Clinical Nursing Practice Final Exam - 1332 Verified Questions

Clinical Nursing Practice

Final Exam

Course Introduction

Clinical Nursing Practice provides students with the essential knowledge, skills, and professional attitudes necessary for delivering safe, competent, and evidence-based nursing care in a variety of healthcare settings. Emphasizing the application of nursing theory to real-world clinical situations, the course covers patient assessment, care planning, therapeutic interventions, and collaborative teamwork. Students will engage in supervised clinical experiences, developing critical thinking, problem-solving, and communication skills needed to meet the holistic needs of diverse patient populations while adhering to ethical and legal standards of practice.

Recommended Textbook

Pharmacology for Nursing Care 8th Edition by Richard

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110 Chapters

1332 Verified Questions

1332 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1567

A. Lehne

Page 2

Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology

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5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What does it mean when a drug is described as easy to administer?

A) It can be stored indefinitely without need for refrigeration.

B) It does not interact significantly with other medications.

C) It enhances patient adherence to the drug regimen.

D) It is usually relatively inexpensive to produce.

Answer: C

Q2) Before administering a medication, what does the nurse need to know to evaluate how individual patient variability might affect the patient's response to the medication?

(Select all that apply.)

A) Chemical stability of the medication

B) Ease of administration

C) Family medical history

D) Patient's age

E) Patient's diagnosis

Answer: C, D, E

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3

Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is reviewing a patient's medical record before administering a medication. Which factor(s) can alter the patient's physiologic response to the drug? (Select all that apply.)

A) Ability to swallow pills

B) Age

C) Genetic factors

D) Gender

E) Height

Answer: B, C, D

Q2) A patient newly diagnosed with diabetes is to be discharged from the hospital. The nurse teaching this patient about home management should begin by doing what?

A) Asking the patient to demonstrate how to measure and administer insulin

B) Discussing methods of storing insulin and discarding syringes

C) Giving information about how diet and exercise affect insulin requirements

D) Teaching the patient about the long-term consequences of poor diabetes control

Answer: A

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4

Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information

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6 Verified Questions

6 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse about pharmaceutical research and wants to know the purpose of randomization in drug trials. The nurse explains that randomization is used to:

A) ensure that differences in outcomes are the result of treatment and not differences in subjects.

B) compare the outcome caused by the treatment to the outcome caused by no treatment.

C) make sure that researchers are unaware of which subjects are in which group.

D) prevent subjects from knowing which group they are in and prevent preconception bias.

Answer: A

Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?

A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.

B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.

C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacological classification.

D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is giving an enteral medication. The patient asks why this method is preferable for this drug. How will the nurse reply?

A) "This route allows more rapid absorption of the drug."

B) "This route is safer, less expensive, and more convenient."

C) "This route is the best way to control serum drug levels."

D) "This route prevents inactivation of the drug by digestive enzymes."

Q2) A patient receives a drug that has a narrow therapeutic range. The nurse administering this medication will expect to do what?

A) Administer the drug at intervals longer than the drug half-life.

B) Administer this medication intravenously.

C) Monitor plasma drug levels.

D) Teach the patient that maximum drug effects will occur within a short period.

Q3) A patient tells the nurse that the oral drug that has been prescribed has caused a lot of stomach discomfort in the past. What will the nurse ask the prescriber?

A) Whether a sublingual form of the medication can be given

B) Whether the medication can be given by a parenteral route instead

C) To order an enteric-coated form of the drug

D) Whether the patient can receive a sustained-release preparation of the drug

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Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which drugs will not be affected by interpatient variability? (Select all that apply.)

A) Antiseptics applied to the skin to slow bacterial growth

B) Antacids to help with the discomfort of heartburn

C) Broad-spectrum antibiotics that are effective against many organisms

D) Chelating agents that remove metal compounds from the body

E) Topical analgesics used to treat localized pain

Q2) Two nurses are discussing theories of drug-receptor interaction. Which statements are true regarding the affinity of a drug and its receptor? (Select all that apply.)

A) Affinity and intrinsic activity are dependent properties.

B) Affinity refers to the strength of the attraction between a drug and its receptor.

C) Drugs with high affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.

D) Drugs with low affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.

E) The affinity of a drug for its receptors is reflected in its potency.

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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is providing multiple medications to a patient whose spouse brings him grapefruit juice every morning. The nurse should be concerned about which classes of drugs? (Select all that apply.)

A) Calcium channel blockers

B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

C) Aminoglycosides

D) Beta blockers

E) Penicillins

Q2) Which statement about food and drug interactions is true?

A) Foods alter drug absorption and metabolism but not drug action.

B) Medications are best absorbed on an empty stomach.

C) Patient discomfort is the food and drug interaction of most concern.

D) Some foods can inhibit CYP isozymes and alter drug metabolism.

Q3) In a discussion of drug-drug interactions, which would be the best example of a beneficial inhibitory interaction?

A) Naloxone (Narcan) blocking morphine sulfate's actions

B) Antacids blocking the action of tetracycline (Sumycin)

C) Alcohol blocking the actions of opioids

D) Cholestyramine blocking the actions of antihypertensive drugs

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer a drug. Upon reading the medication guide, the nurse notes that the drug has been linked to symptoms of Parkinson's disease in some patients. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient to report these symptoms, which are known to be teratogenic effects.

B) Observe the patient closely for such symptoms and prepare to treat them if needed.

C) Request an order to evaluate the patient's genetic predisposition to this effect.

D) Warn the patient about these effects and provide reassurance that this is expected.

Q2) A nurse is preparing to give an antibiotic to a patient who reports being allergic to antibiotics. Before giving the medication, it is important for the nurse to do what?

A) Ask whether the patient has taken this antibiotic for other infections.

B) Question the patient about allergies to other medications.

C) Obtain a history of other reactions to other drugs.

D) Request an order for an antihistamine.

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9

Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been taking narcotic analgesics for chronic pain for several months. The nurse caring for this patient notes that the prescribed dose is higher than the recommended dose. The patient has normal vital signs, is awake and alert, and reports mild pain. What does the nurse recognize about this patient?

A) This patient exhibits a negative placebo effect with a reduced response to the drug.

B) This patient has developed a reaction known as tachyphylaxis because of repeated exposure to the drug.

C) This patient has developed pharmacodynamic tolerance, which has increased the minimal effective concentration (MEC) needed for analgesic effect.

D) This patient produces higher than normal hepatic enzymes as a result of prolonged exposure to the drug.

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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding

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9 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient in her second trimester of pregnancy tells the nurse she is worried that a medication she took before knowing she was pregnant might have harmed the fetus. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient what she took and when she learned she was pregnant.

B) Contact the patient's provider to request an ultrasound.

C) Counsel the patient to consider termination of the pregnancy.

D) Suggest to the patient that she go to a high-risk pregnancy center.

Q2) A pregnant patient asks the nurse about the safe use of medications during the third trimester. What will the nurse tell her about drugs taken at this stage?

A) They may need to be given in higher doses if they undergo renal clearance.

B) They require lower doses if they are metabolized by the liver.

C) They are less likely to cross the placenta and affect the fetus.

D) They are more likely to cause anatomical defects if they are teratogenic.

Q3) Which type of drug taken by a pregnant patient is more likely to have effects on a fetus?

A) Drug that is highly polar

B) Ionized drug

C) Lipid-soluble drug

D) Protein-bound drug

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Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) An infant has allergies and often develops a pruritic rash when exposed to allergens. The infant's parents ask the nurse about using a topical antihistamine. What does the nurse tell them?

A) Antihistamines given by this route are not absorbed as well in children.

B) Applying this medication to the skin can cause toxicity in this age group.

C) The child will also need oral medication to achieve effective results.

D) Topical medications have fewer side effects than those given by other routes.

Q2) The parents of a child with asthma ask the nurse why their child cannot use oral corticosteroids more often, because they are so effective. The nurse will offer which information that is true for children?

A) Chronic steroid use can inhibit growth.

B) Frequent use of this drug may lead to a decreased response.

C) A hypersensitivity reaction to this drug may occur.

D) Systemic steroids can be toxic.

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Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Based on changes in hepatic function in older adult patients, which adjustment should the nurse expect for oral medications that undergo extensive first pass metabolism?

A) A higher dose should be used with the same time schedule.

B) The interval between doses should be increased.

C) No change is necessary; metabolism will not be affected.

D) The interval between doses should be reduced.

Q2) A nurse is preparing to teach a forgetful older adult patient about a multiple drug regimen to follow after discharge from the hospital. To help promote adherence, what will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient to share the teaching with a neighbor or friend soon after discharge.

B) Give the patient detailed written information about each drug.

C) Cluster medication administration times as much as possible.

D) Make sure the patient understands the actions and side effects of each drug.

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Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology

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8 Verified Questions

8 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is administering drug X to a patient. The drug information states that the drug acts by activating receptors in the peripheral nervous system by increasing transmitter synthesis. The nurse understands that the effect of this drug is to:

A) activate axonal conduction.

B) enhance transmitter storage.

C) increase receptor activation.

D) synthesize supertransmitters.

Q2) A patient receiving botulinum toxin injections to control muscle spasticity asks how the drug works. The nurse knows that this drug affects the transmitter acetylcholine by:

A) inhibiting its release.

B) interfering with its storage.

C) preventing its reuptake.

D) promoting its synthesis.

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14

Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System

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9 Verified Questions

9 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is administering an agonist drug that acts on postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system. Which response will the nurse expect to see?

A) Decreased sweating

B) Bronchodilation

C) Increased cardiac output

D) Pinpoint pupils

Q2) A patient is to receive a beta agonist. Before administration of this medication, which assessment finding would most concern the nurse?

A) Pulse oximetry reading of 88%

B) Blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg

C) Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute

D) Heart rate of 110 beats per minute

Q3) Many medications list side effects that include dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. What kind of effects are these?

A) Alpha adrenergic

B) Anticholinergic

C) Beta adrenergic

D) Sympathetic

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15

Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists

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8 Verified Questions

8 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has developed muscarinic antagonist toxicity from ingestion of an unknown chemical. The nurse should prepare to administer which medication?

A) Atropine (Sal-Tropine) IV

B) Physostigmine (Antilirium)

C) An acetylcholinesterase activator

D) Pseudoephedrine (Ephedrine)

Q2) An older adult patient who lives alone and is somewhat forgetful has an overactive bladder and reports occasional constipation. Which treatment will the nurse anticipate for this patient?

A) Behavioral therapy

B) Oxybutynin (Ditropan XL) extended-release tablets

C) Oxybutynin (Oxytrol) transdermal patch

D) Percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation (PTNS)

Q3) Bethanechol (Urecholine) is used to treat urinary retention but is being investigated for use in which other condition?

A) Gastric ulcers

B) Gastroesophageal reflux

C) Hypotension

D) Intestinal obstruction

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in

Myasthenia Gravis

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9 Verified Questions

9 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with myasthenia gravis who is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor is being admitted to the intensive care unit and is on mechanical ventilation. The prescriber has ordered a challenge dose of edrophonium to distinguish between a myasthenic crisis and a medication overdose. The nurse will expect to do what?

A) Administer neostigmine if muscle strength decreases.

B) Be prepared to administer atropine if muscle weakness increases.

C) Give a second dose of edrophonium if no improvement is seen.

D) Give pralidoxime (Protopam) if cholinergic symptoms worsen.

Q2) A patient who has myasthenia gravis will be taking neostigmine (Prostigmin). What will the nurse emphasize when teaching this patient about the medication?

A) "Stop taking the drug if you have diarrhea."

B) "Take a supplementary dose before exercise."

C) "Use atropine if you have excessive salivation."

D) "Withhold the dose if ptosis occurs."

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Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic

Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents and

Ganglionic Blocking Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about neuromuscular blocking agents. For what may these agents be used? (Select all that apply.)

A) Analgesia

B) Electroshock therapy

C) Malignant hyperthermia

D) Mechanical ventilation

E) Surgery

Q2) A nurse is reviewing nursing actions for emergency treatment of malignant hyperthermia with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Analgesics should be given to help with muscle pain."

B) "Dantrolene helps to slow the metabolic activity in skeletal muscles."

C) "If malignant hyperthermia occurs, the succinylcholine must be stopped immediately."

D) "The patient may need an intravenous infusion of cold saline."

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Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient brought to the emergency department requires sutures. The prescriber orders a local anesthetic with epinephrine. The nurse understands that epinephrine is ordered to:

A) prevent hypertension induced by the anesthetic.

B) prolong absorption of the anesthetic.

C) reduce anesthetic-induced nausea.

D) reduce the pain of an injection.

Q2) A nurse is administering intravenous dopamine (Intropin) to a patient in the intensive care unit. Which assessment finding would cause the most concern?

A) Blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg

B) Increased urine output

C) Edema at the IV insertion site

D) Headache

Q3) Because they cause vasoconstriction, alpha₁-adrenergic agonists are especially useful for:

A) extending the duration of local anesthetics.

B) producing mydriasis to facilitate ophthalmic examinations.

C) slowing the heart rate in tachycardic patients.

D) treating hypotension.

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse prepares to administer propranolol (Inderal) to a patient recovering from acute myocardial infarction. The patient's heart rate is 52 beats per minute, and the rhythm is regular. What action should the nurse take next?

A) Administer the drug as prescribed.

B) Request an order for atropine.

C) Withhold the dose and document the pulse rate.

D) Withhold the dose and notify the prescriber.

Q2) A patient with pheochromocytoma is admitted for surgery. The surgeon has ordered an alpha-blocking agent to be given preoperatively. What does the nurse understand about this agent?

A) It is ordered to prevent perioperative hypertensive crisis.

B) It prevents secretion of catecholamines by the adrenal tumor.

C) It reduces contraction of smooth muscles in the adrenal medulla.

D) It is given chronically after the surgery to prevent hypertension.

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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the pharmacology of methyldopa. Which statement by a student indicates the need for further teaching?

A) "Methyldopa results in alpha₂ agonist activation, but it is not itself an alpha₂ agonist."

B) "Methyldopa is not effective until it is converted to an active compound."

C) "Methyldopa reduces blood pressure by reducing cardiac output."

D) "Methyldopa's principal mechanism is vasodilation, not cardiosuppression."

Q2) A prescriber orders transdermal clonidine (Catapres TTS) for a patient with hypertension. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) That medication given by transdermal patch has fewer systemic side effects

B) That localized skin reactions are uncommon

C) To apply the patch to intact skin on the forearm or leg

D) To change the patch every week

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Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System

Pharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students how the CNS adapts to psychotherapeutic medications. Which statement by a nursing student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Adaptation can lead to tolerance of these drugs with prolonged use."

B) "Adaptation helps explain how physical dependence occurs."

C) "Adaptation often must occur before therapeutic effects develop."

D) "Adaptation results in an increased sensitivity to side effects over time."

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of students about how CNS drugs are developed. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Central nervous system drug development relies on observations of their effects on human behavior."

B) "Studies of new central nervous system drugs in healthy subjects can produce paradoxical effects."

C) "Our knowledge of the neurochemical and physiologic changes that underlie mental illness is incomplete."

D) "These drugs are developed based on scientific knowledge of CNS transmitters and receptors."

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinsons Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nurses about Parkinson's medications. The nurse is correct to state that one side effect associated with pramipexole (Mirapex) that is less likely to occur with other dopamine agonists is:

A) sleep attacks.

B) dizziness.

C) hallucinations.

D) dyskinesias.

Q2) A nursing student wants to know why a patient who has been taking levodopa (Dopar) for years will now receive levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet). The nurse explains the reasons that levodopa as a single agent is no longer available. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further education?

A) "Carbidopa increases the availability of levodopa in the central nervous system."

B) "Carbidopa reduces the incidence of nausea and vomiting."

C) "Combination products reduce peripheral cardiovascular side effects."

D) "Combination products cause fewer dyskinesias and decreased psychosis."

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Chapter 22: Alzheimers Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will begin taking a cholinesterase inhibitor for early Alzheimer's disease. The nurse is teaching the patient's spouse about the medication. Which statement by the spouse indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Gastrointestinal symptoms are common with this medication."

B) "People taking this drug should not take antihistamines."

C) "This drug helps neurons that aren't already damaged to function better."

D) "This drug significantly slows the progression of the disease."

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the use of memantine (Namenda) for Alzheimer's disease. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Memantine is indicated for patients with mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease."

B) "Memantine modulates the effects of glutamate to alter calcium influx into neurons."

C) "Memantine prevents calcium from leaving neurons, which improves their function."

D) "When used with donepezil, memantine increases the amount of calcium in neuronal cells."

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24

Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Immunomodulator drugs have shown effectiveness for what? (Select all that apply.)

A) Preventing the development of MS

B) Primary progressive MS

C) Progressive-relapsing MS

D) Relapsing-remitting MS

E) Secondary progressive MS

Q2) A patient with multiple sclerosis is to begin treatment with interferon beta. The patient comes to the clinic to have pretreatment laboratory tests. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about these tests?

A) "After the first year of treatment, I will need once yearly blood work."

B) "I will need to have lab tests done every 3 months for the first year."

C) "If my liver function tests are abnormal, I will need to stop using this drug."

D) "These lab tests will measure liver and bone marrow function."

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Chapter 24: Drugs for Epilepsy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is assessing a patient who becomes motionless and seems to stare at the wall and then experiences about 60 seconds of lip smacking and hand wringing. What should the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient about a history of absence seizures.

B) Contact the provider to report symptoms of a complex partial seizure.

C) Notify the provider that the patient has had a grand mal seizure.

D) Request an order for intravenous diazepam (Valium) to treat status epilepticus.

Q2) A nurse is providing teaching to a patient newly diagnosed with partial seizures who will begin taking oxcarbazepine (Trileptal). The patient also takes furosemide (Lasix) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I may need to increase my dose of Trileptal while taking these medications."

B) "I may develop a rash and itching, but these are not considered serious."

C) "I should report any nausea, drowsiness, and headache to my provider."

D) "I should use salt substitutes instead of real salt while taking these drugs."

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26

Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is admitting a patient to the hospital. The patient reports taking oral baclofen (Lioresal) but stopped taking the drug the day before admission. The nurse would be correct to anticipate which adverse effects?

A) Weakness and dizziness

B) Fatigue and drowsiness

C) Seizures and hallucinations

D) Respiratory depression and coma

Q2) Which patient should receive dantrolene (Dantrium) with caution?

A) A 20-year-old woman with a spinal cord injury

B) A 45-year-old man with a history of malignant hyperthermia

C) A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis

D) An 8-year-old child with cerebral palsy

Q3) A nurse is teaching the parent of a child with spastic quadriplegia about intrathecal baclofen (Lioresal). Which statement by the parent indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I can expect my child to be more drowsy when receiving this medication."

B) "I should not notice any change in my child's muscle strength."

C) "I will contact the provider if my child is constipated or cannot urinate."

D) "If my child has a seizure, I should stop giving the medication immediately."

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Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Vasoconstrictors are combined with local anesthetics for which reasons? (Select all that apply.)

A) To enhance absorption

B) To reduce the risk of toxicity

C) To prevent bradycardia

D) To shorten the duration of action

E) To prolong anesthesia

Q2) A nurse is discussing the use of cocaine as a local anesthetic with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of this agent?

A) "Anesthetic effects develop slowly and persist for several hours."

B) "Cocaine is a local anesthetic administered by injection."

C) "Vasoconstrictors should not be used as adjunct agents with this drug."

D) "When abused, cocaine causes physical dependence."

Q3) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about local anesthetics. Which statement by a student reflects an understanding of the teaching?

A) "Local anesthetics affect large myelinated neurons first."

B) "Local anesthetics affect motor and sensory nerves."

C) "Local anesthetics do not block temperature perception."

D) "Local anesthetics do not cause systemic effects."

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Page 28

Chapter 27: General Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse administers atropine to a patient before induction of anesthesia for a surgical procedure. When evaluating the effects of this medication, the nurse will:

A) assess for excessive bronchial secretions.

B) expect a reduction in the patient's anxiety.

C) monitor the patient's heart rate.

D) observe for muscle paralysis.

Q2) A patient will receive intravenous midazolam (Versed) combined with fentanyl while undergoing an endoscopic procedure. The nurse is explaining the reasons for this to a nursing student before the procedure. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "The patient may appear anxious and restless during the procedure."

B) "The patient will be unconscious during the procedure."

C) "The patient will not need cardiorespiratory support during the procedure."

D) "The patient will not remember the procedure."

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Chapter 28: Opioid Narcotic Analgesics, Opioid

Antagonists, and Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31088

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with chronic pain has been receiving morphine sulfate but now has decreased pain. The prescriber changes the medication to pentazocine (Talwin). The nurse will monitor the patient for:

A) euphoria.

B) hypotension.

C) respiratory depression.

D) yawning and sweating.

Q2) A patient with moderate to severe chronic pain has been taking oxycodone (OxyContin) 60 mg every 6 hours PRN for several months and tells the nurse that the medication is not as effective as before. The patient asks if something stronger can be taken. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:

A) administering a combination opioid analgesic/acetaminophen preparation.

B) changing the medication to a continued-release preparation.

C) confronting the patient about drug-seeking behaviors.

D) withdrawing the medication, because physical dependence has occurred.

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Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients With Cancer

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has had cancer for 1 year uses a fentanyl transdermal patch for pain relief. The patient reports having three or four episodes of pain (which she rates as 8 or 9 on a scale of 1 to 10) each day, and each episode lasts 15 to 30 minutes. The nurse will contact the provider to:

A) discuss the use of an adjuvant analgesic.

B) request an order for an NSAID.

C) request a strong, short-acting opioid PRN.

D) suggest increasing the dose of fentanyl.

Q2) A patient is taking hydrocodone and ibuprofen for cancer pain and is admitted to the hospital for chemotherapy. The nurse anticipates that the prescriber will _____ ibuprofen.

A) reduce the dose of B) discontinue the C) increase the dose of D) order aspirin (ASA) instead of

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Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache

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10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who uses ergotamine (Ergomar) to abort migraine headaches reports nausea and vomiting with the headaches. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) "Ask your provider about using another antimigraine medication."

B) "Nausea and vomiting are signs of ergotamine toxicity."

C) "These symptoms occur with migraine headaches and will diminish over time."

D) "You should talk to your provider about an adjunct antiemetic medication."

Q2) A patient who has occasional migraine headaches tells a nurse that the abortive medication works well, but she would like to do more to prevent the occurrence of these headaches. The nurse will suggest that the patient:

A) ask the provider about an adjunct medication, such as prochlorperazine.

B) discuss the use of prophylactic medications with the provider.

C) keep a headache diary to help determine possible triggers.

D) take the abortive medication regularly instead of PRN.

Q3) Supplemental oxygen has been shown to help reduce symptoms for which type of headache?

A) Cluster

B) Menstrual migraine

C) Migraine

D) Tension-type

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Page 32

Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia

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14 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are negative symptoms of schizophrenia? (Select all that apply.)

A) Delusions

B) Disordered thinking

C) Poor judgment

D) Poor self-care

E) Poverty of speech

Q2) A patient who is taking an antipsychotic drug for schizophrenia comes to the clinic for evaluation. The nurse observes that the patient has a shuffling gait and tremors and is drooling. The nurse will ask the patient's provider about which course of action?

A) Administering a direct dopamine antagonist

B) Giving an anticholinergic medication

C) Increasing the dose of the antipsychotic drug

D) Stopping the antipsychotic drug

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33

Chapter 32: Antidepressants

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient taking fluoxetine (Prozac) complains of decreased sexual interest. A prescriber orders a "drug holiday." What teaching by the nurse would best describe a drug holiday?

A) "Cut the tablet in half anytime to reduce the dosage."

B) "Discontinue the drug for 1 week."

C) "Don't take the medication on Friday and Saturday."

D) "Take the drug every other day."

Q2) A patient has been taking fluoxetine (Prozac) for 11 months and reports feeling cured of depression. The nurse learns that the patient is sleeping well, participates in usual activities, and feels upbeat and energetic most of the time. The patient's weight has returned to normal. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) Indefinite drug therapy is necessary to maintain remission.

B) Discuss gradual withdrawal of the medication with the provider.

C) Stop the drug while remaining alert for the return of symptoms.

D) Take a drug holiday to see whether symptoms recur.

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34

Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a hospitalized patient who has been taking lithium (Lithobid) for 3 days. The patient is complaining of mild nausea and abdominal bloating. The patient's lithium level is 0.8 mEq/L. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the dose and tell the patient that the side effects are temporary.

B) Contact the prescriber to request an order for serum electrolytes.

C) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber of the patient's lithium level.

D) Request an order for amiloride (Midamor).

Q2) A patient with bipolar disorder who is taking divalproex sodium (Valproate) has just been admitted to the hospital. During the admission assessment, the patient tells the nurse about recent suicidal ideation. The nurse observes several areas of bruising over soft tissue areas and notes a weight gain of 10 pounds since the last admission 1 year ago. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient whether the bruises are self-inflicted.

B) Contact the provider to report these findings.

C) Give the patient information about weight loss.

D) Request an order for an increased dose to help with depressive symptoms.

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Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who travels frequently for business reports occasional instances of being unable to fall asleep. The patient tells the nurse that job demands require staying up late and then getting up early for meetings. The nurse expects that the provider will prescribe which medication for this patient?

A) Flurazepam

B) Trazodone (Desyrel)

C) Zaleplon (Sonata)

D) Zolpidem (Ambien)

Q2) A hospitalized patient who is given one dose of flurazepam continues to show drowsiness the next day. A nursing student asks the nurse the reason for this, because the drug's half-life is only 2 to 3 hours. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Benzodiazepines commonly cause residual effects lasting into the day after the dose is given."

B) "The patient is having a paradoxical reaction to this medication."

C) "This patient must have developed a previous tolerance to benzodiazepines."

D) "When this drug is metabolized, the resulting compound has longer lasting effects."

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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient describes feelings of anxiety and fear when speaking in front of an audience and is having difficulty at work because of an inability to present information at meetings three or four times each year. The patient is reluctant to take long-term medications. The nurse will expect the provider to order which treatment?

A) Alprazolam (Xanax) as needed

B) Cognitive behavioral therapy

C) Paroxetine (Paxil)

D) Psychotherapy

Q2) A nurse is preparing a patient to change from taking lorazepam (Ativan) for anxiety to buspirone (Buspar). Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I can drink alcohol when taking Buspar, but not grapefruit juice."

B) "I may need to use a sedative medication if I experience insomnia."

C) "I may not feel the effects of Buspar for a few weeks."

D) "I should stop taking the Ativan when I start taking the Buspar."

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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and

Attention-Deficithyperactivity Disorder

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching the parents of a child who has attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder about methylphenidate (Concerta). Which statement by the child's parents indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "The effects of this drug will wear off in 4 to 6 hours."

B) "The tablet needs to be swallowed whole, not crushed or chewed."

C) "This medication has fewer side effects than amphetamines."

D) "We should call the provider if we see parts of the medicine in our child's stools."

Q2) An adult patient will begin taking atomoxetine (Strattera) for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) Appetite suppression does not occur, because this drug is not a stimulant.

B) Stopping the drug abruptly will cause an abstinence syndrome.

C) Suicidal thoughts may occur and should be reported to the provider.

D) Therapeutic effects may not be felt for 1 or 2 weeks after beginning therapy.

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Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is ready for discharge home from a lengthy hospital stay after a motor vehicle accident. The patient suffered multiple fractures and required large doses of morphine for several weeks. The nurse preparing the patient for discharge notes that the patient requests the maximum dose of the oral opioid analgesic at the exact intervals it is prescribed. The nurse is correct to suspect that what has occurred?

A) Addiction

B) Compulsive drug seeking

C) Cross-tolerance

D) Drug tolerance

Q2) A patient who has been taking a medication with a side effect of drowsiness stops taking the medication after several weeks. The patient reports feeling anxious and jittery. The nurse understands that this response is due to:

A) addiction.

B) psychologic dependence.

C) tolerance.

D) withdrawal syndrome.

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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse 2: F Alcohol

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is an active alcoholic is admitted to the hospital for surgery. The nurse reviewing orders for this patient would be correct to question which postoperative medication for this patient?

A) Acetaminophen

B) Diazepam

C) Morphine

D) Thiamine

Q2) A nurse is discussing alcohol abuse with a group of nursing students. One student asks whether alcohol consumption has any beneficial effects. The nurse replies that, in moderate amounts, alcohol: A) helps people to sleep well. B) improves sexual responsiveness.

C) may protect against dementia. D) prevents hypothermia.

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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse I2: F Nicotine and Smoking

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who wants to quit smoking has a prescription for varenicline (Chantix), which will be used with a nicotine patch. The patient asks the nurse why the varenicline is necessary. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "It helps patients experiencing withdrawal to sleep better."

B) "It helps reduce anxiety and other withdrawal symptoms."

C) "It will help reduce the likelihood of addiction to the patch."

D) "The drug blocks nicotine's access to 'pleasure' receptors."

Q2) A patient with a desire to stop smoking asks a nurse about nicotine chewing gum (Nicorette). The patient currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "Stop using the gum 6 months after you stop using cigarettes."

B) "Use the 4-mg strength gum and chew one piece every 2 to 3 hours."

C) "Use the gum whenever you feel a craving for a cigarette."

D) "You should start with 30 pieces of the 2-mg strength gum per day."

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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse Iv: Major Drugs of Abuse Other

Than Alcohol and Nicotine

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Sample Questions

Q1) A young adult patient is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of severe weight loss. The nurse admitting this patient notes that the patient has missing teeth and severe tooth decay. The patient's blood pressure is 160/98 mm Hg. The patient has difficulty answering questions and has trouble remembering simple details. The nurse suspects abuse of which substance?

A) Cocaine

B) Ecstasy

C) Marijuana

D) Methamphetamine

Q2) In discussing the rationale for using methadone to ease opioid withdrawal, the nurse would explain that it has which pharmacologic properties or characteristics?

A) Methadone can prevent abstinence syndrome.

B) Methadone has a shorter duration of action than other opioids.

C) Methadone is a nonopioid agent.

D) Methadone lacks cross-tolerance with other opioids.

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42

Chapter 41: Diuretics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse preparing to administer morning medications notes that a patient with a history of hypertension has been prescribed the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor captopril (Capoten) concurrently with spironolactone (Aldactone). Morning laboratory results reveal a serum sodium level of 144 mg/dL, a serum potassium level of 5.1 mEq/L, and a blood glucose level of 128 mg/dL. Which intervention is appropriate?

A) Administer the medications as ordered.

B) Ask the patient about the use of salt substitutes.

C) Contact the provider to report the laboratory values.

D) Request an order for furosemide (Lasix).

Q2) A patient with chronic congestive heart failure has repeated hospitalizations in spite of ongoing treatment with hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and digoxin. The prescriber has ordered spironolactone (Aldactone) to be added to this patient's drug regimen, and the nurse provides education about this medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I can expect improvement within a few hours after taking this drug."

B) "I need to stop taking potassium supplements."

C) "I should use salt substitutes to prevent toxic side effects."

D) "I should watch closely for dehydration."

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Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who was injured at home is brought to the emergency department. The nurse caring for this patient notes a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 90 beats per minute. The injuries are minor, but the patient is inconsolable and hysterical. The nurse expects that initial management will include:

A) administering a gas mixture of 5% carbon dioxide (CO₂).

B) providing 100% oxygen via nasal cannula.

C) giving sodium bicarbonate IV.

D) providing sedatives to calm the patient.

Q2) A patient with congestive heart failure is admitted to the hospital. During the admission assessment, the nurse learns that the patient is taking a thiazide diuretic. The nurse notes that the admission electrolyte levels include a sodium level of 142 mEq/L, a chloride level of 95 mEq/L, and a potassium level of 3 mEq/L. The prescriber has ordered digoxin to be given immediately. What will the nurse do initially?

A) Give the digoxin and maintain close cardiac monitoring.

B) Hold the digoxin and report the laboratory values to the provider.

C) Hold the thiazide diuretic and give the digoxin.

D) Request an order for an electrocardiogram (ECG).

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Page 44

Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a nursing student how blood can return to the heart when pressure in the venous capillary beds is very low. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Constriction of small muscles in the venous wall increases venous pressure."

B) "Negative pressure in the left atrium draws blood toward the heart."

C) "Skeletal muscles relax to allow the free flow of blood."

D) "Venous valves help prevent the backflow of blood."

Q2) A patient is taking a beta₁-adrenergic drug to improve the stroke volume of the heart. The nurse caring for this patient knows that this drug acts by increasing:

A) cardiac afterload.

B) cardiac preload.

C) myocardial contractility.

D) venous return.

Q3) A patient is taking a drug that interferes with venous constriction. The nurse will tell the patient to:

A) ask for assistance when getting out of bed.

B) expect bradycardia for a few days.

C) notify the provider if headache occurs.

D) report shortness of breath.

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Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A prescriber orders ramipril (Altace) for an obese patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has developed hypertension. The nurse provides teaching before dismissing the patient home. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I am less likely to develop diabetic nephropathy when taking this medication."

B) "I should check my blood sugar more often, because hyperglycemia is a side effect of this drug."

C) "Taking this medication helps reduce my risk of stroke and heart attack."

D) "This medication will probably prevent the development of diabetic retinopathy."

Q2) A patient who is taking furosemide (Lasix) and digoxin will begin taking captopril (Capoten). The nurse is providing information about the drug. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I can use acetaminophen for analgesia if needed."

B) "I should stop taking the Lasix about a week before starting the Capoten."

C) "I should take this medication on a full stomach."

D) "I will need to have blood tests done every 2 weeks for a few months."

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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which are therapeutic uses for verapamil? (Select all that apply.)

A) Angina of effort

B) Cardiac dysrhythmias

C) Essential hypertension

D) Sick sinus syndrome

E) Suppression of preterm labor

Q2) A nurse is preparing to assist a nursing student in administering intravenous verapamil to a patient who also receives a beta blocker. The nurse asks the nursing student to discuss the plan of care for this patient. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I will check to see when the last dose of the beta blocker was given."

B) "I will monitor vital signs closely to assess for hypotension."

C) "I will monitor the heart rate frequently to assess for reflex tachycardia."

D) "I will prepare to administer intravenous norepinephrine if necessary."

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Chapter 46: Vasodilators

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking a vasodilator that dilates capacitance vessels. The nurse will expect which effect in this patient?

A) Decrease in cardiac work

B) Increase in cardiac output

C) Increase in tissue perfusion

D) Increase in venous return

Q2) Which medications are most likely to cause postural hypotension? (Select all that apply.)

A) Minoxidil

B) Diltiazem (Cardizem)

C) Prazosin (Minipress)

D) Captopril (Capoten)

E) Losartan (Cozaar)

Q3) A nurse is administering a vasodilator that dilates resistance vessels. The nurse understands that this drug will have which effect on the patient?

A) Decreased cardiac preload

B) Decreased cardiac output

C) Increased tissue perfusion

D) Increased ventricular contraction

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Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking clonidine for hypertension and reports having dry mouth and drowsiness. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) Beta blockers can reverse these side effects.

B) Discontinue the medication immediately and notify the provider.

C) Drink extra fluids and avoid driving when drowsy.

D) Notify the provider if symptoms persist after several weeks.

Q2) A nurse is discussing how beta blockers work to decrease blood pressure with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Beta blockers block the actions of angiotensin II."

B) "Beta blockers decrease heart rate and contractility."

C) "Beta blockers decrease peripheral vascular resistance."

D) "Beta blockers decrease the release of renin."

Q3) A patient has three separate blood pressure (BP) readings of 120/100 mm Hg, 138/92 mm Hg, and 126/96 mm Hg. Which category describes this patient's BP?

A) Hypertension

B) Isolated systolic hypertension

C) Normal

D) Prehypertension

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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure

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Sample Questions

Q1) A man asks a nurse why he cannot use digoxin (Lanoxin) for his heart failure, because both of his parents used it for HF. The nurse will explain that digoxin is not first-line therapy for which reason?

A) It causes tachycardia and increases the cardiac workload.

B) It does not correct the underlying pathology of heart failure.

C) It has a wide therapeutic range that makes dosing difficult.

D) It may actually shorten the patient's life expectancy.

Q2) A patient with moderate heart failure begins taking a thiazide diuretic. The nurse will tell the patient to expect which outcome when taking this drug?

A) Improved exercise tolerance

B) Increased cardiac output

C) Prevention of cardiac remodeling

D) Prolonged survival

Q3) Which are expected effects of cardiac glycosides? (Select all that apply.)

A) Decreased cardiac output

B) Decreased force of contraction

C) Decreased heart rate

D) Modulation of neurohormonal systems

E) Positive inotropic effects

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Page 50

Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) and quinidine to treat sustained ventricular tachycardia. Before giving medications, the nurse reviews the patient's electrocardiogram (ECG) and notes a QRS complex that has widened by 50% from the baseline ECG. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the medications as ordered, because this indicates improvement.

B) Contact the provider to discuss reducing the digoxin dose.

C) Contact the provider to request an increase in the quinidine dose.

D) Withhold the quinidine and contact the provider to report the ECG finding.

Q2) A patient is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) and develops a dysrhythmia. The nurse reports this finding to the prescriber, who will most likely order what? (Select all that apply.)

A) Amiodarone

B) Diltiazem

C) Phenytoin (Dilantin)

D) Quinidine

E) Serum electrolytes

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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Coronary Heart Disease: Drugs

That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is reviewing the medications of a patient with diabetes before discharge. The nurse realizes that the patient will be going home on colesevelam, a bile acid sequestrant, and insulin. What patient education should the nurse provide in the discharge teaching for this patient?

A) The patient needs to monitor the blood sugar carefully, because colesevelam can cause hypoglycemia.

B) The patient needs to monitor the blood sugar carefully, because colesevelam can cause hyperglycemia.

C) The patient needs to take the insulin at least 3 hours before the colesevelam.

D) The patient needs to use an oral antidiabetic agent or agents, not insulin, with colesevelam.

Q2) A patient with malaise has been taking daptomycin (Cubicin) for an infection and is concurrently taking simvastatin (Zocor). The nurse should be concerned if the patient complains of:

A) nausea.

B) tiredness.

C) muscle pain.

D) headache.

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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris

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Q1) A patient with stable exertional angina has been receiving a beta blocker. Before giving the drug, the nurse notes a resting heart rate of 55 beats per minute. Which is an appropriate nursing action?

A) Administer the drug as ordered, because this is a desired effect.

B) Withhold the dose and notify the provider of the heart rate.

C) Request an order for a lower dose of the medication.

D) Request an order to change to another antianginal medication.

Q2) A nurse provides teaching to a patient with angina who also has type 2 diabetes mellitus, asthma, and hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "An ACE inhibitor, in addition to nitroglycerin, will lower my risk of cardiovascular death."

B) "Beta blockers can help control hypertension."

C) "I should begin regular aerobic exercise."

D) "Long-acting, slow-release calcium channel blockers can help with anginal pain."

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53

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Sample Questions

Q1) A postoperative patient will begin anticoagulant therapy with rivaroxaban (Xarelta) after knee replacement surgery. The nurse performs a history and learns that the patient is taking erythromycin. The patient's creatinine clearance is 50 mL/min. The nurse will:

A) administer the first dose of rivaroxaban as ordered.

B) notify the provider to discuss changing the patient's antibiotic.

C) request an order for a different anticoagulant medication.

D) request an order to increase the dose of rivaroxaban.

Q2) A patient who is taking clopidogrel (Plavix) calls the nurse to report black, tarry stools and coffee-ground emesis. The nurse will tell the patient to:

A) ask the provider about using aspirin instead of clopidogrel.

B) consume a diet high in vitamin K.

C) continue taking the clopidogrel until talking to the provider.

D) stop taking the clopidogrel immediately.

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Chapter 53: Management of St-Elevation Myocardial

Infarction

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is giving aspirin to a patient during acute management of STEMI. The patient asks why a chewable tablet is given. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Aspirin is absorbed more quickly when it is chewed."

B) "Chewing aspirin prevents it from being metabolized by the liver."

C) "Chewing aspirin prevents stomach irritation."

D) "More of the drug is absorbed when aspirin is chewed."

Q2) A patient has undergone a PCI, and the provider orders clopidogrel to be given for 12 months, along with an ACE inhibitor and heparin. What will the nurse do?

A) Question the need for heparin.

B) Request an order for a beta blocker.

C) Request an order for aspirin.

D) Suggest ordering clopidogrel for 14 days.

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Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31114

Sample Questions

Q1) A child with moderate hemophilia A who weighs 20 kg is admitted to the hospital after a knee injury with bleeding into the joint. The nurse will expect the provider to order which medication?

A) Advate 400 units IV over 10 minutes

B) Benefix 800 units slow IV push

C) Desmopressin 6 mcg IV over 15 to 30 minutes

D) Tranexamic acid (Cyklokapron) 200 mg IV

Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient with hemophilia A who has been admitted for bleeding into the knee joint. The prescriber has ordered intravenous factor VIIa (NovoSeven RT). A nursing student wants to know why this patient is not receiving factor VIII. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "Factor VIIa is stronger than factor VIII and will work faster."

B) "Factor VIII is used for prophylaxis, and factor VIIa is used for acute episodes."

C) "Factor VIIa is used when patients develop antibodies against factor VIII."

D) "Factor VIIa provides immune tolerance therapy so that factor VIII will be more effective."

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56

Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31115

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient was given a 30-day supply of Feosol and has been taking the drug for 4 weeks for iron deficiency anemia. The patient's initial hemoglobin was 8.9 gm/dL. The nurse notes that the hemoglobin has risen to 9.7 gm/dL. What will the nurse ask the patient about?

A) Dietary iron intake

B) Gastrointestinal (GI) upset

C) Whether stools have been tarry or black

D) Whether the prescription needs to be refilled

Q2) A 12-year-old female patient is admitted to the hospital before sinus surgery. The nurse preparing to care for this patient notes that the admission hemoglobin is 10.2 gm/dL, and the hematocrit is 32%. The nurse will ask the child's parents which question about their daughter?

A) "Does she eat green, leafy vegetables?"

B) "Has she begun menstruating?"

C) "Is she a vegetarian?"

D) "Is there a chance she might be pregnant?"

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Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31116

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is about to undergo a procedure to harvest hematopoietic stem cells from the bone marrow. Which medication will the nurse anticipate giving before this procedure?

A) Filgrastim (Neupogen)

B) Pegfilgrastim (Neulasta)

C) Oprelvekin (Neumega)

D) Sargramostim (Leukine)

Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient with chronic renal failure who will begin receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) about this drug therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "If I have to start dialysis, I will have to stop taking this drug."

B) "Taking this drug should eliminate my need for blood transfusions."

C) "Taking this medication will prevent the need for dialysis in the future."

D) "When I take this, my serum ferritin levels will increase."

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Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31117

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse provides dietary counseling for a patient newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. Which instruction should be included?

A) "You may eat any foods you want and cover the glucose increase with sliding scale, regular insulin."

B) "Most of the calories you eat should be in the form of protein to promote fat breakdown and preserve muscle mass."

C) "Your total caloric intake should not exceed 1800 calories in a 24-hour period."

D) "Most of your calories should be in the form of carbohydrates and monounsaturated fats."

Q2) A nurse is educating the staff nurses about ketoacidosis. To evaluate the group's understanding, the nurse asks, "Which sign and symptoms would not be consistent with ketoacidosis?" The group gives which correct answer?

A) Blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL

B) Blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL

C) Acidosis

D) Ketones in the urine

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Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31118

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with hypothyroidism begins taking PO levothyroxine (Synthroid). The nurse assesses the patient at the beginning of the shift and notes a heart rate of 62 beats per minute and a temperature of 97.2° F. The patient is lethargic and difficult to arouse. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order for which drug?

A) Beta blocker

B) Increased dose of PO levothyroxine

C) Intravenous levothyroxine

D) Methimazole (Tapazole)

Q2) A patient has a free T₄ level of 0.6 ng/dL and a free T₃ of 220 pg/dL. The patient asks the nurse what these laboratory values mean. How will the nurse respond?

A) "These laboratory values indicate that you may have Graves' disease."

B) "These results suggest you may have hyperthyroidism."

C) "We will need to obtain a total T₄ and a total T₃ to tell for sure."

D) "We will need to obtain a TSH level to better evaluate your diagnosis."

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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31119

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse teaches a nursing student about the differences between desmopressin (DDAVP) and vasopressin (Pitressin). Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Desmopressin has a shorter duration of action than vasopressin."

B) "Desmopressin is easier to administer than vasopressin."

C) "Vasopressin can be used in cardiac resuscitation."

D) "Vasopressin can cause serious adverse cardiovascular effects."

Q2) A 7-year-old child who is otherwise healthy is receiving mecasermin (Increlex) replacement therapy to treat severe primary deficiency of insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1). The child develops tonsillar hypertrophy. The nurse anticipates that the provider will recommend:

A) antibiotics.

B) reducing the dose of mecasermin.

C) discontinuing the mecasermin.

D) tonsillectomy.

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Page 61

Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31120

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has been taking 25 mg of hydrocortisone each morning for several months reports feeling fatigued late in the day each day. What will the nurse tell the patient to discuss with the provider?

A) Adding a mineralocorticoid to the drug regimen

B) Assessing serum electrolytes to check for toxicity

C) Increasing the dose to 50 mg daily

D) Splitting the daily dose into a morning and an evening dose

Q2) A patient is admitted with nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. The patient appears emaciated and complains of feeling weak. The nurse notes a heart rate of 98 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 88/54 mm Hg. The nurse reviews the chart and notes an increased serum potassium level and a decreased serum sodium level. The nurse expects the provider to order which medication initially?

A) Cosyntropin (Cortrosyn)

B) Dexamethasone

C) Fludrocortisone (Florinef)

D) Hydrocortisone

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Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and

Noncontraceptive Applications

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31121

Sample Questions

Q1) A postmenopausal patient who has had a hysterectomy and who has a family history of coronary heart disease reports experiencing vaginal dryness and pain with intercourse, but tells the nurse that she doesn't want to take hormones because she is afraid of adverse effects. The nurse will suggest that the woman asks her provider about:

A) Depo Provera.

B) Estraderm.

C) low-dose estrogens.

D) Premarin vaginal.

Q2) A patient with osteopenia asks a nurse about the benefits of hormone therapy in preventing osteoporosis. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "Estrogen can help reverse bone loss."

B) "Hormone therapy increases bone resorption."

C) "Hormone therapy does not decrease fracture risk."

D) "When hormone therapy is discontinued, bone mass is quickly lost."

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Chapter 62: Birth Control

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31122

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient calls a family planning clinic and tells the nurse that her vaginal ring, which has been in place for 2 weeks, came out sometime during the night while she was sleeping. The nurse will instruct her to:

A) clean the ring with warm water, reinsert it, and use condoms for 7 days.

B) discard the ring and insert a new ring after 1 week has passed.

C) discard the ring and insert a new one to begin a new cycle.

D) wash the ring in hot, soapy water and reinsert it.

Q2) A nurse working in a family planning clinic is teaching a class on intrauterine devices (IUDs). Which patient should be advised against using an IUD for contraception?

A) A 45-year-old married woman with four children

B) A 30-year-old monogamous married woman

C) An 18-year-old woman with multiple sexual partners

D) A 35-year-old woman with a history of rosacea

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64

Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31123

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has endometriosis has been unable to conceive. She asks the nurse about medications to treat the condition. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) Combination oral contraceptives are effective for improving fertility.

B) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists are used for long-term treatment.

C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are second-line agents for treating pain.

D) Pharmacologic agents used to treat endometriosis do not enhance fertility.

Q2) An infertile patient has received two 5-day courses of clomiphene (Clomid) to help her conceive. An ultrasound 1 week after the last dose reveals that follicular maturation has occurred without ovulation. The nurse expects the next step for this patient to be:

A) administration of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).

B) an order for cabergoline to be given twice weekly.

C) evaluation of ovarian and pituitary function.

D) repeating clomiphene once daily for 5 days.

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65

Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31124

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is having her sixth child has gone beyond term, and her labor is being induced with oxytocin (Pitocin). The patient is having increased frequency, duration, and intensity of contractions. The nurse will interrupt the oxytocin infusion if what occurs?

A) Contractions occur every 2 to 3 minutes.

B) Individual contractions last 2 minutes.

C) Mild to moderate pain occurs with uterine contractions.

D) Resting intrauterine pressure is greater than 10 to 15 mm Hg.

Q2) Which are indications for early induction of labor? (Select all that apply.)

A) Abruptio placentae

B) Active genital herpes infection

C) Gestational hypertension

D) Premature rupture of the membranes

E) Umbilical cord prolapse

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Chapter 65: Androgens

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31125

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a male adult patient about the use of testosterone gel. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A) "I should apply this to my forearms and neck after showering."

B) "I should keep treated areas exposed to the air so that they can dry."

C) "I should not let my child touch the gel to prevent behavioral problems."

D) "I should not swim or bathe for 3 to 4 hours after applying the gel."

Q2) A clinic nurse is assessing an adolescent male patient who has been receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism via a transdermal patch. The patient's last clinic visit was 4 weeks earlier. Which part of the interval history is of most concern to the nurse?

A) Five pound weight gain

B) Rash at the site of the patch

C) Breast enlargement

D) Presence of acne

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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign

Prostatic Hyperplasia

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9 Verified Questions

9 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31126

Sample Questions

Q1) A 68-year-old male patient receives a prescription for 25-mg tablets of sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. When he asks the nurse how to take the medication, the nurse will tell him to:

A) begin taking one tablet twice daily, 12 hours apart.

B) start with one tablet about 1 hour before anticipated sexual activity.

C) take 25 to 100 mg per dose 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity.

D) take two tablets 1 hour before sexual activity with a high-fat meal.

Q2) A male patient tells the nurse he awakens once or twice each night to void and has difficulty starting his stream of urine. He describes these symptoms as "annoying." The patient's provider examines him and notes that the prostate is moderately enlarged. The patient is sexually active and tells the nurse that he does not want to take any medication that will interfere with sexual function. The nurse anticipates the provider will order:

A) doxazosin (Cardura).

B) finasteride (Proscar).

C) silodosin (Rapaflo).

D) a transurethral prostatectomy.

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Page 68

Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31127

Sample Questions

Q1) Which immune responses can result in harm to the body? (Select all that apply)

A) Activation of the complement system

B) Autoimmune response

C) IgE binding to mast cells and basophils

D) Opsonization

E) Recognition of MHC molecules as nonself

Q2) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about a specific acquired immunity system. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity are both types of specific acquired immune responses."

B) "Each exposure to an antigen causes a faster, more intense response."

C) "Immune responses occur only after exposure to a foreign substance."

D) "The skin is a factor in specific acquired immunity."

Q3) Which statement is true about helper T cells?

A) They are useful but are not essential to immune responses.

B) They do not play a role in antibody production.

C) They have highly specific receptors to antigens on their surface.

D) They prevent CD4 molecules from attaching to antigens.

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Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31128

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse at an immunization clinic is providing vaccines to children. The parent of a child waiting to receive vaccines tells the nurse that the child has an immune deficiency disorder. The nurse understands that which vaccine should not be administered to this child?

A) Diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine

B) Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccine

C) Polio injection

D) Varicella virus vaccine

Q2) The parent of a child receiving the polio vaccine wants to know why the oral polio vaccine (OPV) is not given. The nurse will explain to this parent that the oral preparation:

A) can cause paralytic poliomyelitis.

B) contains antigens that increase allergic reactions.

C) is less effective than the IPV.

D) is more expensive to administer.

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Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31129

Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student asks the nurse how antibodies provide immune suppression. The nurse responds by telling the student that antibodies:

A) block T-cell function.

B) boost immune responses.

C) reduce proliferation of B cells.

D) suppress interferon production.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who is about to undergo allograft transplantation of the liver. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the post-transplant medications?

A) "Immunosuppressants help reduce the risk of postoperative infection."

B) "I will need to have periodic laboratory work to assess for toxicity."

C) "I will need to take immunosuppressants until all signs of organ rejection are gone."

D) "These drugs will prevent organ rejection."

Q3) The nurse knows that which two immunosuppressants are the most effective?

A) Azathioprine (Imuran) and everolimus (Zortress)

B) Cyclosporine (Sandimmune) and tacrolimus (Prograf)

C) Methotrexate (Rheumatrex) and muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3)

D) Sirolimus (Rapamune) and methylprednisolone

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Chapter 70: Antihistamines

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31130

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is preparing for travel and reports having frequent motion sickness. The nurse will tell the patient to ask the provider about which antihistamine?

A) Desloratadine (Clarinex)

B) Diphenhydramine (Phenadoz)

C) Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)

D) Promethazine (Phenergan)

Q2) A patient is brought to the emergency department after ingesting a handful of diphenhydramine (Benadryl) tablets. The patient has dilated pupils, a flushed face, and tremors. The patient is agitated and has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute. The nurse may anticipate administering which agents? (Select all that apply.)

A) Activated charcoal

B) Cathartics

C) Diazepam

D) Phenytoin

E) Second-generation H1 antagonists

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Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal

Anti-Inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31131

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is taking acetaminophen for pain wants to know why it does not cause gastrointestinal upset, as do other over-the-counter pain medications. The nurse will explain that this is most likely because of which property of acetaminophen?

A) It does not inhibit cyclooxygenase.

B) It has minimal effects at peripheral sites.

C) It is more similar to opioids than to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

D) It is selective for cyclooxygenase-2.

Q2) A patient who reports regular consumption of two or three alcoholic beverages per day asks about taking acetaminophen when needed for occasional, recurrent pain. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) "Do not take more than 2 gm of acetaminophen a day."

B) "Do not take more than 3 gm of acetaminophen a day."

C) "Do not take more than 4 gm of acetaminophen a day."

D) "Do not take a fixed-dose preparation with opioid analgesics."

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Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31132

Sample Questions

Q1) A 60-year-old female patient is about to begin long-term therapy with a glucocorticoid. Which of the following will be important for minimizing the risk of osteoporosis?

A) Baseline vitamin D level

B) Calcium and vitamin D supplements

C) Estrogen therapy

D) Skeletal x-rays before treatment

Q2) A patient taking high doses of a glucocorticoid develops weakness in the muscles of the upper arms and in the legs. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to ask about reducing the dose.

B) Encourage the patient to restrict sodium intake.

C) Reassure the patient that this is an expected side effect.

D) Tell the patient to stop taking the drug.

Q3) A patient taking a glucocorticoid for arthritis reports feeling bloated. The nurse notes edema of the patient's hands and feet. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Ask the patient about sodium intake.

B) Obtain a blood glucose level.

C) Suggest the patient limit potassium intake.

D) Tell the patient to stop taking the drug.

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Page 74

Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis

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8 Verified Questions

8 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31133

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is beginning therapy with oral methotrexate (Rheumatrex) for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will teach this patient about the importance of:

A) having routine renal and hepatic function tests.

B) limiting folic acid consumption.

C) reporting alopecia and rash.

D) taking the medication on a daily basis.

Q2) A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is taking leflunomide (Arava) and an oral contraceptive. She tells the nurse she would like to get pregnant. What will the nurse tell her?

A) That leflunomide is not dangerous during the first trimester of pregnancy

B) That plasma levels of leflunomide will drop rapidly when she stops taking it

C) To ask her provider about an 11-day course of cholestyramine

D) To stop taking leflunomide when she stops using contraception

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Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout

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8 Verified Questions

8 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31134

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is being treated with warfarin (Coumadin) to prevent thrombus. The patient develops hyperuricemia, and the provider orders allopurinol (Zyloprim). The nurse will contact the provider to discuss _____ the _____ dose.

A) increasing; allopurinol

B) increasing; warfarin

C) reducing; allopurinol

D) reducing; warfarin

Q2) A patient with chronic gout is admitted to the hospital for treatment for an infection. The patient is receiving allopurinol and ampicillin. The nurse is preparing to administer medications and notes that the patient has a temperature of 101° F and a rash. What will the nurse do?

A) Withhold the allopurinol and notify the prescriber of the drug reaction.

B) Withhold the ampicillin and contact the provider to request a different antibiotic.

C) Request an order for an antihistamine to minimize the drug side effects.

D) Suggest giving a lower dose of the allopurinol while giving ampicillin.

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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone

Mineralization

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31135

Sample Questions

Q1) A 55-year-old female patient asks a nurse about calcium supplements. The nurse learns that the patient consumes two servings of dairy products each day. The patient's serum calcium level is 9.5 mg/dL. The serum vitamin D level is 18 ng/mL. The nurse will recommend adding _____ daily and _____ IU of vitamin D₃ each day.

A) 1200 mg of calcium once; 10,000

B) 1500 mg of calcium twice; 1000

C) 600 mg of calcium once; 10,000

D) 600 mg of calcium twice; 2000

Q2) A patient who takes teriparatide (Forteo) administers it subcutaneously with a prefilled pen injector. The patient asks why she must use a new pen every 28 days when there are doses left in the syringe. Which is the correct response by the nurse?

A) "Go ahead and use the remaining drug; I know it is so expensive."

B) "The drug may not be stable after 28 days."

C) "You are probably not giving the drug accurately."

D) "You should be giving the drug more frequently.

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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31136

Sample Questions

Q1) A young adult woman will begin using an inhaled glucocorticoid to treat asthma. The nurse will teach this patient about the importance of which action?

A) Lowering her calcium intake and increasing her vitamin D intake

B) Participating in weight-bearing exercises on a regular basis

C) Taking oral glucocorticoids during times of acute stress

D) Using two reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy

Q2) A patient with asthma is admitted to an emergency department with a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, a prolonged expiratory phase, tight wheezes, and an oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. The patient reports using fluticasone (Flovent HFA) 110 mcg twice daily and has used 2 puffs of albuterol (Proventil HFA), 90 mcg/puff, every 4 hours for 2 days. The nurse will expect to administer which drug?

A) Four puffs of albuterol, oxygen, and intravenous theophylline

B) Intramuscular glucocorticoids and salmeterol by metered-dose inhaler

C) Intravenous glucocorticoids, nebulized albuterol and ipratropium, and oxygen

D) Intravenous theophylline, oxygen, and fluticasone (Flovent HFA) 220 mcg

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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31137

Sample Questions

Q1) A child who has perennial allergic rhinitis has been using an intranasal glucocorticoid. The provider has ordered montelukast (Singulair) to replace the glucocorticoid, because the child has frequent nosebleeds. When teaching this child's parents about montelukast, the nurse will include which statement?

A) "Montelukast is also effective for treating infectious rhinitis."

B) "Montelukast may cause behavior changes in your child."

C) "Montelukast will treat both congestion and rhinitis."

D) "Montelukast works best when combined with a topical decongestant."

Q2) A parent asks a nurse to recommend an intranasal decongestant for a 6-year-old child. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Decongestants are too sedating for children and should not be used."

B) "Decongestants should not be given to children under 7 years old."

C) "Decongestant drops are recommended instead of decongestant sprays."

D) "Decongestant sprays should be used no longer than 5 to 10 days."

Q3) What is ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)?

A) A cholinergic agent used for perennial rhinitis

B) An anticholinergic used for allergic rhinitis and colds

C) A medication that is used only in patients with asthma

D) A drug that is inappropriate for use in patients with allergic rhinitis

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Page 79

Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31138

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient stops taking a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) after 6 weeks of therapy for treatment of peptic ulcer disease. The patient reports symptoms of dyspepsia to the nurse. The nurse will tell this patient to:

A) come to the clinic to be tested for Clostridium difficile.

B) resume taking the PPI, because long-term therapy is necessary.

C) resume taking the PPI until symptoms resolve completely.

D) try an antacid to see whether it relieves these symptoms.

Q2) A patient admitted to the hospital has a history of peptic ulcer disease. The patient takes ranitidine (Zantac) and sucralfate (Carafate). The patient tells the nurse that discomfort is usually controlled but that symptoms occasionally flare up. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the provider about ordering an endoscopic examination.

B) Contact the provider to discuss serologic testing and an antibiotic.

C) Contact the provider to discuss switching to a proton pump inhibitor.

D) Counsel the patient to avoid beverages containing caffeine.

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Chapter 79: Laxatives

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31139

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been taking senna (Senokot) for several days, and the nurse notes that the urine is yellowish-brown. What does the nurse know about this symptom?

A) It indicates that renal failure has occurred.

B) It is caused by dehydration, which is a laxative side effect.

C) It is a sign of toxicity, indicating immediate withdrawal of the drug.

D) It is an expected, harmless effect of senna.

Q2) A patient reports taking an oral bisacodyl laxative (Dulcolax) for several years. The provider has suggested discontinuing the laxative, but the patient is unsure how to do this. The nurse will tell the patient to:

A) stop taking the oral laxative and use a suppository until normal motility resumes.

B) stop taking the laxative immediately and expect no stool for several days.

C) switch to a bulk-forming laxative, such as methylcellulose (Metamucil).

D) withdraw from the laxative slowly to avoid a rebound constipation effect.

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Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31140

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse caring for a patient who is undergoing a third round of chemotherapy is preparing to administer ondansetron (Zofran) 30 minutes before initiation of the chemotherapy. The patient tells the nurse that the ondansetron did not work as well the last time as it had the first time. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the ondansetron at the same time as the chemotherapy.

B) Contact the provider to suggest using high-dose intravenous dolasetron (Anzemet).

C) Request an order to administer dexamethasone with the ondansetron.

D) Suggest to the provider that loperamide (Lomotil) be given with the ondansetron.

Q2) A patient who experiences motion sickness is about to go on a cruise. The prescriber orders transdermal scopolamine (Transderm Scop). The patient asks the nurse why an oral agent is not ordered. The nurse will explain that the transdermal preparation:

A) can be applied as needed at the first sign of nausea.

B) has less intense anticholinergic effects than the oral form.

C) is less sedating than the oral preparation.

D) provides direct effects, because it is placed close to the vestibular apparatus of the ear.

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Chapter 81: Vitamins

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31141

Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse working in the newborn nursery how vitamin K deficiency is treated in newborns. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "A newborn infant's intestinal flora will produce vitamin K."

B) "If coagulation studies show a bleeding disorder, oral menadione is given."

C) "Menadione is given intravenously shortly after delivery."

D) "Phytonadione is given intramuscularly immediately after delivery."

Q2) An adult who has been self-medicating, using nutritional therapy for an elevated cholesterol level, complains of repeated episodes of flushing. The nurse suspects that the patient has been taking:

A) niacin.

B) thiamin.

C) riboflavin.

D) pyridoxine.

Q3) A child is diagnosed with rickets. The nurse knows that this child is most likely deficient in which vitamin?

A) Niacin (nicotinic acid)

B) Thiamin (vitamin B₁)

C) Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)

D) Vitamin D

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Page 83

Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31142

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about the use of leptin for treating obesity. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Daily injections of leptin appear to stimulate weight loss in the majority of people who use it."

B) "Leptin acts to reduce appetite in patients who are known to be leptin deficient."

C) "Obese patients are almost always leptin deficient and would benefit from this therapy."

D) "Young patients receiving leptin to treat obesity will experience delayed puberty."

Q2) What are the benefits of a weight management program that includes regular exercise and good nutrition? (Select all that apply.)

A) Reduction of blood pressure in hypertensive patients

B) Prevention of type 1 diabetes

C) Increase in high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol

D) Reduction of the blood glucose level in individuals with type 2 diabetes

E) Increase in low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol

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Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31143

Sample Questions

Q1) A parent asks a nurse if the provider will prescribe an antibiotic for a child who attends school with several children who have strep throat. The child is complaining of a sore throat and has a fever. What will be the nurse's response?

A) "Because strep throat is likely, your child should be treated empirically."

B) "With good hand washing, your child should not get strep throat."

C) "Your child probably has strep throat, so your provider will order an antibiotic."

D) "Your child should come to the clinic to have a throat culture done today."

Q2) Which are benefits of using a combination of two or more antibiotics? (Select all that apply.)

A) Reduced cost

B) Reduced risk of suprainfection

C) Reduced toxicity

D) Reduced resistance

E) Reduced risk in severe infection

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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I:

Penicillins

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31144

Sample Questions

Q1) The parent of an infant with otitis media asks the nurse why the prescriber has ordered amoxicillin (Amoxil) and not ampicillin (Unasyn). What will the nurse tell the parent?

A) Amoxicillin is a broader spectrum antibiotic than ampicillin.

B) Amoxicillin is not inactivated by beta-lactamases.

C) Ampicillin is associated with more allergic reactions.

D) Ampicillin is not as acid stable as amoxicillin.

Q2) A patient has an infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The prescriber has ordered piperacillin and amikacin, both to be given intravenously. What will the nurse do?

A) Make sure to administer the drugs at different times using different IV tubing.

B) Suggest giving larger doses of piperacillin and discontinuing the amikacin.

C) Suggest that a fixed-dose combination of piperacillin and tazobactam (Zosyn) be used.

D) Watch the patient closely for allergic reactions, because this risk is increased with this combination.

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86

Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall 2: F

Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, Teicoplanin, and Fosfomycin

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient receiving a cephalosporin develops a secondary intestinal infection caused by Clostridium difficile. What is an appropriate treatment for this patient?

A) Adding an antibiotic, such as vancomycin (Vancocin), to the patient's regimen

B) Discontinuing the cephalosporin and beginning metronidazole (Flagyl)

C) Discontinuing all antibiotics and providing fluid replacement

D) Increasing the dose of the cephalosporin and providing isolation measures

Q2) A nurse is teaching a nursing student what is meant by "generations" of cephalosporins. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Cephalosporins are assigned to generations based on their relative costs to administer."

B) "Cephalosporins have increased activity against gram-negative bacteria with each generation."

C) "First-generation cephalosporins have better penetration of the cerebrospinal fluid."

D) "Later generations of cephalosporins have lower resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases."

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Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:

Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31146

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is providing teaching for a patient who will begin taking clarithromycin ER (Biaxin XL) to treat an Helicobacter pylori infection. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I may experience distorted taste when taking this medication."

B) "I should take 1 tablet twice daily for 10 days."

C) "I should take this medication on an empty stomach."

D) "This medication does not interact with other drugs."

Q2) A pregnant adolescent patient asks the nurse whether she should continue to take her prescription for tetracycline (Sumycin) to clear up her acne. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Tetracycline can be harmful to the baby's teeth and should be avoided."

B) "Tetracycline is safe to take during pregnancy."

C) "Tetracycline may cause allergic reactions in pregnant women."

D) "Tetracycline will prevent asymptomatic urinary tract infections."

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88

Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis

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17 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is taking gentamicin and a cephalosporin for a postoperative infection requests medication for mild postsurgical pain. The nurse will expect to administer which of the following medications?

A) Acetaminophen

B) Aspirin

C) Ibuprofen

D) Morphine

Q2) A patient shows signs and symptoms of conjunctivitis. Which aminoglycoside would the nurse expect to be ordered?

A) Amikacin (Amikin)

B) Kanamycin (Kantrex)

C) Neomycin (Neomycin)

D) Paromomycin (Humatin)

Q3) A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of gentamicin to a patient who is receiving the drug 3 times daily. The nurse will monitor _____ levels.

A) peak

B) peak and trough

C) serum drug

D) trough

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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will be discharged from the hospital with a prescription for TMP/SMZ (Bactrim). When providing teaching for this patient, the nurse will tell the patient that it will be important to:

A) drink 8 to 10 glasses of water each day.

B) eat foods that are high in potassium.

C) take the medication with food.

D) take folic acid supplements.

Q2) A nurse is caring for an African American patient who has been admitted to the unit for long-term antibiotic therapy with sulfonamides. The patient develops fever, pallor, and jaundice. The nurse would be correct to suspect that the patient has developed:

A) Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

B) kernicterus.

C) hepatotoxicity.

D) hemolytic anemia.

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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections

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14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31149

Sample Questions

Q1) Before giving methenamine (Hiprex) to a patient, it is important for the nurse to review the patient's history for evidence of which problem?

A) Elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine

B) History of reactions to antibiotic agents

C) Possibility of pregnancy

D) Previous resistance to antiseptic agents

Q2) A young, nonpregnant female patient with a history of a previous urinary tract infection is experiencing dysuria, urinary urgency and frequency, and suprapubic pain of 3 days' duration. She is afebrile. A urine culture is positive for more than 100,000/mL of urine. The nurse caring for this patient knows that which treatment is most effective?

A) A 14-day course of amoxicillin with clavulanic acid (Augmentin)

B) A 7-day course of ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

C) A single dose of fosfomycin (Monural)

D) A 3-day course of trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)

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Chapter

Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium Avium Complex

Infection

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20 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31150

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the problems associated with the long-term therapy required to treat tuberculosis. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Long-term therapy increases the emergence of drug-resistant organisms."

B) "Long-term therapy increases the incidence of drug toxicities."

C) "Long-term therapy increases the likelihood of reactivation of latent infection."

D) "Long-term therapy results in decreased patient adherence to drug regimens."

Q2) A patient is about to begin therapy with ethambutol. The nurse knows that, before initiating treatment with this drug, it is important to obtain which test(s)?

A) Color vision and visual acuity

B) Complete blood cell (CBC) count

C) Hearing testing and a tympanogram

D) Hepatic function tests

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Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:

Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins

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9 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is receiving intravenous ciprofloxacin for pneumonia develops diarrhea. A stool culture is positive for Clostridium difficile. The nurse will expect the provider to:

A) add metronidazole (Flagyl).

B) increase the dose of ciprofloxacin.

C) restrict dairy products.

D) switch to gemifloxacin.

Q2) A patient who is taking calcium supplements receives a prescription for ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for a urinary tract infection. The nurse will teach this patient to:

A) consume extra fluids while taking the ciprofloxacin to prevent hypercalciuria.

B) stop taking the calcium supplements while taking the ciprofloxacin.

C) take the two medications together to increase the absorption of both.

D) take the calcium either 6 hours before or 2 hours after taking the ciprofloxacin.

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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents

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21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31152

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is receiving intravenous voriconazole (Vfend). Shortly after the infusion starts, the patient tells the nurse, "Colors look different, and the light hurts my eyes." What will the nurse do?

A) Observe the patient closely for the development of hallucinations.

B) Reassure the patient that these effects will subside in about 30 minutes.

C) Stop the infusion and notify the provider of CNS toxicity.

D) Tell the patient that this is an irreversible effect of the drug.

Q2) A nursing student asks a nurse to explain the differences between amphotericin B (Abelcet) and the azoles group of antifungal agents. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "Amphotericin B can be given orally or intravenously ."

B) "Amphotericin B increases the levels of many other drugs."

C) "Azoles have lower toxicity than amphotericin B."

D) "Only the azoles are broad-spectrum antifungal agents."

Q3) Which superficial mycosis is generally treated with oral antifungal agents?

A) Tinea capitis

B) Tinea corporis

C) Tinea cruris

D) Tinea pedis

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Page 94

Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-Hiv Viral

Infections

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31153

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with HIV and mucocutaneous HSV is being treated with foscarnet after failing treatment with acyclovir. After 2 weeks, the patient's dose is increased to 90 mg/kg over 2 hours from 40 mg/kg over 1 hour. The patient reports numbness in the extremities and perioral tingling. What will the nurse do?

A) Notify the provider and request an order for a serum calcium level.

B) Notify the provider of potential foscarnet overdose.

C) Request an order for a creatinine clearance level.

D) Request an order of IV saline to be given before the next dose.

Q2) A nursing student asks a nurse why pegylated interferon alfa is used instead of regular interferon for a patient with hepatitis C. The nurse will tell the student that pegylated interferon:

A) decreases the need for additional medications.

B) has fewer adverse effects than interferon.

C) is administered less frequently than interferon.

D) may be given orally to increase ease of use.

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Chapter

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 14 Verified Questions 14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31154

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is HIV positive and is taking zidovudine (Retrovir). Before administering the medication, the nurse should monitor which laboratory values?

A) Ketones in the urine and blood

B) Serum immunoglobulin levels

C) Serum lactate dehydrogenase

D) Complete blood count (CBC)

Q2) After starting an antiviral protease inhibitor, a patient with HIV telephones the nurse, complaining, "I'm so hungry and thirsty all the time! I'm urinating 10 or 12 times a day." The nurse recognizes these findings to be consistent with:

A) pancreatic infiltration by HIV.

B) allergic reaction.

C) nonadherence to the antiviral regimen.

D) hyperglycemia.

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Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31155

Sample Questions

Q1) An adolescent patient comes to the clinic complaining of a burning sensation upon urination and a pus-like discharge from the penis. The nurse is correct to suspect that the patient has which disorder?

A) Gonorrhea

B) Herpes simplex

C) Nongonococcal urethritis

D) Syphilis

Q2) An adolescent patient with mild cervicitis is diagnosed with gonorrhea. The nurse will expect the provider to order which drug(s)?

A) Azithromycin (Zithromax), 1 gm PO once, and doxycycline (Vibramycin), 100 mg PO twice daily for 7 days

B) Cefixime (Suprax), 400 mg PO once, and azithromycin (Zithromax), 1 gm PO once

C) Ceftriaxone (Rocephin), 125 mg IM once

D) Doxycycline (Vibramycin), 100 mg IV twice daily for 12 days

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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31156

Sample Questions

Q1) For which patient would a topical antiseptic be most appropriate?

A) A patient with a systemic infection

B) A patient with a medium-sized abscess

C) A patient who has a wound with moderate exudate

D) A patient who needs to have wounds cleansed for prophylaxis

Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient with gastroenteritis caused by Clostridium difficile.

What action is most important for reducing the transmission of this disease?

A) Disinfecting the bedpan with an antiseptic solution

B) Using antibacterial hand soap when washing the hands

C) Using an alcohol-based hand rub after each patient contact

D) Wearing gloves while caring for the patient

Q3) A patient has developed a local infection at an IV insertion site. Before the IV was inserted, the site was cleansed with a product with an ethanol concentration of 70%. The nurse will report the local infection to the provider and expect to receive an order to:

A) administer a systemic antimicrobial agent.

B) apply a topical antiseptic agent to the infected area.

C) culture the site to assess for C. difficile.

D) use a topical agent containing 95% ethanol.

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Chapter 97: Anthelmintics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking diethylcarbamazine (Hetrazan) to treat a filarial infestation. The patient reports intense itching and a rash after several days of therapy. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) These symptoms are caused by death of the parasite.

B) This is a minor, direct adverse effect of the drug.

C) This is a sign the infestation is worsening.

D) This warrants discontinuation of the drug.

Q2) A patient who is being treated for onchocerciasis with ivermectin (Stromectol) has a Mazotti reaction. Which assessment finding(s) would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)

A) Fever

B) Nausea and vomiting

C) Rash with pruritus

D) Blurred vision

E) Bone and joint pain

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Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents

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10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who takes imipramine has a moderate infection with P. vivax that is chloroquine resistant. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order?

A) Artemether/lumefantrine (Coartem)

B) Atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone)

C) Artesunate

D) Quinine

Q2) The nurse is caring for a newly admitted African American patient who has just returned from a mission trip to Africa. The patient contracted malaria and is being treated with primaquine. What will the nurse monitor?

A) The patient's blood for evidence of hyperlipidemia

B) The patient's eyes for evidence of icterus

C) The patient's skin for photosensitivity

D) The patient's urinary output for evidence of darkening urine

Q3) Which are adverse effects of quinine (Qualaquin)? (Select all that apply.)

A) Cinchonism

B) Hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency

C) Increased ventricular rate

D) Nightmares

E) Prolonged QT interval

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Page 100

Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs 2: F Miscellaneous Agents

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8 Verified Questions

8 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient from Africa is being treated for East African trypanosomiasis. The nurse is preparing to administer a first dose of suramin sodium (Germanin). To prevent serious side effects, which action will the nurse take?

A) Administer a small test dose before giving the drug.

B) Ask the patient to lie flat while the drug is given.

C) Give a high-fat snack with the drug to minimize gastric upset.

D) Suggest to the provider that liver function tests (LFTs) be performed.

Q2) A patient taking metronidazole (Flagyl) for asymptomatic intestinal amebiasis complains of tingling and numbness of the hands and feet. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

A) Encourage the patient to exercise to improve circulation.

B) Inform the patient that numbness is a common and reversible side effect.

C) Stress the need to avoid constrictive clothing and crossing the legs.

D) Withhold the drug and notify the prescriber.

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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides

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12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31160

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a parent about treating a child for scabies. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of the treatment?

A) "I should wash all bedding and clothing as well as applying the medicine."

B) "I will apply the cream to the visible burrows and areas of itching."

C) "More than one application of the cream may be needed."

D) "The cream may cause systemic side effects."

Q2) A patient is treated for Phthirus pubis with permethrin 1% lotion. Two days after using the lotion as directed, the patient calls to report increased itching, erythema, and edema of the pubic skin. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) This is an expected effect of the treatment and will subside.

B) This represents an allergic reaction to the lotion.

C) The patient should ask the provider about using malathion 0.5% lotion.

D) The patient should repeat the permethrin now and contact the provider if no improvement is seen.

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Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy

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15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31161

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse wants to evaluate a nursing student's understanding of chemotherapy. The nurse asks, "Which factor would be a major obstacle to successful chemotherapy?" What is the student's best response?

A) "The patient's reluctance about the doses administered."

B) "The patient's degree of nausea."

C) "The toxicity of anticancer drugs to normal tissues."

D) "The difficulty attaining and maintaining venous access."

Q2) A nurse explains to a patient with cancer why it is difficult to achieve 100% cell kill to cure cancer with chemotherapy. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "It is necessary to continue giving the same dose of chemotherapeutic agents throughout therapy, even if toxicity occurs."

B) "Symptoms of cancer often disappear before all malignant cells are eradicated."

C) "The immune system attacks chemotherapeutic agents and renders them impotent."

D) "The immune system often fails to recognize cancer cells as foreign."

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103

Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31162

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is discussing vesicant chemotherapeutic agents with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching about this type of drug?

A) "Extravasation of this type of drug may result in the need for skin grafts."

B) "If an IV line used for a vesicant drug infiltrates, it must be discontinued immediately."

C) "These drugs may be administered orally as well as intravenously."

D) "This type of drug may not be infused at a site of previous irradiation."

Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who will undergo chemotherapy with fluorouracil (Adrucil) to treat a solid tumor. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this chemotherapeutic agent's actions?

A) "Fluorouracil acts to deprive cancer cells of thymidylate needed to make DNA."

B) "Fluorouracil causes accumulation of adenosine, which inhibits DNA synthesis."

C) "Fluorouracil disrupts the biosynthesis of nucleic acids."

D) "Fluorouracil inhibits DNA polymerase in cancer cells."

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Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs 2:

Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31163

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient in the oncology unit who was recently diagnosed with advanced renal carcinoma. The nurse prepares to administer aldesleukin (Proleukin) as part of the treatment regimen. What is the primary adverse effect of this drug?

A) Hypertension

B) Capillary leakage syndrome

C) Hyperglycemia

D) Hyperuricemia

Q2) The nurse would be correct to state that the purpose of angiogenesis inhibitors is to: A) kill existing cancer cells directly.

B) suppress the formation of new blood vessels in tumors.

C) enhance the size of collateral vessels.

D) enhance red cell development in the bone marrow.

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105

Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse administers timolol (Timoptic) ophthalmic drops to a patient who has glaucoma. The patient reports stinging of the eyes shortly after the drops were administered. What will the nurse do?

A) Monitor the patient's heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure.

B) Notify the provider that the patient shows signs of angle-closure glaucoma.

C) Reassure the patient that these are localized, reversible effects of the drug.

D) Request an order for an antihistamine to treat this allergic response to the drug.

Q2) A patient is about to undergo emergency surgery for acute angle-closure glaucoma. Before surgery, which agent(s) will the nurse expect to administer? (Select all that apply.)

A) Acetazolamide

B) Brimonidine (Alphagan)

C) Mannitol

D) Phenylephrine

E) Timolol

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Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31165

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of lifeguards about safe sunning. Which statement by a lifeguard indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Sunscreen should be applied 30 minutes before going outside."

B) "I do not need sunscreen when it is cloudy outside."

C) "I should reapply sunscreen after swimming."

D) "UV radiation does not penetrate through water."

Q2) A patient asks a nurse what a sun protection factor (SPF) of 15 indicates. The nurse will tell the patient that an SPF of 15 indicates:

A) a 93% block of UVB radiation.

B) half the protection of a sunscreen with an SPF of 30.

C) low protection.

D) it takes 15 minutes for the sun to burn.

Q3) A child with eczema has been treated unsuccessfully with a topical glucocorticoid for a year and has skin atrophy and hypopigmentation. The nurse will suggest discussing which drug with the provider?

A) Higher potency topical glucocorticoids

B) Topical keratolytic agents

C) Topical immunosuppressants

D) Topical nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

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Page 107

Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31166

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with fungal otitis externa (otomycosis). The nurse correctly explains that for the first course of treatment the patient should expect:

A) acidifying drops for 1 week.

B) antibiotic ear drops.

C) intravenous (IV) antifungal agents.

D) oral antibiotics.

Q2) A child has been diagnosed with otitis media with effusion (OME), and the child's parent asks the nurse what this means. The nurse will explain that OME is:

A) a condition with a heightened risk of acute otitis media.

B) an acute ear infection with fluid in the middle ear.

C) an infection of the skin and tissues of the outer ear.

D) fluid in the middle ear without localized or systemic infection.

Q3) The nurse is administering ear drops to a patient with acute bacterial otitis externa. Which procedure would assist drug penetration into the ear canal?

A) Administering refrigerated drops

B) Inserting a sponge wick into the ear canal and then administering the drops

C) Cleaning out the earwax with a cotton-tipped swab before giving the drops

D) Inserting earplugs after administering the drops

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Chapter 107: Miscellaneous Noteworthy Drugs

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Q1) A pregnant patient begins active labor at 30 weeks' gestation. The provider orders dexamethasone 6 mg intramuscularly to be given twice daily for 4 doses. The patient asks the nurse what effect this drug will have on the fetus. The nurse will tell her that the dexamethasone is given to:

A) improve cognitive function in the fetus.

B) improve fetal neuromotor development.

C) increase fetal weight and length.

D) increase lung development in the fetus.

Q2) A nurse counsels a patient who is to begin taking gamma-hydroxybutyrate (Xyrem) for narcolepsy. It is important for the nurse to warn the patient that respiratory depression is a potential risk with concomitant use of:

A) alcohol.

B) beta blockers.

C) caffeine.

D) nicotine.

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109

Chapter 108: Dietary Supplements

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Q1) A nurse is performing a preoperative drug history on a patient who is admitted to the hospital for surgery. To evaluate the risk of hemorrhage, the nurse will ask the patient about antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications as well as which dietary supplement?

A) Coenzyme Q-10

B) Ginkgo biloba

C) Ma Huang (ephedra)

D) St. John's wort

Q2) A patient will begin taking immunosuppressant drugs for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will caution this patient to avoid which dietary supplement?

A) Black cohosh

B) Echinacea

C) Feverfew

D) Glucosamine

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Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning

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Q1) A patient overdosed on aspirin several hours ago and is brought to the emergency department. The nurse assists with supportive care and then asks the provider about an order for which drug?

A) Activated charcoal

B) Ammonium chloride

C) Fomepizole (Antizole)

D) Sodium bicarbonate

Q2) A child is admitted to the hospital after a routine lead screen reveals an elevated serum lead level. The prescriber has ordered edetate calcium disodium (calcium EDTA) as a chelating agent. During this drug treatment, the nurse will expect to:

A) collect a daily urine specimen.

B) give the medication on an empty stomach.

C) monitor the child's heart rate and blood pressure.

D) request orders for liver function tests.

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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism

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Q1) Terrorists have detonated a "dirty bomb" in a shopping center. Nurses are called to the site to assist with triage of victims. Besides treating injuries incurred from the blast itself, the priorities for treatment for most of the victims will include:

A) administering potassium iodide as soon as possible.

B) giving Prussian blue and monitoring electrolytes.

C) monitoring urine and stool samples for radioactivity.

D) removing clothing and bathing victims.

Q2) A patient reported to have been exposed to mustard gas is brought to the emergency department. The patient's skin is red and swollen with small blisters, and the patient's eyes are red and tearing. The patient has a runny nose and a dry, barking cough. What should the nurse's initial action be?

A) Prepare for renal dialysis.

B) Provide oxygen and prepare for mechanical ventilation.

C) Remove the patient's clothing and clean the skin with soap and water.

D) Rush the patient to the intensive care unit for cardiorespiratory monitoring.

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