Clinical Nuclear Medicine
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Nuclear Medicine is a specialized medical course that explores the principles, techniques, and clinical applications of nuclear imaging in the diagnosis and management of various diseases. The course covers topics such as radiopharmaceuticals, functional imaging modalities (including PET and SPECT), radiation safety, and image interpretation. Students will learn about the role of nuclear medicine in cardiology, oncology, neurology, and other specialties, focusing on how metabolic and molecular processes can be visualized for accurate patient assessment and treatment planning. Emphasis is placed on integrating nuclear medicine findings into clinical decision-making, understanding emerging technologies, and adhering to safety and ethical standards in patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Nuclear Medicine and PETCT Technology and Techniques 8th Edition by Kristen M. Waterstram
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24 Chapters
583 Verified Questions
583 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Mathematics and Statistics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the standard deviation of 40,000 counts?
A)4000 counts
B)2000 counts
C)400 counts
D)200 counts
Answer: D
Q2) Readers are encouraged to use Microsoft Excel to solve this problem.What is the coefficient of variation (CV) of the following five numbers: 6.40, 7.20, 3.50, 9.20, 5.10?
A)34%
B)31%
C)28%
D)12%
Answer: A
Q3) Convert 5 mBq to kBq and GBq.
A)50 kBq and 0.5 GBq
B)500 kBq and 0.05 GBq
C)5000 kBq and 0.005 GBq
D)5 * 10<sup>4</sup> and 5 * 10<sup>-4</sup> GBq
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Cell and Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three steps of the transcription process are
A)initiation, elongation, and termination.
B)interphase, prophase, and telophase.
C)expression, translation, and suppression.
D)synthesis, regulation, and termination.
Answer: A
Q2) All of the following are viruses linked to cancer, EXCEPT A)influenza A.
B)hepatitis B.
C)human papilloma virus (HPV).
D)Epstein-Barr.
Answer: A
Q3) An organelle composed of a network of interconnected, closed, membrane-bounded vesicles that extend from the nucleus to the cell membrane is the A)Golgi body.
B)endoplasmic reticulum.
C)centrosome.
D)lysosome.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Chemistry/biochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the simplest aromatic compound?
A)Benzene
B)Ethene
C)Ethanol
D)Methane
Answer: A
Q2) A characterization of a weak acid is that it
A)completely dissociates in water.
B)does not completely dissociate in water.
C)needs a buffer water.
D)neutralizes water.
Answer: B
Q3) A solution is a homogeneous mixture
A)of two substances.
B)of particles and a solute.
C)of particles and a solvent.
D)of a substance and a ligand.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Radio-Chemistry/Radio-Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In studies using <sup>99m</sup>TcO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>, patients are often pretreated with a(n)
A)iodine solution.
B)sodium solution.
C)potassium iodide solution.
D)sodium iodide solution.
Q2) When compared to the wet column <sup>99</sup>Mo-<sup>99m</sup>Tc generator, the dry column <sup>99</sup>Mo-<sup>99m</sup>Tc generator has
A)a better elution yield due to decreased radiolysis products.
B)a poorer elution yield due to decreased radiolysis products.
C)a better elution yield due to increased radiolysis products.
D)a poorer elution yield due to increased radiolysis products.
Q3) After elution of the generator, the concentration of (<sup>99</sup>Mo found in the <sup>99m</sup>)Tc is 0.10 µCi/mCi of <sup>99m</sup>Tc.The technologist should
A)not use the <sup>99m</sup>Tc and reelute the generator.
B)not use the <sup>99m</sup>Tc and wait 6 hours before reeluting the generator.
C)use the <sup>99m</sup>Tc as usual to make the kits.
D)use instant thin-layer chromatography (ITLC).
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Chapter 5: Radiation Safety in Nuclear Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) A right-handed nuclear medicine technologist puts on a ring badge before work.The ring should probably be worn
A)on the right hand with the thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) chip facing the palm of the hand.
B)on the right hand with the TLD chip facing the back of the hand.
C)on the left hand with the TLD chip facing the palm of the hand.
D)on the left hand with the TLD chip facing the back of the hand.
Q2) The federal agency that is responsible for the regulation of the uses of byproduct material is the
A)NRC.
B)EPA.
C)FDA.
D)None
Q3) A package with a Transportation Index (TI) of 3 would indicate to the technologist that the package
A)contains 3 mCi of radioactive material.
B)will read 3 mrem on the surface.
C)will read 1 mrem at 3 m.
D)will read 3 mrem at 1 m.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the preferred disinfectant for preventing the spread of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and hepatitis B virus (HBV) is
A)antibacterial soap.
B)antifungal soap.
C)phosphorous hyposulfite bleach.
D)sodium hypochlorite bleach.
Q2) The six rights of a correct administration of a pharmaceutical include A)the use of a generic drug.
B)following HIPAA regulations.
C)the right route.
D)an explanation of possible side effects.
Q3) The vein usually used for the administration of radiopharmaceuticals is the A)carotid.
B)antecubital.
C)vastus lateralis.
D)most superficial vein.
Q4) MR contrast media is administered in high doses compared to CT contrast media.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Department Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of these provide quality guidelines for nuclear medicine, EXCEPT
A)American College of Radiology.
B)The Joint Commission.
C)American Society of Radiologic Technologists.
D)Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Q2) What are numeric or alpha and numeric combinations associated with specific descriptions of procedures that are the basis for payment for procedures and products?
A)Coding systems
B)Reimbursement systems
C)Coverage systems
D)Quality management systems
Q3) A term used with respect to third-party designation of an institution meeting criteria established by experts in the field is
A)registration.
B)certification.
C)credentialing.
D)accreditation.
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Chapter 8: Clinical Research
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following often results in data not deemed evaluable for a protocol analysis?
A)Protocol deviation
B)Protocol violation
C)Study aberration
D)Study eccentricity
Q2) In the U.S., clinical trials must be approved by an independent ethics committee, which is called the
A)Contract Research Organization (CRO).
B)Good Clinical Practice (GPC).
C)Institutional Review Board (IRB).
D)Common Rule.
Q3) Which term refers to the entity that accepts all responsibility for regulatory aspects of conducting the trial, including protection of human subjects and data integrity?
A)Principal investigator
B)Primary investigator
C)Clinical research associate
D)Sponsor
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Chapter 9: Health Informatics in Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using nine-point image smoothing, all of the following is true EXCEPT
A)there is a slight increase in image resolution.
B)there is a slight decrease in image resolution.
C)there is a blending of pixel values.
D)it creates a more aesthetic image.
Q2) In an imaging computer system, the analog-to-digital converter (ADC) allows for the
A)localization of the appropriate pixel into which the gamma event is recorded.
B)averaging of the x, y, and z pulses.
C)processing of the energy pulse by the pulse-height analyzer.
D)conversion of x and y information into analog format.
Q3) In an 8-bit color image, the range of displayed color intensities would be
A)0 to 64.
B)0 to 100.
C)0 to 128.
D)0 to 255.
Q4) A 256 * 256 matrix has a smaller pixel size than does a 64 * 64 matrix.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Physics of Nuclear Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) An electrically neutral atom has the same number of protons and neutrons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Electrons can be deflected by an electronic or a magnetic field.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not true of isotopes?
A)They have the same atomic number.
B)They have the same mass number.
C)They have the same number of neutrons.
D)They have the same chemical properties.
Q4) The minimum MeV photon energy required for pair production is A)0.511.
B)1.022.
C)5.110.
D)10.22.
Q5) An unstable configuration of protons and neutrons is referred to as nuclides. A)True B)False
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Chapter 11: Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A low-pass filter
A)allows low frequencies to pass and blocks high frequencies.
B)blocks low frequencies and allows high frequencies to pass.
C)smoothes images by reducing low frequencies.
D)reduces noise by blocking low frequencies.
Q2) In general, the pixel size should be less than:
A)one-quarter the system resolution.
B)one-third the system resolution.
C)one-quarter the system efficiency.
D)one-third the system efficiency.
Q3) When referring to image quality, resolution
A)refers to how well objects can be separated in space.
B)determines whether two objects have different activity concentrations.
C)refers to the ability to see the edge of a structure.
D)occurs because of the random nature of counting statistics.
Q4) In SPECT/CT imaging, it is best if the patient does shallow breathing throughout the scan.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: CT Physics and Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A general rule is that a 15% increase in kVp results in
A)a 15% increase in mAs.
B)doubling the mAs.
C)a 15% reduction in mAs.
D)no affect on mAs.
Q2) In helical CT, pitch is defined as
A)the ratio of the patient's movement through the gantry during one 360-degree beam rotation relative to the beam collimation.
B)the total time for a patient to move through the gantry during a CT scan.
C)the ratio of the beam collimation relative to the mAs for a CT scan.
D)the coordination of a patient's possible movement,
E)g., breathing, during the CT scan relative to slice thickness.
Q3) In an x-ray tube, when the milliamperes (mA) are increased:
A)Bremsstrahlung and characteristic x-rays increase.
B)Bremsstrahlung and characteristic x-rays decrease.
C)Bremsstrahlung x-rays increases and characteristic x-rays decrease.
D)Bremsstrahlung x-rays decrease and characteristic x-rays increase.
Q4) Thin collimation has an advantage because it results in faster scanning time.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Pet Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing 3D imaging
A)scatter correction is important.
B)photon scatter is not a problem.
C)hot organs near the FOV do not pose a problem.
D)2D images are converted to 3D images electronically.
Q2) In PET scanning, blank scans are performed
A)daily.
B)quarterly.
C)annually.
D)upon installation.
Q3) Whole body imaging in PET scans typically covers imaging
A)from head to toe.
B)from the hips through the base of the brain.
C)from the knees through the base of the brain.
D)from the knees to the head.
Q4) In PET imaging, blank scans are used
A)to subtract background.
B)to calculate scatter correction.
C)to determine deadtime.
D)in attenuation correction.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Principles of Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) A T2-weighted image is useful for the evaluation of A)pathology.
B)anatomy.
C)articular cartilage.
D)muscle tissue.
Q2) All of the following are true about spin-up nuclei EXCEPT
A)they are larger in number than spin-down nuclei.
B)they align parallel to the magnetic field.
C)they are of low energy.
D)they are cancelled out by spin-down nuclei.
Q3) T2 refers to the recovery of transverse magnetization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A nucleus with an even number of protons and neutrons has a magnetic moment of A) 1.
B) 0.
C) 1.
D) Does not have a magnetic moment
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Chapter 15: Clinical Petct in Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Brain tumors are easily identified with FDG imaging.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If an injection of contrast media is going to follow an injection of FDG, the technologist should use
A)a butterfly needle to inject.
B)an 18- to 20-gauge intracatheter.
C)an indwelling central catheter.
D)a port-a-cath.
Q3) In head and neck imaging, normal variants, such as salivary gland uptake and lingual, buccal, pharyngeal, laryngeal, and neck muscle activity, can cause diagnostic difficulties.
A)True
B)False
Q4) PET has proved to be effective as a screening tool for colorectal cancers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following a nuclear medicine study to assess CSF dynamics, the patient should be instructed to
A)remain in a horizontal position for 2 hours after injection.
B)drink plenty of fluids and void urine frequently.
C)keep distance between themselves and children for 2 days after injection.
D)not have any radiographic brain studies for 1 week.
Q2) All of the following are true regarding SPECT or PET functional brain imaging on patients with neurodegenerative disease, EXCEPT
A)may show structural changes before anatomic imaging.
B)may identify those patients with mild cognitive impairment who are more likely to progress.
C)may slow the progression of certain forms of neurodegenerative disease.
D)certain patterns of radiopharmaceutical distribution are suggestive for specific types of dementia.
Q3) Acetylcholine is
A)excitatory in the brain and inhibitory in the heart.
B)inhibitory in the brain and excitatory in the heart.
C)excitatory in the brain and excitatory in the heart.
D)inhibitory in the brain and inhibitory in the heart.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary hypothyroidism is the result of a deficiency of A)T<sub>3</sub>.
B)TBG.
C)TSH.
D)TRH.
Q2) When performing a thyroid scan, in addition to an anterior view, oblique views should be taken
A)to provide better information on the localization of the gland.
B)to provide better information on the thickness of the gland.
C)to better define nodules that may be on the anterior or posterior surface.
D)to demonstrate nodules, if any, in more than one plane.
Q3) A patient has a possible pheochromocytoma.The technologist should prepare to image the
A)parathyroid glands.
B)pituitary gland.
C)kidneys.
D)adrenal glands.
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Chapter 18: Respiratory System
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Q1) One-half dose (reduced number of particles) should be given to patients with all of the following EXCEPT
A)pulmonary hypertension.
B)right-to-left shunts.
C)a pneumonectomy.
D)bronchitis.
Q2) All of the following are true regarding compliance (as the term is used with respect to the lung) EXCEPT
A)it is the change in volume for a change in pressure.
B)it is the change in volume for a change in position.
C)it is the measurement of the distensibility of the lungs.
D)it can be altered by diseases of lung parenchyma.
Q3) If the image of an aerosol ventilation study shows activity in the bronchi and the stomach, the technologist
A)checks the particle size of the aerosol to be certain it is within the limits.
B)performed the perfusion study first.
C)continues with the study because this is normal.
D)adjusts the nebulizer flow rate.
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Chapter 19: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing PET in a patient with a history of coronary disease and multiple infarcts, myocardial perfusion imaging with fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG), FDG reflects the relatively
A)decreased utilization of glucose in regions of ischemic tissue.
B)increased utilization of glucose in regions of decreased perfusion.
C)increased utilization of glucose in regions of scarred tissue.
D)decreased utilization of glucose in surrounding tissue.
Q2) In cardiac SPECT imaging, the horizontal long-axis view corresponds to
A)sagittal views, presented from the apex to the base.
B)coronal images, presented from the septum to the lateral wall.
C)septal images, presented from the septum to the posterior wall.
D)transverse sections, presented from the inferior to the anterior surface.
Q3) To allow for a repeat study, a radiopharmaceutical used to acquire a first-pass study is
A)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-tetrofosmin.
B)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-sestamibi.
C)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-teboroxime.
D)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-DTPA.
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21
Chapter 20: Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Administration of morphine sulfate serves to A)reduce the patient's pain.
B)relax the sphincter of Oddi.
C)contract the sphincter of Oddi.
D)dilate the common bile duct.
Q2) For radionuclide imaging for gastroesophageal reflux, the appropriate volume of solution to be administered to the patient is
A)15 ml.
B)30 ml.
C)150 ml.
D)300 ml.
Q3) Two hours after injection of <sup>99m</sup>Tc-labeled, non-heat-treated RBCs, there remains increased activity in the liver.This finding is most consistent with A)hemangiomas.
B)hepatic carcinoma.
C)metastatic disease.
D)lymphoma.
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Chapter 21: Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is important to position the crystal of the camera parallel to the surface when performing renal imaging to prevent the artifact of A)blurring.
B)elongation.
C)foreshortening.
D)enlargement.
Q2) A patient is scheduled for a diuretic renal imaging study.The technologist prepares the radiopharmaceutical and A)furosemide.
B)captopril.
C)adenosine.
D)saline.
Q3) A patient is scheduled for an indirect cystogram.The technologist should
A)prepare a catheter setup for instillation of the tracer.
B)prepare the tracer dose for intravenous injection.
C)prepare for the instillation of both the tracer and furosemide.
D)prepare instillation of the tracer dose and IV injection of furosemide.
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Chapter 22: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nomogram is used for
A)determining proper scan speed.
B)determining proper ID.
C)determining equal-time imagery.
D)determining sites of superimposition.
Q2) A patient is entering the osseous phase of a routine three-phase bone scan.The technologist should
A)prepare the room for a dynamic study.
B)begin to take blood pool images.
C)begin to take 2- to 3-hour delayed images.
D)take 5- to 24-hour delayed images.
Q3) What are the two types of bone tissue?
A)Compact and spongy
B)Spongy and trabecular
C)Cortical and compact
D)Trabecular and cortical
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Chapter 23: Inflammatory Tumoroncology Imaging and Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A <sup>67</sup>Ga image at 48 hours after injection displays bowel activity; the technologist should
A)be concerned that the wrong radiopharmaceutical was administered.
B)change the collimator to reduce the scatter activity from the bowel.
C)continue imaging because this is normal.
D)check to see if a radiographic study using contrast was performed.
Q2) Patient preparation for a <sup>99m</sup>Tc-depreotide study includes
A)hydration prior to and following injection.
B)administration of a thyroid blocking agent.
C)IV administration of a glucose solution.
D)a laxative at 24 hours prior to imaging.
Q3) The radiopharmaceutical used to gather additional diagnostic information on a patient with pulmonary lesions found on CT is
A)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-depreotide.
B)(<sup>123 </sup>)I-MIBG.
C)(<sup>111</sup>)In-capromab pendetide.
D)(<sup>111</sup>)In-pentetreotide.
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Chapter 24: Hematopoietic System
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Q1) Anemia could be the result of all of the following EXCEPT
A)suppression of bone marrow activity.
B)hemolysis.
C)iron deficiency.
D)erythrogenesis.
Q2) In a <sup>51</sup>Cr-labeled erythrocyte survival study, a mean normal mean RBC half-life is
A)10 to 20 days.
B)25 to 35 days.
C)50 to 60 days.
D)70 to 80 days.
Q3) The conventional agent used for the estimation of plasma volume is
A)(<sup>111</sup>)In-oxine.
B)(<sup>125</sup>)I-HSA.
C)(<sup>32 </sup>)P-chromic phosphate.
D)(<sup>51</sup>)Cr-ascorbic acid.
Q4) Serum is plasma with clotting factors.
A)True
B)False
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