Clinical Nursing Practice Exam
Bank
Course Introduction
Clinical Nursing Practice provides students with essential hands-on experience in delivering holistic patient care across diverse healthcare settings. The course emphasizes the application of theoretical knowledge to real-world clinical situations, fostering the development of critical thinking, clinical judgment, and professional communication skills. Students gain proficiency in fundamental nursing procedures, patient assessment, care planning, and interdisciplinary collaboration, while adhering to ethical and legal standards. Through supervised clinical placements, learners refine their ability to respond to patient needs, promote health, and ensure safety, preparing them for competent and compassionate nursing practice.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 15th Edition by Bruce
D. Clayton
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50 Chapters
879 Verified Questions
879 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Definitions, Names, Standards, and Information
Sources
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which legislation authorizes the FDA to determine the safety of a drug before its marketing?
A) Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938)
B) Durham-Humphrey Amendment (1952)
C) Controlled Substances Act (1970)
D) Kefauver-Harris Drug Amendment (1962)
Answer: A
Q2) The physician has written an order for a drug with which the nurse is unfamiliar. Which section of the Physicians' Desk Reference (PDR) is most helpful to get information about this drug?
A) Manufacturer's section
B) Brand and Generic Name section
C) Product Category section
D) Product Information section
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Principles of Drug Action and Drug Interactions
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are routes of drug excretion? (Select all that apply.)
A) Gastrointestinal (GI) tract; feces
B) Genitourinary (GU) tract; urine
C) Lymphatic system
D) Circulatory system; blood/plasma
E) Respiratory system; exhalation
Answer: A, B, E
Q2) Which best describes when drug interactions occur?
A) On administration of toxic dosages of a drug
B) On an increase in the pharmacodynamics of bound drugs
C) On the alteration of the effect of one drug by another drug
D) On increase of drug excretion
Answer: C
Q3) What is the definition of cumulative effect of a drug?
A) Drug toxicity related to overmedication
B) Drug buildup related to decreased metabolism
C) The inability to control the ingestion of drugs
D) The need for higher dosage to produce the same effect as previous lower dosages
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Drug Action Across the Life Span
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which classification of medications commonly causes allergic reactions in children?
A) Antacids
B) Analgesics
C) Antibiotics
D) Anticonvulsants
Answer: C
Q2) Which factors in a patient would influence gastrointestinal absorption of medications? (Select all that apply.)
A) Stomach pH
B) Level of consciousness
C) Fever
D) Blood flow to gastric mucosa
E) Weight
F) Body surface area
Answer: A, D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Nursing Process and Pharmacology
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of nursing diagnosis will be written when the patient exhibits factors that makes them susceptible to the development of a problem?
A) Actual diagnosis
B) Risk diagnosis
C) Possible diagnosis
D) Wellness diagnosis
Q2) Which is an example of an interdependent nursing action?
A) Assess lung sounds every 4 hours.
B) Educate the patient about the prescribed medication.
C) Administer Demerol 50 mg IM every 4 hours PRN.
D) Encourage the patient to express feelings.
Q3) Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for an older adult with diabetes hospitalized for pneumonia?
A) Deficient Knowledge related to lack of information about diabetic medication
B) Risk for Falls related to weakness
C) Impaired Gas Exchange related to decreased pulmonary ventilation
D) Imbalanced Nutrition: More than Body Requirements related to obesity
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6
Chapter 5: Patient Education and Health Promotion
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of ethnocentrism?
A) A 5-year-old Native American child colors in a book about diabetes.
B) A 14-year-old African American attends a support group to learn about disease management.
C) A 36-year-old Asian prefers to take herbs instead of an oral medication.
D) A 72-year-old Hispanic asks questions about potential adverse effects to a newly prescribed medication.
Q2) Which is characteristic of the cognitive domain level of learning? (Select all that apply.)
A) A patient's opinion regarding wellness
B) Basic mathematical formulas learned in grade school
C) Incorporation of a person's previous experiences and perceptions
D) Skill demonstration using a step-by-step approach
E) Relationship between prior experiences and new concepts
Q3) Which represents the psychomotor domain of learning?
A) The patient draws up insulin in a syringe.
B) The patient expresses a belief about medication use.
C) The patient is able to verbalize foods that should be avoided.
D) The patient relates past experience with smoking cessation.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: A Review of Arithmetic
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87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) 0.305 = _____
Q2) viiss = _____
Q3) 1 1/2 - 7/11 = _____
Q4) 0.00007 = _____
Q5) lx = _____
Q6) Convert 25 g to mg: _____
Q7) Which is the most accurate way for the nurse to document the administration of two milligrams of a medication?
A) Two mg
B) 2.0 mg
C) 2 mg
D) ii mg
Q8) 4 - 0.8 = _____
Q9) 55 g = _____ kg
Q10) 1 c = _____ oz
Q11) 3.7 - 1.9 = _____
Q12) 300/125 \(\times\) 5/1 = _____
Q13) Health care provider's order: 0.75 g amoxicillin PO Page 8
Available: Amoxicillin 250 mg tablets
How many tablets will you give? _____
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Chapter 7: Principles of Medication Administration and Medication Safety
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most reliable method to calculate a pediatric patient's medication dosage?
A) Age
B) Height
C) Body surface area (BSA)
D) Placement on a growth scale
Q2) Which action will the nurse take when it is determined that the narcotic count is incorrect while obtaining a medication from the narcotic area?
A) Determine the cause of the discrepancy at the end of the shift.
B) Notify the health care provider stat.
C) Call the nurse from the previous shift to determine if there was a discrepancy earlier.
D) Report the discrepancy to the charge nurse immediately.
Q3) Which medication order requires nursing judgment and means "administer if needed"?
A) Morphine 4 mg IV stat
B) Morphine 4 mg IV prior to procedure
C) Morphine 4 mg IV four times a day
D) Morphine 4 mg IV every 4 hours PRN
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Chapter 8: Percutaneous Administration
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19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which dressings would be appropriate to use for treating wounds with exudates?
A) AlgiDERM
B) Telfa
C) Kaltostat
D) Sorbsan
E) OpSite
Q2) Which is the appropriate nursing action when administering a vaginal suppository?
A) Ask the patient to urinate prior to insertion.
B) Assist the patient to a side-lying position.
C) Keep suppository refrigerated prior to insertion.
D) Insert the suppository 1 inch into the vagina.
Q3) Which action will the nurse perform when doing a wet-to-dry dressing every 4 hours on a patient with a deep wound?
A) Pack the wound tightly with gauze.
B) Saturate the dressing with as much liquid as possible.
C) Use Montgomery tapes or a binder to secure the dressing.
D) Apply the new moist dressing over the existing one.
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11
Chapter 9: Enteral Administration
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After entering the patient's room to administer oral medications, which action will the nurse take first?
A) Assist the patient to sit upright.
B) Check the patient's identification.
C) Inform the patient about the medications.
D) Offer the patient something to drink.
Q2) In which position would the nurse place a patient before the administration of an enteral feeding?
A) Supine
B) Semi-Fowler's
C) Left lateral
D) Prone
Q3) Which action by the nurse is appropriate when administering enteric-coated tablets?
A) Administer with an antacid.
B) Crush the tablet and mix with applesauce.
C) Encourage the patient to drink a full glass of water.
D) Instruct the patient to place the medication between the cheek and teeth.
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12
Chapter 10: Parenteral Administration: Safe Preparation
Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which syringe will the nurse use to administer insulin subcutaneously to a patient?
A) A syringe calibrated in minims
B) A syringe calibrated in units
C) A syringe calibrated in tenths of mL
D) A syringe calibrated in mL
Q2) Which information provided by the nurse is most important to include when teaching a patient about the use of an EpiPen?
A) "Hold the syringe at a 45-degree angle against the skin."
B) "Monitor the expiration date of this medication."
C) "After using the EpiPen, lie down for 1 hour."
D) "Place the syringe in a cartridge prior to using."
Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer insulin. What does U-100 indicate?
A) 100 mL per unit
B) 10 units per mL
C) 100 units per mL
D) 10 units per 100 mL
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13
Chapter 11: Parenteral Administration:
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vastus lateralis muscle is appropriate for injections for which patients? (Select all that apply.)
A) Children younger than 3 years of age
B) Elderly
C) Debilitated
D) Nonambulatory
E) Ambulatory
F) Healthy
Q2) Which nursing action is accurate when administering an intramuscular injection using the Z-track method?
A) Use a 1-inch needle.
B) Add 0.5 mL of air to the syringe.
C) Vigorously massage the injection site.
D) Pinch up the skin.
Q3) Which assessment by the nurse is most important to obtain prior to performing allergy sensitivity testing?
A) Identify areas of loose connective tissue.
B) Question the patient about frequency of exercise.
C) Determine if the patient is using aspirin.
D) Palpate and measure the size of induration.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Parenteral Administration: Intravenous Route
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with cancer and requires 6 months of chemotherapy infusions. Which type of intravenous access device will likely be used?
A) Peripheral venous access device
B) Midline catheter
C) Winged-needle venous access device
D) Implantable venous infusion port
Q2) Which needle is used to access implanted infusion devices?
A) Jamshedi
B) Huber
C) Gigli
D) Crutchfield
Q3) The nurse notes that a patient with cardiac disease has intravenous (IV) heparin infusing and that it is behind by 2 hours. What is the best nursing action?
A) Increase the IV rate and recheck in 1 hour.
B) Change the infusion rate to TKO.
C) Discontinue the solution using aseptic technique.
D) Contact the health care provider for consultation.
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15
Chapter 13: Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Nervous System
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are examples of neurotransmitters? (Select all that apply.)
A) Gamma amino-butyric acid
B) Acetylcholine
C) Serotonin
D) Glucose
E) Histamine
F) Epinephrine
Q2) Why are beta blockers used cautiously in patients with respiratory conditions?
A) They mask the signs and symptoms of acute hypoglycemia.
B) They cause extensive vasodilation and cardiac overload.
C) They may produce severe bronchoconstriction.
D) They increase hypertensive episodes.
Q3) A patient with a history of type 1 diabetes after myocardial infarction has been placed on a beta-adrenergic blocking agent. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "This medication should not be discontinued suddenly."
B) "This medication lowers my blood pressure by helping me get rid of fluid."
C) "I may not have my usual symptoms of a hypoglycemic reaction while on this drug."
D) "This medication may take a few weeks to work."
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Sedative-Hypnotics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are common adverse effects of barbiturates? (Select all that apply.)
A) Residual daytime sedation
B) Headache
C) Hyperactivity
D) Blurred vision
E) Impaired coordination
Q2) A patient receiving diazepam (Valium) is complaining of nausea and vomiting and is becoming jaundiced. Which type of blood work will be performed?
A) Renal function tests
B) Liver function tests
C) Clotting times
D) Electrolyte panels
Q3) Which disease is associated with insufficient sleep?
A) Cancer
B) Glaucoma
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Renal failure
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17
Chapter 15: Drugs Used for Parkinsons Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cholinergic symptoms of Parkinson's disease are reduced with anticholinergic drugs?
A) Cognitive impairments
B) Rigidity
C) Tremors and drooling
D) Postural abnormalities
Q2) What is the pharmacologic action of entacapone, a potent catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) inhibitor?
A) Slows the deterioration of dopaminergic nerve cells
B) Inhibits the relative excess of dopaminergic activity
C) Reduces the destruction of dopamine in peripheral tissues
D) Enhances the cholinergic symptoms of Parkinson's disease
Q3) The nurse is teaching a patient with Parkinson's disease about levodopa. Which statement by the nurse is accurate regarding drug administration?
A) "Take this medication in between meals."
B) "Take this medication at bedtime to prevent dizziness."
C) "Take this medication when your tremors get worse."
D) "Take this medication with food or antacids to reduce GI upset."
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18
Chapter 16: Drugs Used for Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What will the nurse caution a patient about when providing information about the prescribed azaspirone antidepressant?
A) Risk for addiction
B) Adverse effect of nausea
C) Risk of injury when using machinery
D) Additive effects of CNS depression with alcohol
Q2) Which is true regarding psychological drug dependence?
A) It is easier to treat than physiological dependence.
B) It is not considered a true addiction.
C) It is easily controlled by influencing the patient's perceptions.
D) It requires medical intervention to treat.
Q3) The nurse is developing a teaching plan for patients prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). Which information about this medication should be included?
A) There is minimal potential for abuse.
B) Signs of improvement can be seen within 3 days.
C) Sedation is increased compared with other antianxiety medications.
D) It stimulates the action of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA).
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Chapter 17: Drugs Used for Mood Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements are true regarding the pharmacologic actions of certain antidepressant drugs? (Select all that apply.)
A) MAOIs block the effects of dopamine in the central nervous system.
B) SSRIs inhibit the destruction and reuptake of serotonin at the synaptic cleft.
C) Tricyclic antidepressants block the action of norepinephrine and epinephrine in the SNS.
D) Monocyclic antidepressants such as bupropion (Wellbutrin) have an unknown mechanism of action.
E) SNRIs prolong the action of neurotransmitters by decreasing the destruction of serotonin and norepinephrine.
Q2) Which nursing assessments are important before the initiation of antidepressant therapy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Compliancy with medication therapy within the last 2 months
B) Nonverbal interactions among patient and significant others present
C) Evaluation of the coherency, relevancy, and organization of thoughts in responses
D) Appearance and posture
E) Elimination pattern
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Page 20
Chapter 18: Drugs Used for Psychoses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient who is taking clozapine (Clozaril) to have weekly blood tests for the first 6 months of treatment to monitor for which potential complication?
A) Agranulocytosis
B) Vitamin deficiencies
C) Clotting abnormalities
D) Polycythemia
Q2) Which are extrapyramidal adverse effects of antipsychotic agents? (Select all that apply.)
A) Spasmodic movements of muscle groups.
B) Masklike expression
C) Lip smacking
D) Inability to sit in one place for extended period
E) Weight gain
Q3) The nurse is assessing a patient who is complaining of hearing voices. What is this patient experiencing?
A) Delusions
B) Flight of ideas
C) Disorganized thinking
D) Hallucinations
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Chapter 19: Drugs Used for Seizure Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a guideline for the nurse when administering phenytoin (Dilantin) intravenously?
A) Deliver rapidly.
B) Monitor for signs of tachycardia.
C) Assess for hypertensive crisis.
D) Administer without mixing with other medications.
Q2) Which condition would indicate to the nurse that a patient has phenytoin (Dilantin) toxicity?
A) Oculogyric crisis
B) Nystagmus
C) Strabismus
D) Amblyopia
Q3) Which is the drug of choice when treating a generalized tonic-clonic seizure?
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Haloperidol (Haldol)
C) Valproic acid (Depakene)
D) Risperidone (Risperdal)
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22
Chapter 20: Drugs Used for Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the advantage of taking an NSAID that is a COX-2 inhibitor?
A) The medication is cheaper than aspirin.
B) There are fewer gastrointestinal adverse effects.
C) They are more effective than COX-1 inhibitors.
D) They have no known adverse effects.
Q2) How long after the administration of a parenteral pain medication will the nurse complete the next pain assessment to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
A) 10 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 1 hour
D) 2 hours
Q3) Which medication would the nurse administer to a patient who is rating the pain at 8 on a 0 to 10 scale?
A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B) Morphine (Roxanol)
C) Oxycodone (OxyContin)
D) Oxycodone and aspirin (Percodan)
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23
Chapter 21: Introduction to Cardiovascular Disease and Metabolic Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the incidence of metabolic syndrome in the United States?
A) 1 in 4000
B) 1 in 400
C) 1 in 40
D) 1 in 4
Q2) In addition to type 2 diabetes and heart disease, which conditions are associated with metabolic syndrome? (Select all that apply.)
A) Dementia
B) Insomnia
C) Renal disease
D) Obstructive sleep apnea
E) Orthostatic hypotension
F) Polycystic ovary syndrome
Q3) Which cardiovascular conditions are related to coronary artery diseases? (Select all that apply.)
A) Angina pectoris
B) Pulmonary stenosis
C) Acute myocardial infarction
D) Pericarditis
E) Venous stasis ulcers
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Chapter 22: Drugs Used to Treat Dyslipidemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nutritional concepts are necessary to provide to patients receiving colestipol? (Select all that apply.)
A) Take on an empty stomach to enhance absorption.
B) Whole grains, raw fruits, and vegetables will minimize constipation.
C) Drink 8 to 10 8-ounce glasses of water daily to eliminate dehydration that is secondary to frequent loose stools.
D) Report signs of vitamin K deficiency, including bleeding gums, dark tarry stools, and coffee ground emesis.
E) Supplemental fat-soluble vitamins may be necessary.
Q2) The nurse is preparing medications for a patient. When is the best time for the nurse to administer lovastatin (Mevacor)?
A) 2 hours after breakfast
B) During the patient's dinner
C) 1 hour before breakfast
D) 30 minutes<sup> </sup>before lunch
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Chapter 23: Drugs Used to Treat Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse instructs the patient to avoid the sudden discontinuation of beta-adrenergic blockers so as to avoid which symptom?
A) Postural hypotension
B) Edema
C) Increased angina
D) Confusion
Q2) Which nursing assessment confirms that the angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that a patient is taking is effective?
A) Weight loss of more than 2 pounds/week
B) LDL-cholesterol levels have decreased.
C) Urinary output is increased.
D) Blood pressure has decreased.
Q3) Which class of antihypertensive agents should be avoided by patients with asthma?
A) ACE inhibitors
B) Diuretics
C) Aldosterone receptor antagonists
D) Beta-adrenergic blocking agents
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Chapter 24: Drugs Used to Treat Dysrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. The nurse anticipates that which drug will be used in the treatment of this dysrhythmia?
A) Disopyramide (Norpace)
B) Flecainide (Tambocor)
C) Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
D) Mexiletine (Mexitil)
Q2) What is the action of amiodarone (Cordarone), a class III agent used to treat cardiac dysrhythmias?
A) It acts as a myocardial depressant by inhibiting sodium ion movement.
B) It prolongs the duration of the electrical stimulation on cells and the refractory time between electrical impulses.
C) It acts as a beta-adrenergic agent.
D) It slows the rate of electrical conduction and prolongs the time between contractions.
Q3) Amiodarone is contraindicated for patients with which condition?
A) Pulmonary edema
B) Severe sinus node dysfunction causing bradycardia
C) Atrial fibrillation
D) Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)
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Chapter 25: Drugs Used to Treat Angina Pectoris
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient about nitroglycerin prior to discharge to home. Which instruction will the nurse provide the patient?
A) "Report any headaches following self-administration to your health care provider."
B) "Carry the medication in a pocket directly next to the body."
C) "Carry the medication with you at all times."
D) "Store nitroglycerin in a clear glass container with a tight lid."
Q2) Which response will the nurse provide when a patient complains of a headache when using sublingual nitroglycerin?
A) "This is a common adverse effect that can be managed with acetaminophen."
B) "Discontinue taking this medication."
C) "Try taking this medication at night to minimize the possibility of headaches."
D) "Lie down after using nitroglycerin to avoid a headache."
Q3) When are sustained-release nitroglycerin tablets administered?
A) Once a day
B) At bedtime
C) When symptoms of acute angina appear
D) Every 8 to 12 hours
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Chapter 26: Drugs Used to Treat Peripheral Vascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which will the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan for a patient with PVD? (Select all that apply.)
A) Intermittent cold applications to the extremities
B) Heat therapy
C) Stress reduction techniques
D) An exercise program
E) Bed positioning techniques
Q2) The nurse advises a patient taking papaverine to consult the health care provider or pharmacist before taking which over-the-counter (OTC) medication?
A) Laxatives
B) Cough and cold remedies
C) Vitamin supplements
D) Acetaminophen
Q3) What is the action of pentoxifylline (Trental), a hemorheologic agent used to treat chronic occlusive arteriole disease?
A) Vasodilates the peripheral arteries
B) Potentiates the blood clotting mechanism
C) Increases erythrocyte flexibility
D) Increases blood viscosity
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Chapter 27: Drugs Used to Treat Thromboembolic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which symptom is indicative of bleeding in a patient taking warfarin (Coumadin)?
A) Bradycardia
B) Petechiae
C) Increased urinary output
D) Dry skin
Q2) What is the rationale for administering fibrinolytic agents, such as streptokinase, within hours of the onset of myocardial infarction?
A) Enhances myocardial oxygenation
B) Lyses the blood clot
C) Promotes platelet aggregation
D) Inhibits clotting mechanisms
Q3) A trauma patient arrives in the emergency department via EMS. He is bleeding profusely. A medical alert bracelet indicates that he is on heparin therapy. The nurse will most likely administer which medication that counteracts the action of heparin?
A) Warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
B) Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
C) Protamine sulfate
D) Vitamin K
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Chapter 28: Drugs Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is to administer digoxin to an 18-month-old patient who weighs 16.5 lb. Guidelines for administration read as follows: 0.0075 mg to 0.010 mg/kg/day. Which is a safe medication dosage?
A) 0.05 mg
B) 0.12 mg
C)0.074 mg
D) 0.75 mg
Q2) The nurse is providing teaching to a patient with heart failure who has been prescribed nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker. Which statement by the nurse is accurate?
A) "This medication dilates your coronary arteries."
B) "This medication will help your kidneys get rid of fluid."
C) "This medication reduces volume returning to your heart so it doesn't overstretch."
D) "This medication reduces the resistance your heart has to pump against."
Q3) Which is the initial manifestation of digoxin toxicity in children?
A) Hallucinations
B) Weakness
C) Atrial dysrhythmia
D) Diuresis
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Page 31
Chapter 29: Drugs Used for Diuresis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which foods will the nurse recommend for a patient taking loop diuretics?
A) Protein-rich foods such as poultry, whole grains, and fish
B) Fiber-rich foods such as yellow vegetables, nuts, and lentils
C) Potassium-rich foods such as raisins, figs, and bananas
D) Sodium-rich foods such as canned vegetables and processed foods
Q2) Which nursing interventions are performed for a patient who is on diuretic therapy?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Auscultation of lung sounds
B) Assessment of skin turgor
C) Initiation of electrolyte supplements
D) Positioning techniques
E) Monitoring of intake and output
Q3) When teaching a patient who is taking thiazide diuretics, the nurse will encourage the patient to increase the intake of which electrolyte?
A) Calcium
B) Sodium
C) Potassium
D) Magnesium
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Chapter 30: Drugs Used to Treat Upper Respiratory Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patients would be able to take an alpha-adrenergic decongestant safely?
(Select all that apply.)
A) 24-year-old woman with allergic rhinitis
B) 18-year-old man with cold symptoms
C) 64-year-old woman with a history of heart disease
D) 70-year-old woman with glaucoma
E) 56-year-old man with prostatic hypertrophy
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient about the administration of antihistamines. The nurse will instruct the patient to take the medication at what time of day?
A) PRN throughout the day
B) After contact with an allergen
C) 45 minutes before exposure to an allergen
D) Once nasal congestion begins
Q3) What can result if a patient overuses topical decongestants?
A) Hypertensive crisis
B) Allergic reaction
C) Secondary congestion
D) Permanent olfactory damage
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Chapter 31: Drugs Used to Treat Lower Respiratory Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which physical assessments are pertinent to the patient with asthma? (Select all that apply.)
A) Lung sounds
B) Patient color
C) Respiratory rate and effort
D) PEF
E) Pulse oximetry reading
F) Bowel sounds
Q2) Premedication assessments before the use of anticholinergic bronchodilating agents should verify that the patient has no history of which condition?
A) Diabetes
B) Hypertension
C) Liver disease
D) Glaucoma
Q3) Which is a common expectorant in over-the-counter medications?
A) Dextromethorphan
B) Diphenhydramine
C) Guaifenesin
D) Codeine
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Chapter 32: Drugs Used to Treat Oral Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to discomfort, which are adverse effects of xerostomia? (Select all that apply.)
A) Reduced taste and appetite
B) Excessive salivation
C) Difficulty chewing and swallowing food
D) Increase in dental caries
E) Difficulty with speech
F) Improved taste and enjoyment of food
Q2) Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient about cold sores?
A) Use of drying agents prevents the spread of secretions.
B) Erupted lesions are not contagious.
C) Eruptions are related to breaks in personal hygiene.
D) Pus-filled lesions indicate a secondary bacterial infection.
Q3) What is the most common cause of most tooth, gum, and periodontal disease?
A) Sugar
B) Halitosis
C) Plaque
D) Smoking
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35
Chapter 33: Drugs Used to Treat Gastroesophageal Reflux and Peptic Ulcer
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking NSAIDs to treat arthritis asks the nurse why misoprostol has also been prescribed. Which explanation by the nurse is accurate?
A) NSAIDs often cause GI irritation that can result in peptic ulcers.
B) NSAIDs promote the production of prostaglandins and reduce the incidence of gastric irritation.
C) Antiulcer medications eradicate the presence of bacteria in the stomach that cause ulcers.
D) Drug interactions are prevented when antiulcer medications are used in combination with NSAIDs.
Q2) Which factors contribute to the development of PUD? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cigarette smoking
B) Stress
C) Genetics
D) Excessive ingestion of milk products
E) Helicobacter pylori
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Chapter 34: Drugs Used to Treat Nausea and Vomiting
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is beginning the second round of high-dose cisplatin. Severe, chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV) occurred following the first treatment, requiring 72 hours of continuous IV hydration. In addition to her chemotherapy regimen, which medication would be best to administer?
A) Prochlorperazine (Compazine) suppository daily, the day of treatment, and the next 3 days
B) Anticholinergic agents, such as diphenhydramine or meclizine
C) Parenteral ondansetron 1 hour before chemotherapy, with oral ondansetron to continue for the next 4 days
D) Parenteral ondansetron during chemotherapy, with prochlorperazine suppositories daily for 1 week
Q2) What condition is occurring when a patient experiences nausea immediately on entering the clinic to receive another course of chemotherapy?
A) Psychogenic
B) Chemotherapy-induced C) Hyperemesis gravidarum
D) Anticipatory nausea and vomiting
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Chapter 35: Drugs Used to Treat Constipation and Diarrhea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which treatments are considered safe for an infant? (Select all that apply.)
A) Saline laxatives
B) Bulk-forming laxative
C) Malt soup extract
D) Stimulant laxatives
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient with constipation. Which are causes of constipation? (Select all that apply.)
A) Diet low in fiber and/or residue
B) Excessive fluid intake
C) Diet low in cheese and yogurt
D) Iron supplements
E) Use of morphine
Q3) When the nurse assesses bowel habits in a patient, which is the best example of normal bowel elimination?
A) Daily bowel movements
B) Multiple soft stools daily
C) Daily liquid stools
D) Regular bowel elimination pattern of soft stool
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Chapter 36: Drugs Used to Treat Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which instruction by the nurse is accurate to include when providing teaching to a patient recently diagnosed with diabetes who has been prescribed insulin?
A) Beta blockers can mask symptoms of hypoglycemia.
B) Lipodystrophy increases the absorption of insulin.
C) Infection will decrease the need for insulin.
D) Excessive exercise will increase the need for insulin.
Q2) The nurse is instructing a patient about insulin administration. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I may need more insulin if I have surgery."
B) "Once I open my insulin, I will store it in the refrigerator."
C) "I will date the insulin bottle when I open it."
D) "I will keep a spare bottle of insulin on hand."
Q3) Which instruction is most important for the nurse to teach a patient with diabetes who is receiving metformin?
A) Take the medication before meals.
B) This medication will cause the pancreas to secrete more insulin.
C) Stop taking the drug 24 to 48 hours prior to radiopaque dye procedures.
D) There may be an increase in the triglyceride level.
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Chapter 37: Drugs Used to Treat Thyroid Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mechanism of action of propylthiouracil?
A) Blocks reuptake of thyroid hormone in the liver
B) Destroys hormone in the thyroid gland
C) Increases synthesis of hormone in the thyroid gland
D) Blocks synthesis of hormone in the thyroid gland
Q2) A patient with a history of heart failure has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The drug interaction with glycosides and thyroid replacement therapy will most likely require which change in therapy?
A) Decrease in the daily digoxin dosage
B) Gradual increase in the daily glycoside dosage
C) Not able to begin thyroid replacement therapy because of the underlying heart condition
D) Increased thyroid replacement dosage
Q3) Which medication is used in the treatment of hypothyroidism?
A) Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
B) Radioactive iodine
C) Propylthiouracil (Propacil)
D) Methimazole (Tapazole)
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Chapter 38: Corticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient on a high dosage of corticosteroids over a period of time may develop which type of psychiatric complication?
A) Lethargy
B) Psychotic behaviors
C) Manic phases
D) Anxiety attacks
Q2) Which condition would require mineralocorticoid replacement?
A) Addison's disease
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Myxedema
D) Glomerulonephritis
Q3) What is the rationale for administering glucocorticoid therapy as an adjunct to chemotherapeutic agents?
A) Assists with pain control
B) Raises blood sugar to meet the increased metabolic needs
C) Produces immunosuppression effects
D) Reduces mucositis
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41
Chapter 39: Gonadal Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true regarding androgen therapy?
A) Androgen use may cause hyperglycemia.
B) Administer with food or milk to avoid gastric irritation.
C) Signs of masculinization will appear and are reversible.
D) Electrolyte imbalances are extremely rare.
Q2) Which condition is of special concern when evaluating a patient for treatment with gonadal hormones? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sexually transmitted disease
B) Hypertension
C) Liver disease
D) Cancer of the reproductive organs
E) Smoking
Q3) Which is most important for the nurse to remember when instructing the patient about treatment with gonadal hormones?
A) Dosage, schedule, and adverse effects
B) Cost, storage, and route of administration
C) Drug interactions and food interactions
D) Scheduling follow-up appointments and lab studies
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Chapter 40: Drugs Used in Obstetrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which will the nurse include when teaching a postpartum patient about expected adverse effects of Rh<sub>o</sub>(D) immune globulin? (Select all that apply.)
A) Nausea
B) Constipation
C) Fever
D) Insomnia
E) Aches
F) Diarrhea
G) Anorexia
Q2) A 26-year-old patient with preeclampsia is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. The 1400 assessment includes blood pressure, 100/70 mm Hg, respiration, 10, fetal heart tone, 100/min, urine output 20 mL/hour, absent patellar reflex. Which is the priority nursing action?
A) Decrease IV magnesium sulfate to half the dose and reassess the patient and fetus in 15 minutes.
B) Stop the IV magnesium sulfate and contact the health care provider.
C) Place the patient on her left side and administer oxygen.
D) Stop the IV magnesium sulfate and administer calcium gluconate 5 mEq IV over 3 minutes.
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Page 43
Chapter 41: Drugs Used in Mens and Womens Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient states that she has a difficult time remembering when to resume her triphasic contraceptive pills following her menses. Which alternative plan will the nurse suggest that she discuss with her health care provider?
A) Changing to the 28-day packet
B) Using the inert pills every other month
C) Changing her prescription to the minipill
D) Calling the health care provider whenever she forgets to get appropriate instruction
Q2) The nurse is giving instructions to a young female at an outpatient clinic regarding combination oral contraceptive therapy. Which information will the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A) Medication should be taken at approximately the same time daily.
B) A back-up birth control method should be used for the first 6 months.
C) Medication should be discontinued 1 year before attempting pregnancy.
D) Headaches, dizziness, and chest or abdominal pain should be reported immediately.
E) If a pill is missed, take it immediately and remain on schedule for the next dosage.
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Chapter 42: Drugs Used to Treat Disorders of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the urinalysis results of an older adult patient admitted with elevated temperature and incontinence. Which urinalysis properties are indicative of an infection? (Select all that apply.)
A) Straw color
B) Foul odor
C) Trace glucose
D) pH of 8.2
E) Specific gravity of 1.014
Q2) How often is fosfomycin (Monurol) usually administered when used in the treatment of urinary tract infections?
A) In a one-time dose
B) Once per day
C) Once per week
D) Monthly
Q3) Which condition will neostigmine be used to treat?
A) Overactive bladder
B) Urinary tract infection
C) Postoperative or postdelivery urinary retention
D) Benign prostatic hypertrophy
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Chapter 43: Drugs Used to Treat Glaucoma and Other Eye Disorders
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72626
Sample Questions
Q1) A factory worker had a chemical inadvertently splashed into his right eye. An eyewash was used at the work site. Which nursing assessments are important to include? (Select all that apply.)
A) Visual acuity
B) Presence of pain, blurred or halo vision, or lack of vision
C) Type of chemical
D) Presence of nystagmus
E) Presence of contacts or use of eyeglasses
Q2) What is the mechanism of action of osmotic agents when used to decrease IOP?
A) Promoting outflow of the aqueous humor into the tear ducts
B) Increasing plasma osmolarity and drawing extracellular fluid into the blood
C) Blocking production of aqueous humor
D) Decreasing viscosity of the tears and allowing fluid to drain away from the eye
Q3) Which type of medication would be used to dilate the pupils before an eye examination?
A)Osmotics
B)Adrenergic agent
C)Beta-adrenergic agent
D)Corticosteroid
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Chapter 44: Drugs Used for Cancer Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) When are cancer cells most sensitive to chemotherapy?
A) Resting phases
B) Rapid division
C) Remission intervals
D) Slow replication
Q2) The cell cycle-specific agent vincristine sulphate (Oncovin) acts in which phase of the cell's life cycle?
A) S phase
B) Mitotic phase
C) Phase G<sub>1</sub>
D) Phase G<sub>0</sub>
Q3) Which symptom is the patient who is receiving bleomycin (Blenoxane) therapy most likely to exhibit?
A) Increased respiratory rate and cough
B) Weight gain and peripheral edema
C) Numbness and tingling of hands and feet
D) Lethargy and orthostatic hypotension
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Chapter 45: Drugs Used to Treat the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An employee at a factory has not been to work because of low back muscle spasms. His wife contacts the occupational health nurse to report that her spouse is on a centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant and is having problems with sleepiness. Based on the medication action, what will the nurse tell her? (Select all that apply.)
A) "The health care provider should be notified because these drugs are contraindicated in the treatment of low back pain."
B) "Your husband should avoid activities requiring alertness, such as driving or operating power equipment."
C) "I need additional and specific information regarding the amount of your husband's sedation."
D) "I will review baseline laboratory studies, discuss your husband's status with the health care provider, and call you back."
E) "Sedation is an adverse effect of these medications and tends to resolve with continued therapy."
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Chapter 46: Antimicrobial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which conditions may occur with the administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics over an extended period of time?
A) Cross-sensitivity
B) Immunosuppression
C) Secondary infection
D) Immunity
Q2) Which drugs may reach toxic blood levels if administered with macrolide antibiotics? (Select all that apply.)
A) Benzodiazepines
B) Digoxin
C) NSAIDs
D) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
E) Diuretics
F) Theophylline
Q3) Which drug is incompatible with heparin?
A) Gentamicin
B) Ampicillin (Unasyn)
C) Ticarcillin (Timentin)
D) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
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Page 49
Chapter 47: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is 8 weeks post partum would like to begin a moderate-intensity exercise program to lose the remaining 20 lb she gained during her pregnancy. Which exercise regimen will the nurse recommend to accomplish this goal best?
A) Walking 2 miles daily in 1 hour, four times weekly
B) Jogging 4 miles in 20 minutes, three times weekly
C) Walking 4 miles in 1 hour daily
D) Jogging 2 miles in 20 minutes, twice weekly
Q2) Which can be directly absorbed from the GI tract into the bloodstream? (Select all that apply.)
A) Glucose
B) Sucrose
C) Fructose
D) Galactose
E) Lactose
F) Maltose
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Chapter 48: Herbal and Dietary Supplement Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary use of echinacea?
A) Reduce premenstrual symptoms
B) Decrease blood pressure
C) Stimulate the immune system
D) Increase energy
Q2) Aloe gel for topical use has been marketed to treat which conditions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sunburn
B) Psoriasis
C) Migraine headaches
D) Pain and inflammation
E) Itching
Q3) Which dietary supplement is used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia?
A) Ginkgo
B) Ephedra
C) Garlic
D) Saw palmetto
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Chapter 49: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clonidine (Catapres) is used in treating which opioid withdrawal symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hypertension
B) Tremors
C) Agitation
D) Depression
E) Sweating
F) Nausea
Q2) A nurse working the night shift suspects that a colleague is abusing alcohol. Which action by the nurse is most important?
A) "Good faith" reporting is unfaithful to a colleague.
B) Reporting will result in loss of the colleague's license.
C) It is not of concern, and the nurse won't be penalized for refusing to get involved.
D) State guidelines may mandate to report substance abuse.
Q3) What does a urinalysis that is positive for the drug tested indicate?
A) It indicates illegal drug use.
B) It verifies drug dependency.
C) It is a violation of the individual's constitutional rights.
D) It verifies whether the drug is present in the specimen.
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Page 52
Chapter 50: Miscellaneous Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with gout who has elevated uric acid levels. Which medication will likely be administered?
A) Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
B) Disulfiram (Antabuse)
C) Lactulose (Cephulac)
D) Memantine (Namenda)
Q2) What condition is allopurinol (Zyloprim) used to treat?
A) Gout secondary to antineoplastic therapy
B) Acute attacks of gouty arthritis
C) Cholelithiasis
D) First-time gout attacks
Q3) Which laboratory test result would the nurse observe when a patient has hepatotoxicity?
A) Decreased bilirubin
B) Increased albumin
C) Decreased alkaline phosphatase
D) Increased alanine aminotransferase
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