Glucosamine
Q2) A nurse is performing a preoperative drug history on a patient who is admitted to the hospital for surgery. To evaluate the risk of hemorrhage,the nurse will ask the patient about antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications as well as which dietary supplement?
A) Coenzyme Q-10
B) Ginkgo biloba
C) Ma Huang (ephedra)
D) St. John's wort
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8502
Sample Questions
Q1) A young patient is brought to the emergency department by friends,who say they found him unresponsive at his home. The prescriber suspects that the patient was poisoned. During the assessment,the man mumbles a word and becomes comatose. The nurse should immediately prepare to administer:
A) activated charcoal.
B) intravenous dextrose.
C) intravenous flumazenil [Romazicon].
D) syrup of ipecac.
Q2) A child is admitted to the hospital after a routine lead screen reveals an elevated serum lead level. The prescriber has ordered edetate calcium disodium (calcium EDTA)as a chelating agent. During this drug treatment,the nurse will expect to:
A) collect a daily urine specimen.
B) give the medication on an empty stomach.
C) monitor the child's heart rate and blood pressure.
D) request orders for liver function tests.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8503
Sample Questions
Q1) A group of people has been exposed to ricin by inhalation of ricin mist. When preparing to receive these victims in the emergency department,nurses will prepare to:
A) administer antidotes.
B) give chelating agents.
C) provide respiratory support.
D) start hemodialysis.
Q2) A patient is admitted to the hospital with fever,cough,malaise,and weakness. Forty-eight hours later,the symptoms have become progressively worse,and they progress to severe respiratory distress,septicemia,and hemorrhagic meningitis. The nurse recognizes these signs and symptoms as:
A) tularemia.
B) smallpox.
C) inhalation anthrax.
D) pneumonic plague.
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