Course Introduction
Clinical Nursing I Review Questions
Clinical Nursing I introduces students to the foundational principles and practices of nursing care in clinical settings. This course emphasizes the development of essential nursing skills, patient assessment techniques, and effective communication with patients, families, and healthcare teams. Students gain hands-on experience in basic procedures such as vital sign monitoring, infection control, medication administration, and documentation, all within a framework of patient safety and ethical practice. Through supervised clinical rotations, students begin to apply theoretical knowledge to real-world situations, fostering critical thinking and the professional attitudes necessary for quality patient-centered care.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing 7th Editon by Cooper
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57 Chapters
2259 Verified Questions
2259 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Evolution of Nursing
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What score does the graduate practical nurse require to be issued a license upon of the computerized examination?
A) 70% or better
B) This is defined and set by each state
C) Designated as "pass"
D) Within the 75th percentile
Answer: C
Q2) Where did Florence Nightingale's original nursing education take place?
A) Saint Thomas
B) Kings College Hospital
C) Crimean Hospital
D) Kaiserswerth School
Answer: D
Q3) What is a modern educational advancement program for the LPN/LVN to enter RN education?
A) Repetition
B) Exclusion
C) Articulation
D) Coexistence
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Legal and Ethical Aspects of Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a patient in the acute care setting assumes responsibility for a patient's care. What is this legally binding situation?
A) Nurse-patient relationship
B) Accountability
C) Advocacy
D) Standard of care
Answer: A
Q2) An older adult is admitted to the hospital with numerous bodily bruises, and the nurse suspects elder abuse. What is the best nursing action?
A) Cover the bruises with bandages.
B) Take photographs of the bruises.
C) Ask the patient if anyone has hit her.
D) Report the bruises to the charge nurse.
Answer: D
Q3) Acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited are defined by ___________ of ______________.
Answer: standards, care
Standards of care define acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited.
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4
Chapter 3: Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the system that classifies patients by age, diagnosis, and surgical procedure and produces 300 different categories used for predicting the use of hospital resources?
A) Quality assurance
B) Resource assessment
C) Quality improvement
D) Diagnosis-related groups
Answer: D
Q2) What should a medical record provide for all health care providers? (Select all that apply.)
A) Care given to the patient
B) Care planned for the patient
C) A patient's nursing problems
D) A patient's medical problems
E) Details about any incident reports
F) The patient's response to treatment
Answer: A, B, C, D, F
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Chapter 4: Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) How may a nurse caring for a pediatric patient best be perceived as nonthreatening?
A) Tightly crossing her arms
B) Maintaining an open posture
C) Maintaining a tense posture
D) Standing at the bedside
Q2) What communication technique should the nurse use when communicating with an unresponsive patient?
A) Avoid speaking directly to the patient
B) Assume verbal stimuli are heard
C) Speak in a loud voice
D) Use simple words
Q3) A nurse actively avoids the use of one-way communication. What is the major problem with one-way communication?
A) The receiver is in control.
B) Feedback is provided to the sender.
C) Participation is not equal.
D) The communication is unstructured.
Q4) ____________ is the reciprocal process in which messages are sent and received between people.
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Chapter 5: Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the two primary methods used to collect data?
A) Written report by patient and family
B) Review of the chart and the nurse's notes
C) Interview and physical examination
D) Review of the physician's orders and the Kardex
Q2) What is an important consideration when developing the care plan?
A) Ensure the number of interventions is limited
B) Ensure the patient is involved in the process
C) Ensure interventions will be easy to implement
D) Ensure evaluation of the nursing diagnoses is possible
Q3) Who is the person responsible for analyzing and interpreting data to arrive at a nursing diagnosis?
A) Physician
B) LPN/LVN
C) RN
D) Technician
Q4) Any health care condition that requires diagnostic, therapeutic, or educational actions is known as a ______________.
Q5) The standards that name and measure patient outcomes are referred to as
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Chapter 6: Cultural and Ethnic Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who fasts during daylight hours during Ramadan. The nurse recognizes that the patient is adhering to the cultural beliefs of which culture?
A) Muslims
B) African Americans
C) Chinese Americans
D) Mexican Americans
Q2) Which health belief system is commonly referred to as "third-world" beliefs and practices?
A) Folk health belief system
B) Holistic health belief system
C) Biomedical health belief system
D) Alternative/complementary belief system
Q3) The nurse is caring for an African American patient. Who would the nurse expect to be the primary decision maker in the patient's family?
A) Men
B) Women
C) Clergy
D) Grandparents
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8
Chapter 7: Asepsis and Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is transporting a patient in respiratory isolation to the radiology department. What intervention should the nurse implement?
A) Cover the patient with a sheet
B) Take the patient down the service elevator
C) Apply a mask to the patient
D) Call x-ray to come and get the patient
Q2) What action exemplifies a nurse practicing medical asepsis in performing daily care?
A) Lifting a sterile swab from a sterile field
B) Using disposable sterile gowns
C) Washing hands for 5 minutes between patients
D) Keeping bed linens off the floor
Q3) What is true regarding surgical asepsis?
A) It inhibits growth of pathogenic organisms.
B) It is known as a cleaning technique.
C) It includes hand hygiene.
D) It is known as a sterile technique.
Q4) The nurse reminds a group of nursing students that the type of asepsis that destroys all microorganisms and their spores is _______ asepsis.
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Chapter 8: Body Mechanics and Patient Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a fall occurs, the nurse should document the incident and initiate a(n) ___________ report.
Q2) What is considered to be the minimum number of hours of daily activity necessary to prevent the negative consequences of immobility?
A) 2 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 8 hours
Q3) A nurse instructs a nursing assistant about moving older adult patients in bed. When should the nurse intervene when observing the nursing assistant perform a return demonstration?
A) The nursing assistant is using simple language.
B) The nursing assistant is avoiding jerky movements.
C) The nursing assistant is avoiding sudden movements.
D) The nursing assistant is pulling the patient across bed linens.
Q4) The most common cause of musculoskeletal disorders in nurses involves a movement that requires the nurse to ________ and _________ at the same time.
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10
Chapter 9: Hygiene and Care of the Patients Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse must follow the principles of medical asepsis while making a patient's bed, including procedures for handling linens. How should the nurse handle soiled linens?
A) Place on the floor
B) Fan in the air
C) Hold away from the uniform
D) Place at the end of the bed
Q2) The physician orders a patient to be placed in the reverse Trendelenburg position. How should the nurse place the bed?
A) On the floor
B) Parallel with the floor
C) Tilted with the head of the bed down
D) Tilted with the foot of the bed down
Q3) The nurse is educating a patient regarding a tub bath. What is the maximum length of time the nurse should instruct the patient to remain in the water?
A) 5 to 10 minutes
B) 10 to 20 minutes
C) 20 to 30 minutes
D) 30 to 40 minutes
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Chapter 10: Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse do when offering a cup of hot coffee to a frail, older adult patient?
A) Give the patient a straw
B) Dilute the coffee with cold water
C) Fill the cup half full
D) Offer a bib or an apron
Q2) The nurse manager is providing an in-service regarding a "safe hospital environment." What will this education mainly focus on preventing?
A) Falls
B) Exposure to contaminants
C) Injury
D) Electrical hazard
Q3) What must the nurse do before applying a safety reminder device (SRD)?
A) Get permission from the family
B) Assess patient's skin condition
C) Get a physician's order
D) Explain the SRD to the patient
Q4) When reinforcing the PASS acronym for fire extinguisher use, the nurse reminds the staff that the final "S" stands for ______________.
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Chapter 11: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should the nurse position the ear pinna when using the tympanic thermometer on a child?
A) Upward and back
B) Parallel
C) Downward and back
D) Upward and forward
Q2) A nurse assesses a patient's dorsalis pedis pulse. The pulse feels full and springlike even under moderate pressure. How should the nurse document this finding?
A) Weak pulse
B) Normal pulse
C) Thready pulse
D) Bounding pulse
Q3) When assessing vital signs on a 40-year-old male, the nurse identifies a pulse rate of 120. What is this pulse interpreted as by the nurse?
A) Normal
B) Bradycardic
C) Arrhythmic
D) Tachycardic
Q4) The nurse assesses for the fifth vital sign, which is______________.
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Chapter 12: Physical Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is gathering subjective data when admitting a patient. Which assessment finding reported by the patient is considered subjective data?
A) Complains of pruritus
B) Is experiencing erythema
C) Appears to be experiencing pruritus
D) Has a generalized rash
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient for collection of subjective and objective data. What will this data provide the basis for making?
A) Care plan
B) Medical diagnosis
C) Nursing assessment
D) Nursing diagnosis
Q3) Arrange these assessment techniques in correct order of a standard physical examination. Put a comma and space between each answer choice (A, B, C, D, etc.).
A) Auscultation
B) Percussion
C) Inspection
D) Palpation
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14
Chapter 13: Admission, Transfer, and Discharge
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where can a nurse refer the family of a patient to find a source of financial aid to meet medical expenses?
A) A local bank
B) A clinical nurse specialist
C) The hospital administration
D) Social services
Q2) The nurse must be sensitive to an older adult patient experiencing separation anxiety when admitted to the hospital. When a child experiences separation anxiety they will usually cry. What will an older adult often demonstrate when experiencing separation anxiety?
A) Withdrawal
B) Anger
C) Depression
D) Regression
Q3) When should discharge planning begin?
A) The day before discharge
B) On the first day postoperatively
C) Shortly after admission
D) When the doctor orders it
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Surgical Wound Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assessing a patient's wound notes pale red watery drainage. How will the nurse most accurately document this finding?
A) Serous drainage
B) Purulent drainage
C) Sanguineous drainage
D) Serosanguineous drainage
Q2) The nurse assessing a patient's wound notes a clear watery drainage. How will the nurse most accurately document this finding?
A) Serous drainage
B) Purulent drainage
C) Sanguineous drainage
D) Serosanguineous drainage
Q3) When preparing to remove a dressing, the nurse should don __________ gloves.
Q4) What technique will the nurse implement to assist the postoperative patient to cough?
A) Support the patient's back
B) Offer an antitussive
C) Splint the abdomen with a pillow
D) Lean patient against the bedside table
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Chapter 15: Specimen Collection and Diagnostic Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has an order to perform occult blood testing on a patient's emesis. What color will the sample turn to indicate that the test is positive for occult blood?
A) Red
B) Blue
C) Green
D) Yellow
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient following a bronchoscopy and maintains NPO status for 2 hours. What additional assessment will indicate to the nurse that this patient's risk for aspiration has decreased?
A) Patient is fully awake
B) Patient asks for a drink
C) Gag reflex has returned
D) Preoperative medication has worn off
Q3) Following an intravenous pyelogram, the nurse should watch the patient closely for a delayed reaction to the dye, usually occurring within ___ to ___ hours following the procedure.
Q4) When collecting a stool specimen for a guaiac (occult blood in stool), the nurse should take a specimen from _____ different parts of the stool.
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Chapter 16: Care of Patients Experiencing Urgent
Alterations in Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Good Samaritan law will protect all people who offer assistance. What is necessary for this protection?
A) A license
B) The person acts prudently
C) Licensed supervision
D) The patient improves
Q2) The nurse determines clinical death and initiates CPR immediately. How long is resuscitation considered possible?
A) If cardiopulmonary arrest has existed for no more 2 minutes
B) If cardiopulmonary arrest has existed for no more 3 minutes
C) If cardiopulmonary arrest has existed for no more 4 minutes
D) If cardiopulmonary arrest has existed for no more 5 minutes
Q3) The nurse is assessing a patient who is severely bleeding and at risk for hypovolemic shock. What can the nurse anticipate?
A) Slow, labored breathing
B) Hot, flushed skin
C) Edematous extremities
D) Weak, thready pulse
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Chapter 17: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) ___________________is a noninvasive method an individual can employ to learn control of the body to manage certain conditions. Monitoring equipment is used to measure vital signs and muscle tension. The messages are sent back to the individual.
Q2) An older adult patient tells the home health nurse, "My doctor hasn't helped my arthritis at all. I am using the chiropractor now." What change has the patient made?
A) Western medicine to complementary therapy
B) Complementary therapy to alternative therapy
C) Alternative therapy to allopathic medicine
D) Allopathic medicine to alternative therapy
Q3) People with fractures, rheumatoid arthritis, and osteoporosis are not candidates for ____________ therapy.
Q4) What training system may help prevent osteoporosis?
A) Acupressure
B) Yoga
C) Therapeutic massage
D) Tai chi
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Chapter 18: Pain Management, Comfort, Rest, and Sleep
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Q1) A young athlete asks the nurse why he felt little pain when he broke his leg during a game. What does the nurse describe as having an effect on this patient's perception of pain?
A) Hormones
B) Enzymes
C) Adrenaline
D) Endorphins
Q2) A male patient reports to the home health nurse that he does not feel rested although he has slept 8 hours. For what should the nurse assess?
A) Having vivid dreams
B) Eating a heavy meal before going to bed
C) Consuming an excessive amount of alcohol
D) Taking an anxiolytic medication
Q3) The nurse obtains information from a patient about the site, severity, and duration of the pain. What type of data is this considered?
A) Patient data
B) Objective data
C) Focused data
D) Subjective data
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Nutritional Concepts and Related Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is counseling a patient about the difference between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. What should the nurse stress that patients with type 2 diabetes are required to receive on a daily basis?
A) Regular carbohydrate-controlled meals
B) Oral hyperglycemic agents
C) Insulin injections
D) Stringent low-calorie diets
Q2) When reviewing a patient's dietary intake, the nurse recommends that sugar consumption be reduced to the recommended daily level. What is this level?
A) No more than 24% of total daily kilocalories
B) No more than16% of total daily kilocalories
C) No more than 8% of total daily kilocalories
D) No more than 4% of total daily kilocalories
Q3) How many kcal/g does 1 g of alcohol provide?
A) 4 kcal/g
B) 5 kcal/g
C) 6 kcal/g
D) 7 kcal/g
Q4) The body mass index (BMI) of a man 6 feet tall weighing 250 pounds is _______.
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Chapter 20: Fluids and Electrolytes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of an adult's body weight consists of water?
A) 10% to 20%
B) 30% to 40%
C) 50% to 60%
D) 70% to 80%
Q2) What is the nurse closely assessing for in a patient with hypokalemia?
A) Systemic edema
B) Cardiac complications
C) Muscle cramping
D) Impaired kidney function
Q3) What should the nurse expect when assessing a patient with respiratory alkalosis?
A) Slow respirations
B) Muscle weakness
C) Strong, even heart rate
D) Flushed face
Q4) The nurse expects an adult with normal kidney function to void a minimum of ____ mL of urine in 4 hours.
Q5) The nurse explains that a normal adult will lose approximately _____ mL of water through respiration in the course of a day.
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Chapter 21: Mathematics and Medication Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) When giving a subcutaneous injection to a very thin patient, how does the nurse alter the injection technique?
A) Using a 23-G needle
B) Spreading the skin before injection
C) Pinching up the skin and inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle
D) Injecting the medicine quickly to reduce pain
Q2) When the patient complains about his IV lines and asks if he can have the medication by mouth, what is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
A) "Pills are difficult for many patients to swallow."
B) "Medication by mouth is absorbed more slowly than by any other route."
C) "It takes more time for the nurse to prepare and administer oral medications."
D) "It leads to more errors to give pills, because the pills all look alike."
Q3) The physician has ordered furosemide 20 mg stat. The ampule is labeled 40 mg/mL. What dose should the nurse administer?
A) 0.8 mL
B) 0.5 mL
C) 2.0 mL
D) 8.0 mL
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Chapter 22: Care of Patients with Alterations in Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a Foley catheter has been removed, the nurse should assess the patient for:
A) hemorrhage.
B) constipation.
C) urinary retention.
D) bladder spasm.
Q2) Before inserting a nasogastric tube, what measurement should the nurse take?
A) Tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process
B) Bridge of the nose to the xiphoid process
C) Nose to the top of the ear to the stomach
D) Clavicular notch to the stomach
Q3) When a patient complains of progressive hearing loss, crackling and ringing noises in his ear, and progressive ear pain, what should the nurse assess for?
A) A dead battery in the patient's hearing aid
B) Cerumen impaction
C) Sinus congestion
D) A middle ear infection
Q4) The nurse is alert for a serious condition called ___________ that results from pathogens being introduced into the blood stream.
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Chapter 23: Life Span Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the stage of family development that begins when conception begins and continues through the pregnancy?
A) Expectant stage
B) Parenthood stage
C) Establishment stage
D) Engagement/commitment stage
Q2) The nurse discovers during the intake assessment of a 5-year-old child that the child lives with his biologic parents and siblings. How would the nurse categorize this family type?
A) Extended family
B) Blended family
C) Social family
D) Nuclear family
Q3) What is the average apical heart rate for a 2-month-old infant?
A) 80 bpm
B) 100 bpm
C) 120 bpm
D) 150 bpm
Q4) The process that refers to gradual change and differentiation is _____________.
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Chapter 24: Loss, Grief, Dying, and Death
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Q1) Which of the following would lead the home health nurse to make a nursing diagnosis of unresolved grief for a patient who was widowed 5 months ago?
A) Seeing that the patient keeps a picture of the husband by her bed
B) The patient said tearfully, "I can't believe he is gone."
C) Assessing that the patient eats out frequently rather than cooking at home
D) The patient says that she attends church three times a week.
Q2) What should the nurse do before approaching a grieving family member?
A) Offer sympathy
B) Assess level of resolution
C) Give assurance that the pain will pass
D) Encourage the family member to return to normal activities
Q3) Following the death of a day-old infant, the nurse brings the baby to the parents. What is the rationale for the parents' visit with the deceased baby?
A) Bond with the family
B) Reinforce the individuality of the baby
C) Generate preparation for another child
D) Make the death a reality
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Chapter 25: Health Promotion and Pregnancy
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Q1) The nurse assures an anxious primigravida that during fetal development from week 34 and beyond, maternal antibodies are transferred to the baby. How long will these antibodies provide the baby with immunity?
A) 1 month
B) 3 months
C) 4 months
D) 6 months
Q2) How long does the embryonic stage of pregnancy typically last?
A) 3 weeks
B) 4 weeks
C) 6 weeks
D) 8 weeks
Q3) Where does implantation of the fertilized ovum usually occur?
A) Lower uterine wall
B) Side of the uterus
C) Fundus of the uterus
D) Body of the uterus
Q4) During the 30th week of gestation, the nurse would anticipate that the fundal height would be _____ centimeters above the symphysis.
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Chapter 26: Labor and Delivery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mother has entered the second stage of labor. When does the second stage of labor end?
A) When the mother begins to push
B) When the baby's head crowns
C) With delivery of the baby
D) With delivery of the placenta
Q2) A woman who is 38 weeks pregnant tells the nurse that the baby has dropped and she is having urinary frequency again. What do these symptoms describe?
A) Lightening
B) Braxton-Hicks contractions
C) Initiation of labor
D) Engagement
Q3) What area of the uterus provides the force during a contraction?
A) Lower portion
B) Middle portion
C) Upper portion
D) Cervical portion
Q4) A nurse shows the patient an x-ray of the fetal spine in parallel alignment with the mother's to demonstrate a ________ lie.
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Chapter 27: Care of the Mother and Newborn
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Q1) What is the appropriate way to assess the fundus of the postpartum patient?
A) Using the side of one hand moving down from the umbilicus
B) Using one hand over the lower segment of the uterus
C) Using one hand pushing upward from the lower uterus
D) Using one hand on the lower uterine segment while the other hand locates the fundus of the uterus
Q2) The new mother tells the home health nurse that she is concerned about her 5-day-old infant's hard, dried umbilical stump. What time frame should the nurse give the mother for the umbilical stump to fall off ________________________ days
Q3) Which finding should the nurse suspect as abnormal in the newborn during the initial assessment?
A) Eyes crossed at times
B) Persistent high-pitched cry
C) Arms and legs flexed
D) Slight bluish tinge of the extremities
Q4) The nurse describes the return of the postpartum patient's uterus to a pregravid state as ________________.
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29
Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents with symptoms of abruptio placentae. To facilitate uterine-placental perfusion, in what position would the nurse place the patient?
A) Prone position
B) Trendelenburg position
C) Supine position
D) Modified side-lying position
Q2) Why do alcohol and illegal drugs endanger the fetus?
A) Both are absorbed into the bloodstream.
B) Both affect the mother.
C) Both cross the placental barrier.
D) Both increase the heart rate of the fetus.
Q3) What should be specifically monitored in a patient who is hospitalized with gestational hypertension?
A) Blood sugar
B) Temperature
C) Level of consciousness
D) Deep tendon reflexes
Q4) The nurse explains that severe preeclampsia needs to be controlled because it can develop into another syndrome called _________________.
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Chapter 29: Health Promotion for the Infant, Child, and Adolescent
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor is mostly associated with problems such as domestic violence, sexually transmitted infections (STIs), school failure, and motor vehicle accidents (MVAs)?
A) Lack of supervision
B) Psychological problems
C) Substance abuse
D) Physiological problems
Q2) Which children must be secured in the back seat in a rear-facing safety seat?
A) Children weighing up to 20 lb
B) Children weighing between 20 and 30 lb
C) Children weighing between 30 and 40 lb
D) Children weighing more than 40 lb
Q3) What is the single most preventable cause of death and disease in the United States today?
A) Drug use
B) Alcohol addiction
C) Cigarette smoking
D) Malnutrition
Q4) The nurse recognizes that preventive programs in schools must be stepped up in order to prevent violence, especially __________.
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Chapter 30: Basic Pediatric Nursing Care
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42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When measuring the head circumference of an infant, where should the nurse place the tape measure?
A) Across the eyebrows and around the occipital lobe
B) Over the zygomatic arches and around the parietal areas
C) Around forehead and around the crown of the head
D) Above the eyebrows and pinnas, and around the occipital lobe
Q2) What is the maximum amount of time that a nurse should suction an artificial airway?
A) 1 second
B) 5 seconds
C) 30 seconds
D) 1 minute
Q3) When the newly admitted 2-year-old who was potty-trained before admission begins to wet the bed, the mother is frightened. What statement by the nurse will be most helpful to the mother?
A) "Don't be concerned. Accidents happen."
B) "Let's put a diaper on your child until this gets better."
C) "The stress of hospitalization makes children regress a little."
D) "Your child will relearn 'potty-training' if you are patient."
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Care of the Child with a Physical and Mental or Cognitive Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Since children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) take medication for long periods of time, side effects must be considered. How often should children be assessed for side effects of the drug therapy?
A) Every 2 months
B) Every 4 months
C) Every 6 months
D) Every 8 months
Q2) When interacting with the parents of a SIDS infant, the nurse should attempt to assist the parents with:
A) encouraging the parents to have another baby.
B) encouraging the parents to remain stoic.
C) allaying feelings of guilt and blame.
D) learning how the event could have been prevented.
Q3) What should the therapeutic management of iron deficiency anemia include?
A) Multivitamins
B) Calcium
C) Ferrous sulfate
D) Iodine
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Chapter 32: Health Promotion and Care of the Older Adult
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Sample Questions
Q1) At mealtime, the older adult seems to be eating less food than would be adequate. Compared to the younger adult, what is a requirement for the older adult?
A) More fluids
B) Less calcium
C) Fewer calories
D) More vitamins
Q2) How often does a 76-year-old need a screening for preventative health?
A) Every 2 years
B) Every 6 months
C) Every 3 years
D) Every year
Q3) To help prevent falls related to muscle weakness, what type of exercises should be selected for the aging patient?
A) Daily
B) Running
C) Weight-bearing
D) Aerobic
Q4) The nurse recognizes that a term referring to mechanical difficulty of swallowing is
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Chapter 33: Concepts of Mental Health
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Q1) The nurse is sensitive to the fact that patients lose control over their lives when admitted to the hospital. In what does this loss of control frequently result?
A) Anger
B) Depression
C) Fear
D) Anxiety
Q2) When the patient who overeats insists that weight gain is related to retained fluids, the nurse recognizes the patient is using which defense mechanism?
A) Compensation
B) Rationalization
C) Sublimation
D) Regression
Q3) A perceived threat to self causes what emotion?
A) Fear
B) Anger
C) Depression
D) Anxiety
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Chapter 34: Care of the Patient with a Psychiatric Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the prognosis for a schizophrenic patient who is exhibiting positive behaviors?
A) Guarded
B) Poor
C) Good
D) Repeatable
Q2) What are considered warning signs of suicide? (Select all that apply.)
A) Talking about suicide
B) Increased interactions with friends and family
C) Drug or alcohol abuse
D) Difficulty concentrating on work or school
E) Personality changes
Q3) The patient talks with his dead brother and arranges furniture so that his brother will have a place to sit. How should the nurse document this behavior?
A) Disordered thinking
B) Anhedonia
C) Hallucination
D) Alogia
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36
Chapter 35: Care of the Patient with an Addictive Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug is often used in date rape?
A) Dalmane
B) Xanax
C) Narcan
D) Rohypnol
Q2) The mother of a young woman being treated for amphetamine overdose asks the nurse when the manifestations will subside. What would be the most correct answer by the nurse?
A) "Usually in 8 to 10 hours."
B) "She will snap out of it in a day or two."
C) "Usually in about 2 hours, but the effects will return in 2 to 3 days."
D) "The manifestations may be permanent."
Q3) What should the nurse do when suspecting a co-worker of abusing drugs while at work?
A) Confront the abuser
B) Report observations to a supervisor
C) Call the state board of nursing
D) Discuss the problem with another co-worker
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Chapter 36: Home Health Nursing
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What became effective in 1966 by an act of legislation that revolutionized home care?
A) Life insurance
B) Medicare
C) Private insurance
D) Social Security
Q2) Medicaid pays for home care services for people who have low incomes. Who administers the Medicaid program?
A) Federal government
B) City government
C) State government
D) County government
Q3) The nurse can best confirm that the patient understands the communication by obtaining ____________ from the patient.
Q4) When should discharge planning begin for a patient receiving home care services?
A) A week before discharge
B) Two days before discharge
C) The day of discharge
D) On admission
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Chapter 37: Long-Term Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct term for people who live in long-term care facilities?
A) Patients, because they will be receiving acute care
B) Residents, because the facility has become their home
C) Patients, because they seek professional medical services
D) Customers, because they are purchasing care service
Q2) The nurse recognizes that an ongoing assessment will help set priorities in the nursing care plan of a long-term care resident. What does this allow the planning process to become?
A) Timely
B) Patient-centered
C) Preferential
D) Categorized
Q3) What impact will the Affordable Care Act have on nursing homes and long-term care centers when fully implemented? (Select all that apply.)
A) A weaker consumer complaint system
B) Better training for state inspectors
C) Program to support national criminal background checks
D) Public disclosure of nursing home owners and operators
E) Training of nursing assistants in the care of people with dementia
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Rehabilitation Nursing
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse who assesses for cultural influences, values cultural diversity, and incorporates cultural knowledge in practice is said to be ____________
Q2) The nurse explains that the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 defines a person as disabled if which criteria are met? (Select all that apply.)
A) The person has a physical or mental impairment.
B) The person is limited in at least one major life activity.
C) The person has a medical record of the impairment.
D) The person is unemployed.
E) The person needs assistance in of ADLs.
Q3) The nurse takes special care to be gentle in caring for patients with spinal cord injuries to avoid stimulating the autonomic nervous system and triggering which condition?
A) Paresis
B) Heterotopic ossification
C) Postural hypotension
D) Autonomic dysreflexia
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Chapter 39: Hospice Care
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hospice nurse introduced the family to the volunteer coordinator who will assign a volunteer to the patient. What can a hospice volunteer do for a patient and caregiver?
A) Give the family respite
B) Give necessary medication in the absence of the nurse
C) Be at the family's disposal 16 hours a week
D) Bathe the patient
Q2) When a deficiency in nutritional status of a patient is assessed, what action should be taken by the hospice nurse?
A) Make a comprehensive grocery list for the caregiver
B) Alert the licensed medical nutritionist
C) Seek culturally appropriate methods to increase nutrition
D) Instruct the caregiver to give the patient multivitamins
Q3) When the dying patient becomes confused, the nurse should ____________ him or her.
Q4) Which of the following is an expected part of the end-of-dying process?
A) Denial
B) Despair
C) Anorexia
D) Depression
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Chapter 40: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a group of several different kinds of tissues arranged so that together they can perform a more complex function than any tissue alone?
A) Organ
B) System
C) Cell
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q2) The nurse clarifies that the dorsal cavity is composed of the (select all that apply) :
A) Descending colon
B) Kidneys
C) Gallbladder
D) Brain
E) Pancreas
F) Spinal cavities
Q3) When several organs and parts are grouped together for certain functions, they form:
A) tissues.
B) systems.
C) cells.
D) membranes.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Care of the Surgical Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) In preparation for the return of the surgical patient, the patient's bed and equipment should be in what position?
A) Lowest position with side rails elevated with oxygen and suction equipment available
B) Highest position with side rails elevated with IV pole and pump at bedside
C) Lowest position with side rails down on the receiving side
D) Highest position with the side rails down on receiving side and up on opposite side
Q2) Why might the older adult patient not respond to surgical treatment as well as a younger adult patient?
A) Poor skin turgor
B) Fear of the unknown
C) Response to physiological changes
D) Decreased peristalsis related to anesthesia
Q3) The nurse caring for a postsurgical patient is aware that the patient should void ____ to _____ hours postsurgery.
Q4) The nurse is aware that there is a loss of _________ during catabolism after severe tissue injury.
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Chapter 42: Care of the Patient with an Integumentary Disorder
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42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are nursing interventions and patient teaching for the treatment of head lice and scabies? (Select all that apply.)
A) Clothing, linens, and bath articles thoroughly cleaned in hot water
B) Stress nature and transmission of the disease
C) Special carbohydrate diet to promote healing
D) Complete isolation from the public
Q2) What should a patient be assessed for upon the diagnosis of genital herpes?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Syphilis
C) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
D) Cirrhosis
Q3) Prioritize the intervention of the first responder to the victim during the emergent phase of burn management. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D.)
A) Transport victim to hospital.
B) Cover victim with clean cloth or sheet.
C) Stop, drop, and roll.
D) Remove all nonadherent clothing and jewelry.
E) Provide an open airway.
F) Control any bleeding.
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Care of the Patient with a Musculoskeletal Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does prolonged bed rest put the older adult at risk for?
A) Ankylosing spondylitis
B) Pathologic fractures
C) Osteomyelitis
D) Gout
Q2) What is the large, fan-shaped muscle that covers the anterior chest from the sternum to the proximal end of the humerus and acts on the joint of the shoulder to flex, adduct, and rotate?
A) Serratus anterior
B) Intercostal
C) Transversus abdominis
D) Pectoralis major
Q3) A 56-year-old female patient is being seen for osteoarthritis of the knee in the clinic. What should the nurse recommend when discussing strengthening exercises?
A) Jogging
B) Walking rapidly on a treadmill
C) Bicycling
D) Aerobic exercises
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Celiac sprue in the adult can lead to systemic problems. Arrange the pathophysical events of this in order of their appearance. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D)
A) Malabsorption
B) Weight loss/vitamin deficiency
C) Systemic involvement
D) Diarrhea
E) Ingestion of gluten
F) Destruction of villi in the small intestine
Q2) Why are peptic ulcers a common problem of aging?
A) Because of overuse of antibiotics
B) Because of overuse of antacids
C) Because of overuse of NSAIDs
D) Because of overuse of laxatives
Q3) The nurse anticipates that the patient who has had a subtotal gastrectomy will need supplemental:
A) protein due to the loss of some of the digestive processes.
B) vitamin B12 due to the loss of the intrinsic factor.
C) bulk to prevent constipation.
D) vitamin A due to the loss of the gastric lining.
Page 46
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Chapter 45: Care of the Patient with a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it advantageous for a live person to be a liver donor?
A) Because the donor is not at risk for any complication
B) Because the recipient is more likely to avoid rejection
C) Because the donor donates only a part of the liver
D) Because the blood supply is more dependable in the donated liver
Q2) How does the administration of neomycin (Mycifradin) reduce the production of ammonia?
A) By assisting the hepatic cells to regenerate
B) By reducing ascites
C) By decreasing the bacteria in the gut
D) By helping to digest fats and proteins
Q3) What are the indications for a liver transplant? (Select all that apply.)
A) Congenital biliary abnormalities
B) Hepatic malignancy
C) Chronic hepatitis
D) Cirrhosis due to alcoholism
E) Gallbladder disease
Q4) A ___________occurs when the body encapsulates the autodigestive debris in the pancreatic tissue, frequently becoming an abscess.
Q5) Hepatitis D is usually seen as a co-infection with __________.
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Chapter 46: Care of the Patient with a Blood or Lymphatic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse examines the complete blood count (CBC) to assess (select all that apply):
A) hematocrit.
B) red cell count.
C) differential white cell count.
D) plasma level.
E) blood type.
F) hemoglobin.
Q2) What does the elevation in the eosinophil count to 10% indicate?
A) Anemia
B) Allergy
C) Infection
D) Hypoxia
Q3) What must a patient undergo before a bone marrow transplant?
A) A thorough nutritional plan to support new marrow
B) Total body irradiation to kill all the marrow cells
C) A physical therapy program to strengthen the body
D) Inhalation therapy to reduce possible pathogens in the lungs
Q4) Neutrophils release ______________, an enzyme that destroys certain bacteria.
Page 48
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Chapter
Vascular Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the major cause of cardiac valve disease?
A) Rheumatic fever
B) Long history of malnutrition
C) Drug abuse
D) Obesity
Q2) The nurse assessing a cardiac monitor notes that the cardiac complexes each have a P wave followed by a QRS and a T. The rate is 120. The nurse recognizes this arrhythmia as:
A) sinus bradycardia.
B) atrial fibrillation.
C) sinus tachycardia.
D) ventricular tachycardia.
Q3) The home health nurse warns the patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin) for anticoagulant therapy for thrombophlebitis to stop taking the herbal remedy of ginkgo because ginkgo can:
A) cause severe episodes of diarrhea.
B) cause a severe skin eruption if taken with Coumadin.
C) increase the action of the Coumadin.
D) cause the Coumadin to be less effective.
Page 49
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Chapter 48: Care of the Patient with a Respiratory Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the appropriate nursing intervention for a patient, age 40, who is diagnosed with active tuberculosis?
A) Place the patient in drainage and secretion precautions
B) Place the patient in acid-fast bacillus (AFB) Isolation Precautions
C) Maintain the patient in enteric isolation
D) Place the patient in any Isolation Precautions
Q2) The older adult patient with long-term emphysema complains of a sharp pleuritic pain after a severe period of coughing. The patient's heart rate and respiratory rate have increased. Auscultation reveals no breath sounds on the left side. These are signs and symptoms of what condition?
A) Pulmonary embolus
B) Spontaneous pneumothorax
C) Early signs of unilateral pneumonia
D) An attack of asthma
Q3) The _________ are the structures of the lung in which gas exchange occurs.
Q4) The nurse recognizes that the _______ reading in an arterial gas report indicates the amount of oxygen dissolved in the plasma.
Q5) The nurse explains that the opening between the vocal cords is the __________.
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Chapter 49: Care of the Patient with a Urinary Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse reassures the patient recovering from acute glomerulonephritis that after all other signs and symptoms of the disease subside, it is normal to have some residual (select all that apply):
A) proteinuria
B) oliguria
C) hematuria
D) anasarca
E) oliguria
Q2) As the body breaks down protein, nitrogen wastes are broken down into urea, ammonia, and:
A) nitrogen.
B) uric acid.
C) nitrates.
D) creatinine.
Q3) _____________ is a term for severe generalized edema.
Q4) Exercises to increase muscle tone of the pelvic floor are known as ____________ exercises.
Q5) _________ is a prostatic pain without evidence of infection or inflammation.
Q6) Acute glomerulonephritis is commonly a result of a preexisting infection of
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should the nurse administer insulin to prevent lipohypertrophy?
A) At room temperature
B) At body temperature
C) Straight from the refrigerator
D) After rolling bottle between hands to warm
Q2) A patient has come to the clinic because of enlarged hands and feet, amenorrhea, and increased hair growth. These symptoms most likely indicate problems with the:
A) pituitary gland.
B) adrenal glands.
C) thyroid gland.
D) pancreas.
Q3) The nurse discovers the type 1 diabetic (IDDM) patient drowsy and tremulous, the skin is cool and moist, and the respirations are 32 and shallow. These are signs of:
A) hypoglycemic reaction; give 6 oz of orange juice.
B) hyperglycemic reaction; give ordered regular insulin.
C) hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic reaction; squeeze glucagon gel in buccal cavity.
D) hypoglycemic reaction; give ordered insulin.
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Chapter 51: Care of the Patient with a Reproductive Disorder
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Q1) Which statement made by a patient who has been taught the technique of testicular self-examination indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "The testes feel smooth and egg-shaped."
B) "The best time to perform TSE is after a shower."
C) "I will examine my scrotum after every ejaculation."
D) "The epididymis feels like a soft tube."
Q2) At what age should a male be taught testicular self-examination (TSE)?
A) 10
B) 13
C) 15
D) 20
Q3) The patient who had a colporrhaphy for the repair of a cystocele and rectocele asks that the catheter be removed as it is bothersome to her. How should the nurse explain the reason for the catheter?
A) It replaces uncomfortable gauze packing
B) It will prevent adhesions and will be in place for about 2 weeks
C) It allows for quick urine sample collection
D) It keeps the bladder empty, and prevents stress on the sutures
Q4) ________are produced in the seminiferous tubules and stored in the epididymis.
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Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why would the nurse encourage a group of teenagers to protect their eyes with dark sunglasses while using a UV lamp?
A) The lamp can cause cataracts.
B) The lamp can cause presbycusis.
C) The lamp can cause keratitis.
D) The lamp can cause ectropion.
Q2) Place the nursing intervention in appropriate order for the immediate care of a patient with a penetrating wound of the eye. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D)
A) Assess eye, do not remove object
B) Cover both eyes with an eye shield or cup
C) Lay the patient down flat
D) Check for the irregularity of the pupil
E) Obtain medical attention immediately
Q3) What does diabetes retinopathy result from?
A) Capillaries in retina hemorrhage
B) Long-term overdosing of insulin
C) Retinal detachment
D) Aging
Q4) The total removal of an eye is a(n) ___________.
Page 54
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system work to maintain homeostasis. Place in order the autonomic events. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D)
A) Parasympathetic nervous system dominates
B) Extremely stressful or frightening event
C) Blood pressure, heart rate, and adrenaline output decrease
D) Sympathetic nervous system dominates
E) Heart rate and blood pressure rise, secretion of adrenaline
Q2) _________________ is/are responsible for the transmission of impulses between synapses.
Q3) Which symptom is specific to migraine headaches?
A) Tachycardia
B) They become worse in the evening
C) They involve the entire head
D) They are preceded by an aura
Q4) What is the purpose of a "drug holiday" in the treatment of Parkinson disease?
A) Change all drugs
B) Allow the natural dopamine levels to rise
C) Restart drugs at a lower dosage with favorable results
D) Reduce the extrapyramidal symptoms
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which patient should the nurse be most concerned about immunodeficiency disorder?
A) The patient taking desensitization injections (immunotherapy)
B) The patient on long-term radiation therapy for cancer
C) The overweight patient
D) The patient recently diagnosed with lupus erythematosus
Q2) What is the etiology of autoimmune diseases based on?
A) Reaction to a "superantigen"
B) Immune system producing no antibodies at all
C) T cells destroying B cells
D) B and T cells producing autoantibodies
Q3) The nurse stresses that when a person produces his own antibodies against a specific antigen, that process of immunity is ______________ ________________ immunity
Q4) What is humoral immunity based on? (Select all that apply.)
A) Production of antibodies by B cells
B) T cells are activated by an antigen
C) The body's response to an antigen
D) Sensitized T cells destroy the antigen
E) Helper T cells activate phagocytosis
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Chapter 55: Care of the Patient with HIV/AIDS
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are examples of the AIDS wasting syndrome in a patient with an HIV infection? (Select all that apply.)
A) Episodes of vomiting for 20 days
B) Appearance of Kaposi sarcoma
C) Loss of 10% of body mass
D) Marked hair loss
E) Episodes of diarrhea for 30 days
Q2) How does the HIV-2 virus compare to the HIV-1 virus? (Select all that apply.)
A) It has lower mortality risks in the older adult
B) It is less virulent
C) It is less infectious in the initial stage of infection
D) It predisposes the HIV-infected person to a normal life span
E) It develops high viral loads
Q3) The nurse explains that an enzyme ____________ ____________ allows the RNA of the retrovirus to be changed to DNA and incorporated into the host's genetic material.
Q4) An organism that can cross from an animal species to humans is a(n) ____________organism.
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Chapter 56: Care of the Patient with Cancer
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43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the home health nurse advise the patient who found a lump in her breast a week ago during breast self-examination?
A) Arrange for an examination by her physician
B) Wait until her next ovulatory cycle and check the lump again
C) Postpone appointment until the lump enlarges
D) Apply warm, moist compresses
Q2) What are the signs and symptoms of prostatic enlargement? (Select all that apply.)
A) Rotten egg odor to urine
B) Hematuria
C) Swollen scrotum
D) Difficulty starting urine flow
E) Strong flow of urine
Q3) Why is seeking medical attention when any cancer warning signs occur frequently delayed?
A) Difficulty accessing a physician or getting a referral consult.
B) Lack of knowledge of the seven warning signs of cancer.
C) Fear of the possible diagnosis of cancer and hoping signs will go away.
D) Self-examination being complex and difficult to perform.
Q4) A ___________ test screens for occult blood in the stool.
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Chapter 57: Professional Roles and Leadership
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5511
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the physical, emotional, and spiritual exhaustion that can occur among caregivers?
A) Excessiveness
B) Burnout
C) Fatigue
D) Weariness
Q2) The experienced nurse who assists a novice to learn the skills of the profession is called a(n) ________________.
Q3) What is the term for the commission of an act that a prudent nurse should not have done, or the omission of an act a prudent nurse should have done, that results in injury or harm to another person?
A) Malpractice
B) Negligence
C) Neglect
D) Disregard
Q4) After transcribing each order in a list of orders, the nurse should ___________ __________ the order.
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