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This course provides an in-depth exploration of clinical nursing practices specific to maternal and child health. Students will gain a comprehensive understanding of the physiological, psychological, and social aspects affecting women and children during pregnancy, childbirth, infancy, and childhood. Emphasis is placed on family-centered care, health promotion, disease prevention, and the management of both common and complex conditions affecting mothers and children. Through a combination of theoretical study and practical clinical experiences, learners develop the skills necessary to assess, plan, implement, and evaluate holistic care, while considering ethical, cultural, and legal factors unique to maternal and pediatric populations.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Maternity and Pediatric Nursing 8th Edition by Leifer
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1027 Verified Questions
1027 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What government program was implemented to increase the educational exposure of preschool children?
A) WIC
B) Title XIX of Medicaid
C) The Children's Charter
D) Head Start
Answer: D
Q2) How does electronic charting ensure comprehensive charting more effectively than handwritten charting?
A) Provides a uniform style of chart
B) Requires certain responses before allowing the user to progress
C) All documentation is reflective of the nursing care plan.
D) Requires a daily audit by the charge nurse
Answer: B
Q3) What was recommended by Karl Credé in 1884?
A) All women should be delivered in a hospital setting.
B) Chemical means should be used to combat infection.
C) Podalic version should be done on all fetuses.
D) Silver nitrate should be placed in the eyes of newborns.
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone initiates the maturation of the ovarian follicle?
A) Estrogen
B) Follicle-stimulating hormone
C) Progesterone
D) Luteinizing hormone
Answer: B
Q2) What signifies the end of puberty for a male?
A) Facial hair is evident.
B) Erections can be sustained.
C) Ejaculate is greater than 5 mL.
D) Mature sperm are formed.
Answer: D
Q3) For what is the decrease in estrogen and progesterone during the menstrual cycle responsible?
A) Degeneration of the corpus luteum
B) Ovulation
C) Follicle maturation
D) Shedding of the endometrium
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a lesson on fetal development to a class of high school students and explains the primary germ layers.What are the germ layers? (Select all that apply. )
A) Ectoderm
B) Endoderm
C) Mesoderm
D) Plastoderm
E) Blastoderm
Answer: A,B,C
Q2) The nurse is reviewing fetal circulation with a pregnant patient and explains that blood circulates through the placenta to the fetus.What vessel(s)carry blood to the fetus?
A) One umbilical vein
B) Two umbilical veins
C) One umbilical artery
D) Two umbilical arteries
Answer: A
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Q1) At what age is a woman who becomes pregnant for the first time described as an "elderly primip"?
A) After 25 years old
B) After 28 years old
C) After 30 years old
D) After 35 years old
Q2) The nurse encourages adequate intake of folic acid for women of childbearing age before and during pregnancy.What is folic acid thought to decrease the incidence of in fetal development?
A) Structural heart defects
B) Craniofacial deformities
C) Limb deformities
D) Neural tube defects
Q3) A woman's prepregnant weight is determined to be average for her height.What will the nurse advise the woman regarding recommended weight gain during pregnancy?
A) 10 to 20 pounds
B) 15 to 25 pounds
C) 25 to 35 pounds
D) 28 to 40 pounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman seeking prenatal care relates a history of macrosomic infants,two stillbirths,and polyhydramnios with each pregnancy.What does the nurse recognize these factors highly suggest?
A) Toxoplasmosis
B) Abruptio placentae
C) Hydatidiform mole
D) Diabetes mellitus
Q2) The nurse takes into consideration that the patient with placenta previa is at risk for postpartum infection for what reasons? (Select all that apply. )
A) Vaginal organisms can invade the placenta.
B) The undernourished placenta becomes necrotic.
C) The amniotic fluid can become infected.
D) The placenta is an excellent growth medium.
E) The misplaced placenta weakens the uterine wall.
Q3) What symptom presented by a pregnant women is indicative of abruptio placentae?
A) Painless vaginal bleeding
B) Uterine irritability with contractions
C) Vaginal bleeding and back pain
D) Premature rupture of membranes
Page 7
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Q1) A pregnant woman,gravida 2,para 1,tells the nurse she desires a VBAC (vaginal birth after cesarean section)with this pregnancy.What is the primary concern regarding complications for this patient during labor and birth?
A) Eclampsia
B) Placental abruption
C) Congestive heart failure
D) Uterine rupture
Q2) What is the nurse primarily concerned about maintaining in the initial care of the newborn?
A) Fluid intake
B) Feeding schedule
C) Thermoregulation
D) Parental bonding
Q3) The nurse observes on the fetal monitor a pattern of a 15-beat increase in the fetal heart rate that lasts 15 to 20 seconds.What does this pattern indicate?
A) A well-oxygenated fetus
B) Compression of the umbilical cord
C) Compression of the fetal head
D) Uteroplacental insufficiency

Page 8
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Sample Questions
Q1) A laboring patient requests hot and cold applications be applied to her abdomen for pain control.How will this intervention act to control pain?
A) By increasing endorphin production
B) By facilitating effacement and dilation
C) By producing increasing pain tolerance
D) By stimulation of large nerve fibers
Q2) How does the pain of childbirth differ from other types of pain? (Select all that apply. )
A) Childbirth pain is part of a normal process.
B) Childbirth pain seldom needs narcotic relief.
C) Position changes relieve pain and facilitate delivery.
D) Childbirth pain declines following birth.
E) Childbirth pain is self-limited.
Q3) A woman who is 6 cm dilated has the urge to push.What will the nurse instruct the woman to do during the contraction?
A) Use slow-paced breathing.
B) Hold her breath and push.
C) Blow in short breaths.
D) Use rapid-paced breathing.

Page 9
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Q1) Several hours after delivery,the nurse finds a woman crying.The woman says repeatedly,"My baby is beautiful,but I was planning on a vaginal delivery.Instead I needed an emergency C-section." What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis?
A) Anxiety related to the development of postpartum complications
B) Ineffective individual coping related to unfamiliarity with procedures
C) Risk for ineffective parenting related to emergency cesarean section
D) Grieving related to loss of expected birth experience
Q2) A labor dysfunction due to decreased uterine muscle tone occurs in a patient who is dilated to 5 cm with membranes intact.What action by the physician will the nurse anticipate?
A) Perform an amniotomy.
B) Initiate tocolytic drugs.
C) Order a sedative for the patient.
D) Plan to do an emergency cesarean section.
Q3) What sign(s)of infection should the nurse assess for after an amniotomy?
A) Oral temperature of 37° C (99.8° F)
B) Increase of fetal heart rate (FHR)from 160 to 174 beats/minute
C) Flecks of vernix in the amniotic fluid
D) Low back pain

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Sample Questions
Q1) After birth,the nurse quickly dries and wraps the newborn in a blanket.How does this action prevent heat loss?
A) Conduction
B) Radiation
C) Evaporation
D) Convection
Q2) While instructing a new mother on formula preparations,the nurse would include what types? (Select all that apply. )
A) Ready-to-feed formula
B) Concentrated liquid formula
C) Powdered formula
D) Cow's milk
E) Canned evaporated milk
Q3) In the recovery room,the nurse checks the newly delivered woman's fundus following a cesarean section.How would the nurse proceed with this assessment?
A) Palpate from the midline to the side of the body.
B) Palpate from the symphysis to the umbilicus.
C) Palpate from the side of the uterus to the midline.
D) Massage the abdomen in a circular motion.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses a boggy uterus with the fundus above the umbilicus and deviated to the side.What should the nurse's next assessment be?
A) Fullness of the bladder
B) Amount of lochia
C) Blood pressure
D) Level of pain
Q2) A postpartum patient is experiencing hypovolemic shock.What interventions can the nurse anticipate? (Select all that apply. )
A) Provision of IV fluids
B) Placement of an indwelling Foley catheter
C) Assessment of oxygen saturation
D) Administration of anticoagulants
E) Blood transfusion
Q3) What should the nurse's first action be when postpartum hemorrhage from uterine atony is suspected?
A) Teach the patient how to massage the abdomen and then get help.
B) Start IV fluids to prevent hypovolemia and then notify the registered nurse.
C) Begin massaging the fundus while another person notifies the physician.
D) Ask the patient to void and reassess fundal tone and location.
Page 12
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Sample Questions
Q1) On day 13 of a 28-day cycle,a woman's basal body temperature is 36.5° C (97.7° F).What will her temperature measurement most likely be if ovulation takes place on day 14?
A) 35.9° C (96.7° F)
B) 36.3° C (97.3° F)
C) 36.7° C (98.1° F)
D) 37.1° C (98.9° F)
Q2) A 48-year-old woman tells the nurse,"I missed my period last month.Am I in menopause?" The nurse knows that at which point is a woman considered to be menopausal?
A) Her periods have stopped for 1 year.
B) Her periods have been irregular and light for 12 months.
C) She has symptoms of vasomotor instability.
D) She experiences symptoms of decreased estrogen,such as dyspareunia.
Q3) The nurse is providing an informational session on oral contraceptives.Which of the following decrease effectiveness of oral contraceptives?
A) Antihistamines for seasonal allergies
B) Iron preparations for treatment of anemia
C) Appetite suppressants for weight reduction
D) Anticonvulsants for treatment of epilepsy
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Q1) The nurse is aware that a full-term infant is born with which reflexes? (Select all that apply. )
A) Blinking
B) Sneezing
C) Gagging
D) Sucking
E) Pincer grasping
Q2) What action does the nurse implement to protect newborns from infection while in the nursery?
A) Keep the newborn dressed warmly.
B) Adjust room temperature between 23.8° C (75° F)and 26.6° C (80° F).
C) Wash hands before touching each infant.
D) Wear a disposable gown when giving infant care.
Q3) What symptom assessed in the newborn shortly after delivery should be reported?
A) Cyanosis of the hands and feet
B) Irregular heart rate
C) Mucus draining from the nose
D) Sternal or chest retractions
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Q1) A preterm infant has a yellow skin color and a rising bilirubin level.The nurse knows that this infant is at risk for what?
A) Skin breakdown
B) Renal failure
C) Brain damage
D) Heart failure
Q2) How will the nurse safely ensure tube placement when preparing to initiate a gavage feeding?
A) Check tube placement by injecting air into the stomach.
B) Weigh the infant before the feeding.
C) Aspirate stomach contents.
D) Check serum glucose level.
Q3) The nurse caring for an infant born at 36 weeks of gestation assesses tremors and a weak cry.The nurse is aware that these symptoms indicate what?
A) Respiratory distress syndrome
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Necrotizing enterocolitis
D) Renal failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Postoperative nursing care of the infant following surgical repair of a cleft lip would include:
A) Feeding the infant with a spoon to avoid sucking.
B) Positioning the infant on the abdomen to facilitate drainage.
C) Applying elbow restraints to protect the surgical area.
D) Providing minimal stimulation to prevent injury to the incision.
Q2) The nurse is caring for an Rh-negative mother on the labor and birth unit.What scenario indicates this patient will require RhoGAM administration?
A) She has had one Rh-negative child and is pregnant with an Rh-negative child.
B) She has had an Rh-positive infant and is pregnant with an Rh-positive fetus.
C) She has had an O-negative child and is pregnant with a B-negative child.
D) She is a primipara with an O-negative child.
Q3) When bathing an infant,what sign does the nurse recognize as a sign of developmental hip dysplasia?
A) Hypotonicity of the leg muscles
B) One leg is shorter than the other
C) Broadening and flattening of the buttocks
D) Two skinfolds on the back of each thigh
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parents attending a well visit for their 11-year-old son verbalize concern over his computer use.When asked about it,the boy states,"I play games on my computer for 1 hour a day." The nurse knows that computer games can provide what opportunities to childhood development? (Select all that apply. )
A) Problem-solving skills
B) Gross motor development
C) Manipulative skills
D) Learning opportunities
E) Increased self-worth
Q2) The nurse caring for a 4-year-old postoperative patient instructs him to blow bubbles.What nursing intervention is the nurse most likely implementing by using this form of therapeutic play?
A) Providing pain relief
B) Encouraging deep breathing
C) Decreasing risk of infection
D) Maintaining body temperature
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Q1) The nurse is educating parents of a 2-month-old infant about immunizations.What immunizations against illness should their child receive? (Select all that apply. )
A) Pertussis (whooping cough)
B) Influenza
C) Diphtheria
D) Tetanus
E) Polio
Q2) What is an abnormal finding in an evaluation of growth and development for a 6-month-old infant?
A) Weight gain of 4 to 7 ounces per week
B) Length increase of 1 inch in 2 months
C) Head lag present
D) Can sit alone for a few seconds
Q3) The nurse is assessing development in a 9-month-old infant.What would the nurse expect to observe?
A) Speaking in 2-word sentences
B) Grasping objects with palmar grasp
C) Creeping along the floor
D) Beginning to use a spoon rather sloppily
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Q1) How would the nurse advise a parent who states,"I never know how much food to feed my child"?
A) Serving sizes should not exceed 1 teaspoon of each type of food.
B) Food quantities must be carefully measured to avoid overfeeding.
C) Use 1 tablespoon of each food for each year of age as a guideline.
D) A toddler should eat three balanced meals.Snacks are not necessary.
Q2) The parent of a toddler tells the nurse,"My daughter's appetite has decreased.Thank goodness she loves to drink milk." What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
A) "Has your daughter been sick recently?"
B) "How much milk does she drink in a day?"
C) "Has she become a fussy eater,too?"
D) "Have you tried offering her finger foods?"
Q3) What would the nurse assessing growth and development of a 2-year-old child expect to find?
A) The child jumps with both feet.
B) Twenty deciduous teeth have erupted.
C) The child can hop on one foot.
D) The child has a vocabulary of 900 words.
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Q1) A 3-year-old child,while playing with his favorite toy in the playroom of the pediatric unit,is approached by another child who also wants to play with the same toy.What behavior will the nurse anticipate from this child?
A) Will play well with the other child.
B) Will give the toy up and then not play anymore.
C) Will become angry and a physical response might ensue.
D) Will ignore the toy and go on to something else.
Q2) What fear is unique to the preschool period?
A) Water
B) Animals
C) Bodily harm
D) Death
Q3) Which statement best describes the 3-year-old child?
A) Boisterous,tattles on others
B) Aggressive,shows off
C) Helpful,wants to assist with chores
D) Talkative,inquisitive about the environment
Q4) When planning an activity for a 3-year-old child,the nurse bases the plan on the average attention span of _____ minutes.
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Q1) What is best for the nurse to suggest to the parents of an overweight 9-year-old child to help prevent obesity?
A) Use whole milk as a between-meal snack because it is more filling than skim milk.
B) Feed the child before family meal times to monitor intake more closely.
C) Encourage the child to engage in physical activity for at least an hour a day.
D) Remove all sweets and junk food from the house.
Q2) What should the nurse keep in mind when planning to teach a class on nutrition to fourth-grade students?
A) School-age children can concentrate on only one aspect of a situation.
B) School-age children can think abstractly.
C) School-age children are egocentric in their thinking.
D) School-age children think logically and concretely.
Q3) The nurse is aware that by the age of _____,the first permanent teeth erupt.
Q4) The nurse advises the parents of a 6-year-old child to try and ensure at least ______ hours of sleep daily for the child.
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Q1) The nurse is documenting the pediatrician's assessment of a female patient.When assessing Tanner's stages of breast development there is elevation of papilla only.What stage of development will the nurse document?
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Stage 4
Q2) An adolescent's parent comments,"My son seems so preoccupied with his appearance these days.Is this normal?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) "It is his attempt to express his individualism."
B) "His preoccupation with his looks is quite normal."
C) "He is probably troubled with his physical changes."
D) "This shows that he has a positive self-image."
Q3) What does an adolescent's peer group serve as related to development?
A) Social outlet
B) Association to blur personal identity
C) Platform for "group think"
D) Initial separation from family
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Q1) A 13-year-old girl has been hospitalized for the past week.When discussing the girl's feelings about her illness,what would the nurse expect the girl to express as her biggest concern?
A) Invasive procedures
B) Loss of control
C) Appearance
D) Separation from her boyfriend
Q2) Parents are preparing their child for admission to the pediatric unit for minor surgery.What should they expect to see when visiting the pediatric unit? (Select all that apply. )
A) Nurses wearing all white
B) Formal atmosphere
C) Availability of a playroom
D) Dim lighting
E) Colored bedding
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Q1) What factor does the nurse explain affects the infant's physiological response to medications?
A) Faster metabolism in the liver
B) Slower intestinal transit
C) Immature kidney function
D) Increased secretion of hydrochloric acid
Q2) Which strategy might the nurse use when administering oral medications to a young child who is reluctant?
A) Mix the medication with chocolate milk.
B) Tell the child that the medication is candy.
C) Give the medication quickly if the child is crying.
D) Offer the child fruit juice after the medication is swallowed.
Q3) How often should a child who has a continuous intravenous infusion should be assessed?
A) Hourly
B) Every 2 hours
C) Every 3 hours
D) Every 4 hours
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Q1) What will the nurse include when documenting a grand mal seizure? (Select all that apply. )
A) Presence of incontinence
B) Current dose of antispasmodic medication
C) Activity level prior to and following seizure
D) Level of consciousness following seizure
E) Length of seizure
Q2) What statement by a patient's mother leads the nurse to determine she understands instructions about administering an oral antibiotic for otitis media?
A) "I will continue using the medication until symptoms are relieved."
B) "I will share the medicine with siblings if their symptoms are the same."
C) "I will give the medication with a glass of milk."
D) "I will administer prescribed doses until all the medication is used."
Q3) What would the nurse include in teaching when preparing to teach parents about air travel instructions to prevent barotrauma in infants?
A) Using ear plugs during takeoff
B) Omitting the meal just before takeoff
C) Letting the infant nurse during descent
D) Applying ear drops before takeoff
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Q1) On entering the room of a child in Buck traction,the nurse makes all of the following observations.Which observation requires a nursing intervention?
A) Child's heels are placed firmly against the foot of the bed.
B) Head of bed is elevated 20 degrees.
C) Weights are hanging freely.
D) Ropes are on pulleys.
Q2) The nurse demonstrates which similarities among all traction devices? (Select all that apply. )
A) Pull the limb into extension.
B) Decrease muscle spasm.
C) Reduce pain.
D) Align two bone fragments.
E) Immobilize the limb.
Q3) Which intervention would be helpful in relieving morning discomfort associated with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Wearing splints at night to prevent extension contractures
B) Applying moist heat packs upon awakening
C) Taking a warm tub bath the evening before
D) Sleeping with two pillows under the head
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Q1) When auscultating breath sounds of an infant with respiratory syncytial virus,which assessment would the nurse immediately report?
A) Respiration rate decreases from 40 to 32 breaths/minute
B) Heart rate decreases from 110 to 100 beats/minute
C) "Quiet chest" from previous assessment of wheezing
D) Oxygen saturation of 90%
Q2) Which is the most appropriate nursing action when planning care for a child with cystic fibrosis?
A) Provide chest physiotherapy before meals every day.
B) Assess weight monthly.
C) Administer pancreas with protein food at mealtime.
D) Ensure high-protein,high-calorie diet.
Q3) What is the best choice for fluid replacement that the nurse can offer a child who has just had a tonsillectomy?
A) A popsicle
B) Chocolate milk
C) Orange juice
D) Cola drink
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Q1) The nurse is planning a hypertension-prevention program.What should be the main focus of the nurse when presenting information?
A) Pharmacological treatment
B) Surgical interventions available
C) Patient education
D) Reduction of aerobic exercise
Q2) How would the nurse caring for an infant with congestive heart failure (CHF)modify feeding techniques to adapt for the child's weakness and fatigue? (Select all that apply. )
A) Feeding more frequently with smaller feedings
B) Using a soft nipple with enlarged holes
C) Holding and cuddling the child during feeding
D) Substituting glucose water for formula
E) Offering high-caloric formula
Q3) What is accurate about the characteristics of high-density lipoproteins (HDLs)?
A) They have high amounts of triglycerides.
B) They have only small amounts of protein.
C) They have little cholesterol.
D) They aid in steroid production.
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Q1) The nurse notes that a 4-year-old child's gums bleed easily and he has bruising and petechiae on his extremities.Which lab value is consistent with these symptoms?
A) Platelet count of 25,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
B) Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL
C) Hematocrit level of 36%
D) Leukocyte count of 14,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
Q2) What will the nurse administer with ferrous sulfate drops when providing them to a child on the pediatric unit?
A) With milk
B) With orange juice
C) With water
D) On a full stomach
Q3) The nurse is teaching the parents of a young child with iron deficiency anemia about nutrition.What food would the nurse emphasize as being a rich source of iron?
A) An egg white
B) Cream of Wheat
C) A banana
D) A carrot
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Q1) The nurse is planning a parent education program about lead poisoning prevention.What will be included regarding primary sources of lead in the community?
A) Increased lead content of air
B) Use of aluminum cookware
C) Deteriorating paint in older buildings
D) Inhaling smog
Q2) What instruction will the nurse give to parents about preventing the spread and reinfection of pinworms?
A) Keep children's nails short.
B) Dress child in loose-fitting underwear.
C) Clean the bathroom with bleach solution.
D) Wash bed linens in cold water.
Q3) An infant is admitted to the hospital with severe dehydration.Laboratory results show pH 7.32,PaCO? 40,HCO?- 21.How does the nurse interpret these values?
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Metabolic alkalosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
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Q1) A parent tells the nurse that her child is scheduled for an x-ray of the bladder and urethra that is done while the child is urinating.What is this test known as?
A) Cystometrogram
B) Cystoscopy
C) Voiding cystourethrogram
D) Intravenous pyelogram
Q2) When asked about correcting the hypospadias of a newborn,what does the nurse explain about this condition?
A) No intervention is necessary as the defect will correct itself over time.
B) Surgical repair of the hypospadias is done before 18 months of age.
C) Corrective surgery is usually delayed until the preschool age.
D) Repairing the defect will increase the risk of testicular cancer.
Q3) A 6-year-old child with daytime enuresis complains of dysuria and urgency.What does the nurse recognize these signs and symptoms indicate?
A) Urinary tract infection
B) Nephrotic syndrome
C) Acute glomerulonephritis
D) Vesicoureteral reflux
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Q1) An adolescent patient at a pediatric clinic presents with a butterfly rash.What diagnosis does the nurse suspect?
A) Tuberous sclerosis
B) Eczema
C) Psoriasis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus
Q2) What should the nurse suggest before a 17-year-old girl starts a protocol of isotretinoin (Accutane)for her acne?
A) Get a prescription for oral contraceptives.
B) Increase the dose of the present medication.
C) Limit intake of chocolate,cola,and peanuts.
D) Increase exposure to sunlight.
Q3) What should the nurse keep in mind when providing care to the school-age child hospitalized with a burn injury?
A) Hospitalization will be brief.
B) Analgesics should be given immediately after dressing changes.
C) Contact with peers should be maintained.
D) Parents usually handle injury worse than the child.
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Q1) The nurse assessing a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA?c)test is aware that this test can evaluate average glucose levels over a period of _____ to _____ months.
Q2) Which food sources are high in soluble fiber? (Select all that apply. )
A) Raw fruits
B) Cooked vegetables
C) Beans
D) Lean meat
E) Bran cereal
Q3) What does the nurse instruct a 12-year-old to do when teaching how to administer insulin?
A) Make sure injection sites are 6 inches apart.
B) Select an injection site that was recently exercised.
C) Inject the needle at a 90-degree angle.
D) Give the injection deep into the muscle.
Q4) The nurse explains that the diagnosis of diabetes is made when the fasting blood glucose level is _______ mg/dL on two separate occasions,and the history is positive for indication of the disease.
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Q1) A parent is concerned because her son was exposed to varicella at preschool.The nurse would tell this parent that the incubation period for varicella is 14 to_____ days.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer immunizations at a well-child clinic.Which method of administration will the nurse implement?
A) DTaP subcutaneously
B) Hib vaccine prepared in a separate syringe
C) Varicella intramuscularly
D) Varicella 1 week after the MMR vaccine
Q3) The mother of a newborn asked the nurse,"When will my baby get the hepatitis B vaccine?" When will the nurse explain the first dose of Comvax should be given to infants born to a hepatitis B-positive mother?
A) Within 12 hours after birth
B) Within 2 weeks after birth
C) Within 1 month after birth
D) Within 2 months after birth
Q4) The nurse demonstrates proper hand hygiene pointing out that the process should take a minimum of ____ seconds.
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Q1) How would the nurse identify a member of the child guidance team who is a medical doctor with special training in psychoanalytic theory?
A) Psychiatrist
B) Psychoanalyst
C) Psychologist
D) Counselor
Q2) The nurse is answering phone calls at a local suicide prevention hotline.Which statement would be recognized as the greatest risk of suicide?
A) "I just needed to talk to someone to keep myself from thinking silly thoughts about killing myself."
B) "My parents aren't home and won't be back for 4 hours.That should be enough time for the pills to work.I've got a hundred of them."
C) "My dad will be home first,so he'll find me.So I think I'll use his gun.I hope he didn't lock the cabinet."
D) "My girlfriend is here with me.She told me to call because I was talking crazy about killing myself."
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Q1) A patient is providing history information to the admitting nurse about treatment used for chronic pain.The patient reports she participates in a type of relaxation therapy that enables her to recognize tension in the muscles via responses on an electronic machine and visual electromyography responses.What type of therapy does the nurse record on admission record?
A) Guided imagery
B) Biofeedback
C) Hypnotherapy
D) Chiropractic care
Q2) The nurse uses a diagram to show the location of meridians.How will the nurse explain the definition of meridians?
A) They are lymph nodes.
B) They are invisible pathways for energy.
C) They are lines that divide the body into 10 zones.
D) They are areas of skin that are specifically innervated.
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