

Clinical Nursing Practice Exam Review
Course Introduction
Clinical Nursing Practice provides students with foundational and advanced knowledge necessary to deliver safe, effective, and compassionate care to patients across healthcare settings. This course emphasizes the integration of theoretical concepts with hands-on clinical skills, covering patient assessment, care planning, interventions, and evaluation. Students will engage in supervised clinical experiences, developing competencies in communication, critical thinking, and decision-making. The course also focuses on evidence-based practice, interprofessional collaboration, and ethical considerations, preparing students to meet the challenges of contemporary nursing practice and promote optimal patient outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Adult Health Nursing 6th Edition by Barbara Christensen
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
17 Chapters
676 Verified Questions
676 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1169

Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23140
Sample Questions
Q1) The thoracic and abdominal cavities are separated by the A) pleura.
B) diaphragm.
C) spinal column.
D) peritoneum.
Answer: B
Q2) The type of tissue composed of cells that contract in response to a message from the brain or spinal cord is
A) epithelial.
B) connective.
C) membrane.
D) muscle.
Answer: D
Q3) The transverse imaginary body plane
A) divides front and back (coronal) of the body.
B) divides the body lengthwise (two equal halves).
C) divides superior and inferior portions of the body.
D) divides the body into axial and appendicular.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Care of the Surgical Patient
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23141
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the high-risk conditions that may affect perioperative procedures? (Select all that apply):
A) Age, health, occupation, mental status
B) Financial income, health, nutritional status
C) Age, mental state, nutritional status, health
D) Occupation, age, nutritional status, health
E) Financial Income, occupation, age, health
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse is assisting with the sponge and instrument count in the operating room. The operative phase in which the nurse is assisting is called the A) perioperative phase.
B) preoperative phase.
C) intraoperative phase.
D) postoperative phase.
Answer: C
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4

Chapter 3: Care of the Patient With an Integumentary Disorder
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23142
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 63, has cancer of the left breast. After a modified radical mastectomy, she has been receiving chemotherapy. Her grandson, who visited a few days ago, now has varicella (chickenpox). The nurse should observe her carefully for signs of
A) herpes zoster.
B) herpes simplex type I.
C) herpes simplex type II.
D) impetigo.
Answer: A
Q2) A patient, age 37, sustained partial- and full-thickness burns to 26% of her body surface area. The greatest fluid loss resulting from her burns will usually occur
A) within 12 hours after burn trauma.
B) 24 to 36 hours after burn trauma.
C) 24 to 48 hours after burn trauma.
D) 48 to 72 hours after burn trauma.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Care of the Patient With a Musculoskeletal Disorder
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23143
Sample Questions
Q1) Among the most common fractures in older women are _______fractures.
Q2) In gangrene, there is an acute infection to the skeletal muscle. If untreated, _________ will destroy the tissue.
Q3) A patient, age 68, has suffered an intertrochanteric fracture of the right hip. Before surgery, to provide support and comfort, an immobilizing device is applied. This is called a
A) Thomas splint.
B) Bryant's traction.
C) Russell's traction
D) Buck's traction.
Q4) A patient, age 24, has a compartment syndrome after a fracture of his radius and ulna. Nursing assessment will include careful observation for signs and symptoms of A) buccal petechiae.
B) thromboembolism.
C) Volkmann's contracture.
D) fat embolism.
Q5) __________ traction is utilized to provide support for the patient with a hip fracture.
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Chapter 5: Care of the Patient With a Gastrointestinal Disorder
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23144
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient complains that he will never adjust to his colostomy. In this situation, it would be best for the nurse to
A) encourage him to express his concern.
B) suggest that he discuss his concerns with his physician.
C) counsel him that everything will be all right.
D) explain that his concerns will be dealt with when he is taught how to care for his colostomy.
Q2) Colonoscopy should be performed every ________ years.
Q3) The patient, age 32, is admitted with possible appendicitis after being evaluated by the physician. It is appropriate for the nurse to administer
A) fluid and electrolyte replacement.
B) heat to decrease discomfort.
C) a cleansing enema.
D) an oral laxative.
Q4) The most lethal complication of a peptic ulcer is A) bleeding.
B) perforation.
C) severe pain.
D) gastric outlet obstruction.

Page 7
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Chapter 6: Care of the Patient With a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23145
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the indications for a liver transplant? (Select all that apply.)
A) Congenital biliary abnormalities
B) Hepatic malignancy
C) Chronic hepatitis
D) Cirrhosis due to alcoholism
E) Gallbladder disease
Q2) Which assessment would indicate possible gallbladder disease in an older adult?
A) Dull pain in the right upper quadrant region
B) Changes in color of urine or stool
C) Distention of veins in upper part of body
D) Aching muscles and tenderness in the liver
Q3) The new operative procedure gaining in popularity for the removal of the gallbladder, if there is no cholecystitis or choledocholithiasis, is a(n)
A) laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
B) cholangiography.
C) open cholecystectomy.
D) choledochostomy.
Q4) ___________ is a condition characterized by yellowing of the sclera and the skin.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Care of the Patient With a Blood or Lymphatic Disorder
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23146
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 24, is admitted with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura and a platelet count of 18,000/mm³. An appropriate nursing intervention would be to
A) monitor the administration of cryoprecipitate.
B) administer vitamin B12.
C) institute bleeding precautions.
D) use the Z-track method for DexFerrum administration.
Q2) In an adult, erythrocytes are continuously produced in the A) yellow bone marrow.
B) lymphatic system.
C) spleen.
D) red bone marrow.
Q3) Hematological diseases are often associated with skin impairment. Petechiae and ecchymoses are seen in A) iron-deficiency anemia.
B) pernicious anemia.
C) hemophilia A.
D) agranulocytosis.
Q4) The organ that forms lymphocytes is the __________.
Q5) A sudden reduction in blood volume may lead to _________ shock.
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Chapter
8: Care
of the Patient With a Cardiovascular or a Peripheral Vascular Disorder
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23147
Sample Questions
Q1) Modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease (CAD) include which group?
A) Diabetes, family history
B) Family history, smoking
C) Smoking, heredity
D) High cholesterol, obesity
Q2) Dependent edema of the extremities, enlargement of the liver, oliguria, jugular vein distention, and abdominal distention are signs and symptoms of
A) right-sided heart failure.
B) left-sided heart failure.
C) cardiac dysrhythmias.
D) valvular heart disease.
Q3) Which statements are true? (Select all that apply)
A) Anticoagulant therapy is used for DVT prevention.
B) Anticoagulant therapy prevents development of new clots, embolization, and clot extension.
C) Anticoagulant therapy will dissolve clots.
D) Pulmonary embolus is a life-threatening complication requiring treatment with anticoagulant therapy.
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Chapter 9: Care of the Patient With a Respiratory Disorder
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23148
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient, age 91, has COPD and complains of dyspnea and fatigue. Activity intolerance, related to an imbalance between the oxygen supply and demand, is a nursing diagnosis for COPD. Which nursing intervention would be inappropriate?
A) Teach pursed-lip breathing.
B) Provide oxygen therapy as ordered.
C) Plan care to provide optimum rest.
D) Provide a cool shower.
Q2) The surgeon administers nasal epinephrine to a patient after nasal surgery. The nurse explains to the patient that this is done primarily to A) anesthetize the nares.
B) reduce the possibility of bleeding.
C) enhance respiration
D) dry up the nasal mucus.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of pleural effusion. The physician is most likely to order a ______________ to remove fluid from around the lungs so that the patient may breathe more easily.
Q4) The _________ are the structures of the lung in which gas exchange occurs.
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11

Chapter 10: Care of the Patient With a Urinary Disorder
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23149
Sample Questions
Q1) As the body breaks down protein, nitrogen wastes are broken down into urea, ammonia, and
A) nitrogen.
B) uric acid.
C) nitrates.
D) creatinine.
Q2) _____________ is a term for severe generalized edema.
Q3) Bladder distention may be assessed by palpating above the ___________
Q4) One method of monitoring for signs and symptoms of fluid overload when administering diuretics is
A) record daily morning weights (same time, scale, clothes).
B) record random weights throughout the day (same scale, clothes, staff member).
C) assess abdomen every shift.
D) eat a diet high in sodium.
Q5) Exercises to increase muscle tone of the pelvic floor are known as ____________ exercises.
Q6) Acute ______________ is commonly a result of a preexisting infection.
Q7) _________ training involves developing the muscles of the perineum to improve voluntary control over voiding; bladder training may be modified for different problems.
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Chapter 11: Care of the Patient With an Endocrine Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23150
Sample Questions
Q1) Pregnant women should not be exposed to iodine-131 because of A) danger to the cardiac system.
B) danger to metabolism.
C) danger to the fetus.
D) danger to the reproductive system.
Q2) A patient has undergone tests that indicate a deficiency of the parathormone secretion. She should be informed of which potential complication?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Lethargy
C) Laryngeal spasms
D) Kidney stones
Q3) A patient has recently been diagnosed with acromegaly. Using Maslow's hierarchy, which of the nursing diagnoses listed below should be of the highest priority in caring for him?
A) Ineffective coping
B) Activity intolerance
C) Risk for trauma
D) Chronic low self-esteem
Q4) Another term for hyperglycemic reaction is ____________ ______________.
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Chapter 12: Care of the Patient With a Reproductive Disorder
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23151
Sample Questions
Q1) The discharge instructions should include arm exercises for which postoperative patient?
A) Vaginal hysterectomy
B) Hydrocelectomy
C) Modified radical mastectomy
D) Unilateral orchiectomy
Q2) If severe or chronic pelvic inflammatory disease is present, the complication that may result is
A) metrorrhagia.
B) menorrhagia.
C) infertility.
D) incontinence.
Q3) Female infertility is most often related to
A) systemic disease.
B) abnormal reproductive structures.
C) infections of the reproductive tract.
D) hormonal abnormalities.
Q4) ________ are produced in the seminiferous tubules and stored in the epididymis.
Page 14
Q5) _____________ are benign tumors of the uterus.
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Chapter 13: Care of the Patient With a Visual or Auditory Disorder
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23152
Sample Questions
Q1) Most patients with Ménière's disease are treated with A) surgery.
B) diuretics.
C) hearing aids.
D) analgesics.
Q2) A patient has been blind for the past 10 years. He is hospitalized with congestive heart failure (CHF). In the care of a long-term blind individual, it is important to
A) speak loudly to get the patient's attention.
B) schedule a consultation with an occupational therapist to teach activities of daily living.
C) announce when you enter and leave the room.
D) initiate a referral to the Department of Health and Human Services.
Q3) Myopia is a medical term meaning which visual disorder?
A) Farsightedness
B) Blurred vision
C) Nearsightedness
D) Halos around lights
Q4) _____________ is a medical term for blurred vision.
Q5) Schiötz tonometry is a diagnostic test for __________.
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Chapter 14: Care of the Patient With a Neurologic Disorder
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23153
Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient is diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Upon physical assessment, the nurse notices her left eyelid is drooping. The nurse's notes would document this as ___________ of the eyelid.
Q2) A 39-year-old mother of four has a 6-year history of multiple sclerosis. During planning, the nurse remembers this is a degenerative neurological disease that A) occurs most often in tropical climates. B) occurs most often in the older adult. C) has classic signs and symptoms that are readily recognized. D) results from demyelination of the nerve sheath.
Q3) The Glasgow coma scale is a screening tool used to assess level of consciousness in three major areas. They are A) verbal, sensation, motor. B) eye, motor, verbal. C) verbal, pain, reflexes. D) eye, pain, verbal.
Q4) A ___________ is a diagnostic procedure used to identify lesions by observing the flow of radiopaque dye through the subarachnoid space and is similar to a lumbar puncture.
Q5) The avoidance of ___________ __________ decreases the risk for lung cancer.
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Chapter
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23154
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse arrives at the bedside of a patient who has had a unit of packed cells infusing in his right arm for 35 minutes. He is complaining of chills, itching, and shortness of breath. The next action for the nurse would be to A) leave and get help.
B) take the patient's temperature.
C) give him his nose spray.
D) stop the transfusion and IV administer saline.
Q2) What precautionary safety measure should the nurse take for a patient who is receiving first-time intradermal injections for allergy testing?
A) Take vital signs every 15 minutes for 1 hour after the patient receives the injection.
B) Remind the patient to call the physician if a rash develops.
C) Have the patient remain for 20 minutes after the injection.
D) Instruct the patient to take epinephrine if an allergic reaction occurs.
Q3) The purpose of immunotherapy is _____________.
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Chapter 16: Care of the Patient With HIV-Aids
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23155
Sample Questions
Q1) Kaposi's sarcoma is a common problem in patients with AIDS. The nurse should instruct the patient who is diagnosed with AIDS to report which sign of Kaposi's sarcoma?
A) Reddish-purple skin lesions
B) Open, bleeding skin lesions
C) Blood-tinged sputum
D) Watery diarrhea
Q2) In addition to handwashing, what important precaution must the nurse take when changing the dressing of an AIDS patient?
A) Wearing mask
B) Wearing gown and gloves
C) Wearing gloves
D) Strict isolation
Q3) While teaching community groups about AIDS, the nurse informs people that the most common method of transmission of the HIV virus currently is
A) sexual contact with an HIV-infected partner.
B) perinatal transmission.
C) exposure to contaminated blood.
D) nonsexual exposure to saliva and tears.
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Chapter 17: Care of the Patient With Cancer
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23156
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 59, has lost 10 pounds in the first 3 weeks of her radiation therapy and does not eat because nothing tastes good. Which is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for her?
A) Ineffective health maintenance related to lack of knowledge of nutritional requirements during radiation therapy
B) Risk for infection related to poor nutrition
C) Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to anorexia
D) Ineffective therapeutic regimen management related to refusal to eat
Q2) _________ is the term for uncontrolled or abnormal growth of cells. They may be benign or malignant.
Q3) The American Cancer Society recommends a clinical breast examination by a health care professional for women between the ages of 20 and 39 years every ________ years.
Q4) The following characteristics are common in malignant tumors
A) Usually contained within a capsule
B) Divide and multiply in the same manner as normal cells
C) Proliferate and respond to treatment
D) Progress and destroy surrounding tissues while spreading to distant parts of the body
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