

Clinical Nursing Practice Exam
Bank
Course Introduction
Clinical Nursing Practice focuses on the development of essential skills and knowledge required for professional nursing care in a variety of healthcare settings. This course emphasizes critical thinking, decision-making, and hands-on techniques for patient assessment, interventions, and evaluation. Students will apply theoretical concepts to real-life clinical situations, fostering competencies in communication, teamwork, and compassionate care. Through supervised clinical placements, students gain practical experience in delivering holistic and evidence-based care, preparing them for entry-level nursing roles and providing a foundation for lifelong learning in the nursing profession.
Recommended Textbook
Adult Health Nursing 6th Edition by Barbara Christensen
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
17 Chapters
676 Verified Questions
676 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1169

Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23140
Sample Questions
Q1) Visceral muscles are
A) smooth and voluntary.
B) smooth and involuntary.
C) striated and voluntary.
D) striated and involuntary.
Answer: B
Q2) Caudal is defined as toward the ____.
A) head
B) feet
C) tail
D) chest
Answer: C
Q3) The transverse imaginary body plane
A) divides front and back (coronal) of the body.
B) divides the body lengthwise (two equal halves).
C) divides superior and inferior portions of the body.
D) divides the body into axial and appendicular.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Care of the Surgical Patient
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23141
Sample Questions
Q1) On the patient's return to the medical-surgical unit, the nurse performs an abdominal assessment. To assess bowel sounds, the nurse auscultates the lower abdomen for
A) 1 minute.
B) 5 to 20 seconds.
C) as long as it takes to hear a bowel sound.
D) one full inspiration and expiration.
Answer: A
Q2) The older adult patient may not respond to surgical treatment as well as a younger adult because of
A) poor skin turgor resulting in dehydration.
B) disturbed body image related to surgical incision.
C) his or her body's response to physiological changes.
D) decreased peristalsis related to general anesthesia.
Answer: C
Q3) ______________ therapy is performed to alleviate or decrease uncomfortable symptoms without curing the problem.
Answer: Palliative
Palliative therapy is designed to relieve or reduce intensity of uncomfortable symptoms without cure.
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Chapter 3: Care of the Patient With an Integumentary Disorder
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23142
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse arrives at an accident scene where the victim has just received an electrical burn. The nurse's primary concern is
A) the extent and depth of the burn.
B) the sites of entry and exit.
C) the likelihood of cardiac arrest.
D) control of bleeding.
Answer: C
Q2) A patient has been admitted to the hospital with burns to his upper chest. The nurse notes singed nasal hairs. It would be important for the nurse to assess this patient frequently for
A) decreased activity.
B) bradycardia.
C) respiratory complications.
D) hypertension.
Answer: C
Q3) The most deadly skin cancer is ________________. Answer: melanoma
Malignant melanoma is a cancerous neoplasm that invades the epidermis, dermis, and sometimes the subcutaneous tissue.
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Chapter 4: Care of the Patient With a Musculoskeletal Disorder
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23143
Sample Questions
Q1) Which diagnostic exam is used to find pathological abnormalities of the brain?
A) CT scan
B) Nuclear medicine scan
C) MRI
D) Radiograph
Q2) The term unicompartmental knee arthroplasty is also referred to as A) partial knee replacement.
B) removal of the kneecap.
C) total knee replacement.
D) total knee replacement bilaterally.
Q3) A patient, age 28, has a fractured tibia and fibula. The nurse is performing an assessment of her extremities. The purpose of assessing capillary filling or performing a blanching test is to assess for adequate
A) arterial peripheral circulation.
B) cardiac output.
C) venous peripheral circulation.
D) nutritional deficiency.
Q4) In gangrene, there is an acute infection to the skeletal muscle. If untreated, _________ will destroy the tissue.
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Chapter 5: Care of the Patient With a Gastrointestinal Disorder
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23144
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient, age 32, has ulcerative colitis, and his condition is deteriorating. An ileostomy is scheduled. After the procedure, this patient may be at risk for
A) Activity intolerance.
B) Sexual dysfunction.
C) Disturbed body image.
D) Ineffective thermoregulation.
Q2) The most important nursing intervention to assure the patency of a nasogastric tube (NG) is to:
A) Clamp nasogastric tube 30 minutes twice a day.
B) Monitor NG for patency and irrigate with sterile normal saline PRN as ordered.
C) Cleanse nares at least once each shift; lubricate with a petrolatum ointment.
D) Administer mouth care every 24 hours.
Q3) Sulfasalazine is the recommended medication for treatment of Crohn's disease. Patient teaching should include:
A) taking medication 2 hours before meals.
B) limiting fluid intake.
C) ensuring adequate hydration to prevent crystallization in kidneys.
D) increased effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
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Chapter 6: Care of the Patient With a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary
Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23145
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient states that he returned from a 2-week camping trip a few days ago. He complains of nausea and anorexia and dark urine. What additional information would assist in diagnosing hepatitis A?
A) Exposure to blood
B) Recent ingestion of raw fish
C) History of intravenous drug use
D) Multiple sex partners
Q2) Because vitamin K is malabsorbed in the presence of cirrhosis, which laboratory value would be elevated?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Hematocrit
C) Prothrombin time
D) White blood cell count
Q3) Infection control is necessary in all areas of the health care setting. Which would be most appropriate in the prevention of hepatitis B in high-risk health workers?
A) Hepatitis B vaccine
B) Maintaining enteric isolation technique
C) Wearing protective gear
D) HBIG injections

Page 8
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Chapter 7: Care of the Patient With a Blood or Lymphatic Disorder
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23146
Sample Questions
Q1) Leukocytes are also known as
A) WBCs.
B) platelets.
C) RBCs.
D) hemoglobin.
Q2) The spleen stores how many milliliters of blood that can be released in emergencies?
A) 500 mL (1 pint)
B) 1500 mL (3 pints)
C) 100 mL (1/5 pint)
D) 2000 mL (4 pints)
Q3) Hematological diseases are often associated with skin impairment. Petechiae and ecchymoses are seen in
A) iron-deficiency anemia.
B) pernicious anemia.
C) hemophilia A.
D) agranulocytosis.
Q4) The organ that forms lymphocytes is the __________.
Q5) A sudden reduction in blood volume may lead to _________ shock.
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Chapter 8: Care of the Patient With a Cardiovascular or a Peripheral
Vascular Disorder
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23147
Sample Questions
Q1) Edema and pulmonary congestion are treated with:
A) Unlimited activity, high protein diet, weights weekly
B) Bed rest, normal diet, weights four times daily
C) Increase in fluids, no activity restrictions
D) Diuretics, restriction of sodium diet and fluid intake
Q2) When providing discharge teaching to a patient with endocarditis regarding prevention of infections, what would the nurse stress?
A) Avoid crowds.
B) Take antibiotics as prescribed.
C) Use only aspirin for mild pain.
D) Weigh yourself daily.
Q3) A patient has a diagnosis of heart failure. When the nurse walks into his room, he is orthopneic. The patient is
A) sitting or standing in order to breathe deeply and comfortably.
B) complaining of sudden awakenings from sleep because of shortness of breath.
C) complaining of pain in lower extremities.
D) unable to respond to simple questions.
Q4) An _____________is an enlarged, dilated portion of an artery and may be the result of arteriosclerosis, trauma, or a congenital defect.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Care of the Patient With a Respiratory Disorder
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23148
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient, age 72, is admitted with acute pulmonary edema. In pulmonary edema, the medical management will often include
A) IV infusion of D5LR at less than 30 mL/hr.
B) intravenous sodium.
C) supine position.
D) atropine to decrease respiratory rate.
Q2) The removal of fluid from the pleural space by thoracentesis presents a possible danger in removing fluid too rapidly. How much fluid removal is recommended at one time?
A) 1,500 to 2,000 mL at one time
B) 2,200 mL at one time
C) 1,300 to 1,500 mL at one time
D) Entire amount accumulated in less than 15 minutes
Q3) The surgeon administers nasal epinephrine to a patient after nasal surgery. The nurse explains to the patient that this is done primarily to
A) anesthetize the nares.
B) reduce the possibility of bleeding.
C) enhance respiration
D) dry up the nasal mucus.
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Page 11

Chapter 10: Care of the Patient With a Urinary Disorder
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23149
Sample Questions
Q1) The type and size of urinary catheter are determined by the (Select all that apply.)
A) location of the urinary tract problem.
B) urinary output.
C) cause of the urinary tract problem.
D) weight of the patient.
Q2) A patient has nephrotic syndrome. Which of these statements made by the patient indicates that she understands the dietary modifications?
A) "I will need to increase protein and decrease sodium intake."
B) "I will need to drink more milk to get my calcium."
C) "Carbohydrate restriction will be difficult."
D) "Potassium restriction won't be hard since I don't like fruit."
Q3) Chronic renal failure (CRF) affects both patients and their families because of the financial predicament and facing the death of a loved one. Which would be an appropriate nursing intervention to address these concerns?
A) Encourage open discussion with social services.
B) Allow family privacy to resolve their issues.
C) Refer the family to a support group.
D) Have the physician speak to the family.
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Chapter 11: Care of the Patient With an Endocrine Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23150
Sample Questions
Q1) What would be most necessary to place postoperatively at the bedside of the patient with a subtotal thyroidectomy?
A) Suction tray
B) Tracheotomy tray
C) Incentive spirometer
D) Water sealed drainage system
Q2) Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign are tests to determine:
A) low levels of blood calcium.
B) high levels of blood calcium.
C) low levels of blood sodium.
D) high levels of blood sodium.
Q3) A patient has returned to his room after a thyroidectomy. He is presenting with signs and symptoms of thyroid crisis. During thyroid crisis, exaggerated hyperthyroid manifestations may lead to the development of the potentially lethal complication of A) severe nausea and vomiting.
B) bradycardia.
C) delirium with restlessness.
D) congestive heart failure.
Q4) Only ________insulin can be administered intravenously.
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Chapter 12: Care of the Patient With a Reproductive Disorder
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23151
Sample Questions
Q1) During physical assessment of a patient, age 64, which finding would the nurse consider abnormal?
A) Nonpalpable ovaries
B) Serous nipple drainage
C) Pendulous breasts
D) Atrophy of vaginal tissue
Q2) Epididymitis may occur because of ____ to the testicle.
A) trauma
B) edema
C) removal
D) irritants
Q3) A patient, age 23, seeks care at the health clinic because he has developed a profuse, purulent urethral discharge, and urination is painful. During assessment of the patient, it is most important that the nurse gather information related to
A) all of his sexual contacts within the past year.
B) a history of previous similar symptoms.
C) a history of bladder infections or mumps affecting the testicles.
D) a history of recent sexual contact with an individual with a sexually transmitted disease.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Care of the Patient With a Visual or Auditory Disorder
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23152
Sample Questions
Q1) When the eye adjusts to seeing objects at various distances, it is called A) PERRLA.
B) refraction.
C) focusing.
D) accommodation.
Q2) The patient, age 42, notices that she is having difficulty reading typed print. The nurse would explain that the decreased ability to accommodate for near vision is called A) senility.
B) presbyopia.
C) myopia.
D) refraction.
Q3) Schiƶtz tonometry is a diagnostic test for __________.
Q4) The patient, age 71, has severe vertigo. A nursing action to help him reduce the symptoms is:
A) Avoid sudden movements until the vertigo lessens.
B) Avoid noises until the vertigo lessens.
C) Encourage fluid intake.
D) Lie immobile and hold the head in one position until the vertigo lessens.
Q5) _____________ is a medical term for blurred vision.
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Chapter 14: Care of the Patient With a Neurologic Disorder
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23153
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with organic brain pathology. He is presenting with signs and symptoms of total or partial loss of the ability to recognize familiar objects or people through sensory stimulation. This condition is called A) apraxia.
B) agnosia.
C) aphasia.
D) dysphagia.
Q2) When the seriousness of craniocerebral trauma is assessed, it is important to remember that
A) heavy scalp bleeding indicates serious trauma.
B) open injuries are always more serious than closed injuries.
C) signs and symptoms may not occur until several days after the trauma.
D) trauma to the frontal lobe is more significant than to any other area.
Q3) The best nursing intervention for restlessness in a patient with a head injury is A) sedation with an available narcotic.
B) restraints to prevent injury.
C) assessing for pain or distended bladder.
D) encouraging verbalization of the problem.
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16

Chapter 15: Care of the Patient With an Immune Disorder
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23154
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 42, develops a severe angioedema involving her face, hands, and feet, with burning and stinging of the lesions. During the assessment, which significant risk factor for allergies does the nurse recognize?
A) Family history of allergies
B) History of a recent fungal infection
C) Use of OTC medications
D) Recurrent respiratory infections
Q2) Which is a factor that contributes to the extent of an allergic response to an allergen?
A) The integrity of the skin
B) The time of year in which one is exposed
C) The amount of exposure
D) Exposure to one's clothing
Q3) When assessing the patient for hypersensitivity, the nurse should
A) review the immunization history.
B) discuss seasonal occurrence of signs and symptoms.
C) evaluate nutritional status.
D) observe the range of joint mobility.
Q4) The purpose of immunotherapy is _____________.
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Chapter 16: Care of the Patient With HIV-Aids
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23155
Sample Questions
Q1) HIV patients who are suffering from depression should be frequently assessed for A) physical decline.
B) fear of death.
C) support systems.
D) suicidal ideation.
Q2) Most children with AIDS contracted their disease (Select all that apply.)
A) during intrauterine life with an HIV-positive mother.
B) during the birth process of an HIV-positive mother.
C) from other children who are HIV positive.
D) from receiving a transfusion contaminated with the HIV virus.
E) from breast feeding by an HIV-positive mother.
Q3) Interventions such as promotion of nutrition, exercise, and stress reduction should be undertaken by the nurse for patients who have HIV infection, primarily because these interventions will
A) promote a feeling of well-being in the patient.
B) improve immune function.
C) prevent transmission of the virus to others.
D) increase the patient's strength and ability to care for him- or herself.
Q4) ______________ is a type of sexual option classified as "no risk" for a person to become infected with HIV virus.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Care of the Patient With Cancer
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23156
Sample Questions
Q1) Methods of early cancer detection include
A) digital rectal examinations every year after age 60.
B) Hematest of stool for blood every year after age 70.
C) chest radiograph evaluation every year.
D) mammogram baseline at age 35 to 39, then every year after age 50 for women.
Q2) A patient, age 72, is receiving chemotherapy for treatment of malignant lymphoma.
Chemotherapeutic agents work by
A) destroying only cancer cells.
B) interfering with the cells' ability to reproduce.
C) reducing the production of hydrochloric acid.
D) interfering with the movement of cells from one part of the body to another.
Q3) Which is a type of biopsy?
A) Syringe
B) Aspiration
C) Polypectomy
D) Puncture
Q4) The term ____________ is used for various substances that are known to contribute to cancer.
Q5) Men over age 50 should have annual _________ tests and rectal examinations.
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