Clinical Neuropsychology Pre-Test Questions - 2012 Verified Questions

Clinical Neuropsychology Pre-Test

Questions

Course Introduction

Clinical Neuropsychology explores the relationship between brain function and behavior, focusing on how injuries, diseases, or disorders of the brain impact cognitive, emotional, and psychological functioning. This course covers the foundations of neuroanatomy, assessment techniques, and the application of neuropsychological principles in diagnosing and treating conditions such as traumatic brain injury, stroke, dementia, and developmental disorders. Students will gain practical knowledge in case formulation, neuropsychological testing, and the interpretation of results, preparing them to critically evaluate research and clinical practices in the field.

Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Human Neuropsychology 7th Edition by Bryan Kolb

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Chapter 1: Extension: A - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a person believes that brain function is only the source of some behaviors, it is accurate to refer to that person as a:

A) mentalist.

B) behaviorist.

C) materialist.

D) dualist.

Answer: D

Q2) Communication between cerebral hemispheres occurs via the: A) somatic nerves.

B) lateral fissure.

C) arcuate fasciculus.

D) corpus callosum.

Answer: D

Q3) Following damage to his frontal lobes, subject L. D. had lasting impairments in: A) visual perception.

B) attention.

C) motor-skill acquisition.

D) balance.

Answer: B

Page 3

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Chapter 1: Extension: B - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Q1) Describe how the concept of hierarchical organization, as stated by HughlingsJackson, was consistent with the apparently disparate research findings of localizationist and antilocalizationist theories of brain function.

Answer: In the hierarchical organization model of Hughlings-Jackson, he suggested that behaviors were represented in each level of the hierarchy, such that damage at one level leaves a simpler form of the behavior from the lower parts of the hierarchy. This was consistent with both localizationist and antilocalization research results.

Q2) Wernicke ___

A)conduction aphasia

B)recovery of function

C)electrical excitability of the cortex

D)left hemisphere localization for speech

Answer: A

Q3) Aristotle ___

A)pineal gland

B)heart

C)brain

Answer: B

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Chapter 1: Extension: C - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Q1) Today, when neuroscientists use the term "mind," most are using it as shorthand for:

A) spirit and soul.

B) nonmaterial aspects of experience.

C) heart function.

D) the collective functions of the brain.

Answer: D

Q2) By studying individuals with damage to particular brain regions, memory researchers have found that different aspects of memories seem to be stored in different parts of the brain. As yet, however, the researchers have not determined how these elements are combined into an integrated memory of an event or stimulus. This is referred to as the _____ problem.

A) mnemonic

B) levels-of-processing

C) source

D) binding

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: Extension: A - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) Falk has suggested that the opportunity for brain expansion in the hominids is directly related to:

A) bipedalism.

B) development of more dispersed blood flow.

C) tool making.

D) language development.

Q2) The human genome is comprised of:

A) about 20,000 genes.

B) about 200,000 genes.

C) about 2 million genes.

D) about 23 genes.

Q3) Which of the following is MOST ancient?

A) H. erectus

B) A. africanus

C) A. robustus

D) H. habilis

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Chapter 2: Extension: B - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) agriculture ___

A)30,000 years ago

B)15,000 years ago

C)7000 years ago

D)2 million years ago

Q2) toolmakers ___

A)30,000 years ago

B)15,000 years ago

C)7000 years ago

D)2 million years ago

Q3) What are the main differences between H. erectus and Australopithecus?

Q4) Discuss some of the drawbacks to the idea that a correlation between brain size and intelligence is all one really needs to consider when trying to determine differences in intelligence in different species.

Q5) routinely unexpressed as a trait ___

A)dominant allele

B)recessive allele

C)codominance

D)X chromosome

Q6) Define species - typical behaviors. Page 7

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Chapter 2: Extension: C - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) Animals are used in neuropsychological research for all of the following reasons EXCEPT _____.

A) to show the need to understand basic brain mechanisms

B) to show the usefulness of designing animal models of human neurological disorders

C) to describe the ontogenetic development of the brain

D) to describe evolutionary and genetic influences on brain development

Q2) The MOST appropriate alternative for Homo habilis is _____.

A) chimpanzees

B) Louis Leakey

C) human adults, young chimps

D) southern ape

Q3) Recessive alleles that are not visible in a parent's phenotype can be present in their genotype and are more likely to be expressed in their child's _____.

A) phenotype if either parent contributes a dominant allele for that trait.

B) genotype if both parents contribute recessive alleles for that trait.

C) phenotype if both parents contribute recessive alleles for that trait.

D) genotype if both parents contribute dominant alleles for that trait.

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Chapter 3: Extension: A - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) Moving from rostral to caudal in the central nervous system means moving from the: A) spinal cord toward the brain.

B) occipital lobes toward the frontal lobes.

C) brain toward the spinal cord.

D) sensory receptors to the spinal cord.

Q2) The thalamus, hypothalamus, and pineal body are components of the: A) metencephalon.

B) telencephalon.

C) diencephalon.

D) myelencephalon.

Q3) Damage to the dorsal root fibers of the spinal cord would result in impaired: A) sensation.

B) movement.

C) sensation and movement.

D) cognition.

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Chapter 3: Extension: B - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) bottom ___

A)anterior

B)dorsal

C)posterior

D)ventral

Q2) contralateral ___

A)carries messages toward a given structure

B)on the same side

C)carries messages from a given structure

D)on the opposite side

Q3) Schwann cells ___

A)produce cerebrospinal fluid

B)structural and nutritive

C)insulation within the brain and spinal cord

D)insulation in the peripheral nervous system

Q4) List three components of the limbic system and a function ascribed to each one.

Q5) What is the organization of the spinal cord described by the Bell - Magendie law?

Q6) What is meant by the cytoarchitectonic study of the brain?

Answer Key

11

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Chapter 3: Extension: C - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) The _____ is NOT part of the basal ganglia.

A) putamen

B) globus pallidus

C) caudate nucleus

D) hippocampus.

Q2) The frontal lobes are formed from the _____.

A) prosencephalon

B) rhombencephalon

C) telencephalon

D) myelencephalon

Q3) The _____ is located in the epithalamus.

A) hippocampus

B) pineal body

C) septum

D) pituitary gland

Q4) Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by the _____.

A) oligodendroglia cells

B) Schwann cells

C) astrocytes

D) ependymal cells

Page 12

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Chapter 4: Extension: A - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) A characteristic resting potential in a neuron would be about _____ mV.

A) -30

B) 0

C) -70

D) 50

Q2) The basic structure of the cell membrane of a neuron consists of a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which are embedded _____.

A) proteins

B) neurotransmitters

C) chromosomes

D) ions

Q3) The Na⁺ channel - blocking poison found in puffer fish is:

A) tetraethylammonium.

B) tetrodotoxin.

C) curare.

D) ouabain.

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Chapter 4: Extension: B - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) Distinguish between transcription and translation in protein synthesis.

Q2) axon ___

A)carries information to terminal buttons

B)collects information

C)integrates information

D)sends information to another neuron

Q3) Describe the interaction between concentration and voltage gradients in the establishment of the membrane potential.

Q4) microtubules ___

A)energy source

B)protein transport

C)degrades foreign substances

D)protein formation

Q5) ribosomal RNA ___

A)contains degrading enzymes; stores and moves wastes

B)contains genetic code for proteins

C)protein molecule assembly site

D)builds proteins

Q7) Compare and contrast graded potentials with action potentials. Page 14

Q6) Distinguish between concentration gradient and voltage gradients.

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Chapter 4: Extension: C - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) Which ion form is the most appropriate match for hyperpolarization?

A) Cl^-

B) A^-

C) Na⁺

D) K⁺

Q2) A _____ is a segment of a DNA strand that encodes the synthesis of a particular type of protein molecule.

A) chromosome

B) gene

C) double helix

D) ribosome

Q3) The nucleus _____.

A) regulates the materials that enter and leave the cell domain

B) is where the cell's protein products are assembled

C) is where the cell's protein blueprints are stored and copied

D) is an extension of the nuclear membrane

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Chapter 5: Extension: A - Communication Between Neurons

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Q1) Synapses characterized by wide clefts, large active zones, and round secretory vesicles are thought to be:

A) neuroendocrine.

B) modulatory.

C) excitatory.

D) inhibitory.

Q2) A neurotransmitter released at the axon terminal must _____ in order to affect the postsynaptic cell.

A) diffuse across the synaptic cleft

B) be transported across the synaptic cleft

C) be taken up by the postsynaptic cell

D) be metabolized by the postsynaptic cell

Q3) The cell bodies of the neurons of the major activating systems are located in the: A) basal ganglia.

B) diencephalon.

C) frontal cortex.

D) brainstem.

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Chapter 5: Extension: B - Communication Between Neurons

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Sample Questions

Q1) GABA ___

A)tyrosine

B)dietary choline

C)glutamate

D)tryptophan

Q2) dopamine ___

A)tyrosine

B)dietary choline

C)glutamate

D)tryptophan

Q3) What are some important differences in appearance between inhibitory and excitatory synapses?

Q4) What are four ways that neurotransmitters can be removed from the synaptic cleft?

Q5) presynaptic membrane ___

A)vesicle clusters

B)postsynaptic potentials

C)neurotransmitter release

D)neurotransmitter molecule containers

Q6) What are the four criteria for identifying a substance as a neurotransmitter?

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Chapter 5: Extension: C - Communication Between

Neurons

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Q1) Synapses where an axon releases a neurotransmitter directly into the blood are called _____ synapses.

A) axomuscular

B) axosomatic

C) axoextracellular

D) axosecretory

Q2) Which experimental criterion is NOT used to identify a chemical as a neurotransmitter?

A) A substance must contain an amine group.

B) The chemical can be introduced into the synapse artificially to produce a response.

C) The chemical must be synthesized in or present in the neuron.

D) The chemical must be released when the neuron is active.

Q3) Which neurotransmitter is used to treat Parkinson's disease?

A) histamine

B) acetylcholine

C) dopamine

D) NO

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Chapter 6: Extension: A - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) The organizational effect of gonadal hormones is exerted during:

A) early development.

B) adolescence.

C) adulthood.

D) learning.

Answer Key

Q2) The blood-brain barrier is established by:

A) neurons and astrocytes.

B) neurons and smooth muscle cells.

C) endothelial cells and neurons.

D) endothelial cells and astrocytes.

Q3) A drug that increases the effectiveness of neurotransmission is called a(n): A) antagonist.

B) agonist.

C) neuromodulator.

D) stimulant.

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Chapter 6: Extension: B - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) metabolic tolerance ___

A)NMDA receptor

B)heroin antagonist

C)anandamide

D)liver enzymes

Q2) tight junctions ___

A)vomit response

B)Parkinson's disease

C)benzodiazepine

D)blood-brain barrier

Q3) What is the evidence that the dopamine system is involved in drug addiction?

Q4) Distinguish between general stimulants and behavioral stimulants.

Q5) Compare the chemical messengers and target organs of the fast and slow pathways that contribute to the stress response.

Answer Key

Q6) PCP ___

A)NMDA receptor

B)heroin antagonist

C)anandamide

D)liver enzymes

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Chapter 6: Extension: C - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Q1) It is now believed that _____ is the neurotransmitter involved in drug addiction.

A) beta-endorphin

B) dopamine

C) GABA_A

D) serotonin

Q2) Which neurotoxin blocks glycine?

A) curare

B) rabies virus

C) magnesium

D) strychnine

Q3) The drug that Sigmund Freud used to fight depression was _____.

A) alcohol

B) heroin

C) Prozac

D) cocaine

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Chapter 7: Extension: A - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) The readiness potential is associated with activity in the _____ indicating _____.

A) motor cortex; an impending movement

B) visual cortex; an impending movement

C) somatosensory cortex; stimulus expectancy

D) frontal cortex; stimulus expectancy

Q2) Electroencephalography measures changes in:

A) blood oxygenation levels generated by large numbers of neurons.

B) glucose metabolism generated by large groups of neurons.

C) voltage generated by large groups of neurons.

D) voltage generated by single neurons.

Q3) MOST neurons respond to:

A) a wide range of sensory stimuli or behaviors.

B) a limited range of sensory stimuli or behaviors.

C) sensory stimuli but not behaviors.

D) behaviors but not sensory stimuli.

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Chapter 7: Extension: B - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of single - cell and electroencephalographic recording techniques?

Q2) Describe one static and one dynamic imaging method.

Q3) What are some of the experimental uses to which ERP technology can be put?

Q4) PET ___

A)detects neurotransmitter molecules

B)detects subatomic particle annihilation events

C)detects induced magnetic fields from neural activity

D)detects energy emitted by spinning hydrogen ions

Q5) What are the frequency characteristics of alpha, beta, and delta rhythms?

Q6) MRI ___

A)detects neurotransmitter molecules

B)detects subatomic particle annihilation events

C)detects induced magnetic fields from neural activity

D)detects energy emitted by spinning hydrogen ions

Q7) electroencephalography ___

A)sum of graded potentials of cortical neurons

B)stimulus-linked brainwave

C)individual action potentials

D)SQUID

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Chapter 7: Extension: C - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) The _____ method of brain imaging involves spinning hydrogen protons.

A) MEG

B) MRS

C) MRI

D) ERP

Q2) The use of annihilation events is part of the _____ technique of brain imaging.

A) PET

B) MEG

C) fMRI

D) EEG

Q3) The _____ technique provides excellent resolution but can only be applied with humans in exceptional circumstances.

A) ERP

B) single-cell recording

C) EEG

D) EKG

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Chapter 8: Extension: A - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) Each sensory system employs multiple cortical regions, each consisting of _____ of the sensory world.

A) a single, exact map

B) multiple identical maps

C) multiple specialized maps

D) a single, abstract map

Q2) The sensory homunculus is a cortical representation of:

A) the body proportional to body surface area.

B) the body proportional to body surface sensitivity.

C) the body proportional to muscle number.

D) conscious bodily sensations.

Q3) The Müller - Lyer illusion shows the importance of _____ in perception.

A) concentration

B) sensation

C) contextual cues

D) accommodation

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Chapter 8: Extension: B - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) Discuss the relationship between receptive field size, sensory receptor density, cortical representation, and perceptual sensitivity.

Q2) Identify, in correct order, the major connections of the geniculostriate system from the eye to the cortex.

Q3) area 3 ___

A)taste

B)vision

C)somatosensation

D)audition

Q4) Differentiate between the geniculostriate and tectopulvinar visual systems, functionally and anatomically.

Q5) free nerve endings ___

A)balance

B)proprioception

C)nociception

D)hapsis

Q6) What functional properties are shared by all sensory systems?

Answer Key

Q7) Why are sensory receptors also termed "transducers"?

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Chapter 8: Extension: C - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) Brodmann's area 41 is associated with which sense?

A) taste

B) vision

C) olfaction

D) audition

Q2) In the Brodmann system, primary visual cortex is given the number _____.

A) 17

B) 19

C) 44

D) 7

Q3) The map on which the relative sensitivity of body parts are represented by size is called:

A) a vestibular system.

B) a Müller-Lyer illusion.

C) a homunculus.

D) the central organization of sensory systems.

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Chapter 9: Extension: A - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) Neurons that respond both when the subject performs an action and when the subject observes the action being performed are called _____ neurons.

A) Renshaw

B) bipolar

C) mirror

D) copycat

Q2) A patient who has difficulty with balance, posture, and coordination would MOST likely have a lesion in the:

A) brainstem motor areas.

B) orbitofrontal cortex.

C) posterior parietal cortex.

D) primary motor areas.

Q3) Karl and Whishaw (2013) concluded that reaching for an object involves: _____ pathway(s) from _____ to _____.

A) a single; M1; the spinal cord

B) several; the basal ganglia; V1

C) two; V1; the parietal cortex and M1

D) a single; V1; M1

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Chapter 9: Extension: B - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) What conclusions can be drawn from Hess's research on electrical stimulation of the brain?

Q2) Compare and contrast Huntington's disease and Parkinson's disease.

Q3) What patterns of ventral premotor cortical neuron activity were observed by Umilta et al. during the study of monkeys observing goal - directed movements by another monkey or human?

Q4) primary motor cortex ___

A)generation of specific movements

B)planning of movement

C)source of sensory information

D)sequencing of movement

Q5) corticobulbar tract ___

A)synapse directly on muscles

B)control of body midline muscles

C)control of facial muscles

D)control of limbs and digits

Q6) Identify the four general regions of the neocortex thought to produce most voluntary movement.

Q7) Describe how motor cortex and corresponding parietal cortex topograghical regions produce movement.

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Chapter 9: Extension: C - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) The planning of motor movements seems to be the primary responsibility of neural circuits in the _____.

A) premotor cortex

B) primary motor cortex

C) posterior cortex

D) prefrontal cortex

Q2) Damage to neural circuits in the _____ is responsible for the symptoms of Huntington's disease.

A) substantia nigra

B) caudate putamen

C) motor cortex

D) cerebellum

Q3) The flocculus is part of the _____.

A) basal ganglia

B) cerebellum

C) prefrontal lobe

D) thalamus

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Chapter 10: Extension: A - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) In contemporary models of cortical function, complex cognitive operations involve:

A) only hierarchical processing from primary to secondary to tertiary cortex.

B) just junctions of adjacent independent cortical processors of specific information.

C) cortical areas acting conjointly through large-scale neural networks.

D) discrete specialized functional units in the prefrontal cortex.

Q2) Uncontrolled rage or laughter would signal a possible lesion in the area of the: A) amygdala.

B) cerebellum.

C) hypothalamus.

D) medulla.

Q3) The ability of one cortical area to influence another from which it receives input is referred to as _____.

A) binding

B) hierarchical communication

C) multiple representations

D) reentry

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Chapter 10: Extension: B - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) Luria ___

A)decerebrate animals

B)sensory and motor unit theory

C)distributed hierarchy theory

D)behavior of the mesencephalic child

Q2) Name the functional characteristics of the inputs to each of the six neocortical layers.

Q3) Brodmann ___

A)cortical stimulation

B)hierarchical model

C)cortical maps

D)cortical modules

Q4) Describe a cortical column or module.

Q5) What evidence suggests that the basic neural circuitry for walking includes spinal cord reflexes?

Q6) Penfield ___

A)cortical stimulation

B)hierarchical model

C)cortical maps

D)cortical modules

Page 34

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Chapter 10: Extension: C - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) What does the binding problem ask?

A) Which anatomical criteria could be used to delineate a hierarchy of cortical areas?

B) Can an area modify its inputs from another area before it even receives them?

C) How do sensations in specific channels combine into perceptions that translate as a unified experience that we call reality?

D) How does the theory of mind emerge in the brain?

Q2) The deepest layer of the cerebral cortex is given the Roman numeral _____.

A) I

B) III

C) IV

D) VI

Q3) _____ bring information to an area of the cortex and terminate in relatively discrete cortical regions.

A) Specific afferents

B) Nonspecific afferents

C) Cortical efferents

D) Cortical layers

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Chapter 11: Extension: A - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) The identification of melodies shows _____ in a dichotic listening task.

A) a frontal lobe advantage

B) a right-ear advantage

C) a left-ear advantage

D) no advantage due to either ear

Q2) You are an examining psychologist at a neurological clinic. After administering an IQ test, you find the main deficits are in nonverbal recall and the copying of drawings. You suspect damage to the _____.

A) left frontal lobe

B) right frontal lobe

C) right temporal lobe

D) left temporal lobe

Q3) Visual images can be presented individually to each hemisphere using a device known as a(n):

A) oscilloscope.

B) dichotoscope.

C) tachistoscope.

D) periscope.

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Chapter 11: Extension: B - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Roger Sperry ___

A)planum temporale asymmetry

B)behavior of commissurotomy patients

C)brain stimulation of conscious patients

D)auditory system asymmetry

Q2) extends farther anteriorly ___

A) if the concept refers to an asymmetry characteristic of the left hemisphere

B) if the concept refers to an asymmetry characteristic of the right hemisphere.

Q3) dichaptic test ___

A)motor system

B)visual system

C)speech production

D)somatosensory system

Q4) Lenneberg and Kimura ___

A)interaction model

B)preferred cognitive mode model

C)specialization model

Q5) Why has it been so difficult for neuropsychologists to discover the functions of the right hemisphere?

Q6) Explain how cerebral functions differ more by "site" than by "side."

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Chapter 11: Extension: C - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Kimura found evidence for a relationship between speech and hand movements when she observed that right - handed individuals:

A) gestured more with their right hands while speaking.

B) rubbed their noses more with their right hands while speaking.

C) gestured more with their left hands while speaking.

D) rubbed their noses more with their left hands while speaking.

Q2) Which of the following usually shows a right - ear advantage?

A) perceiving environmental sounds

B) perceiving rhythms

C) understanding backward speech

D) learning new memories

Q3) Which is true of the anatomical differences between the hemispheres?

A) The right hemisphere contains more gray matter.

B) The left hemisphere extends farther anteriorly.

C) The lateral fissure has a steeper slope in the left hemisphere.

D) The total area of the frontal operculum is larger in the left hemisphere.

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Chapter 12: Extension: A - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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31 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Older men and women may benefit cognitively from the administration of:

A) glutamate receptor antagonists.

B) gonadal hormones.

C) stress hormones.

D) placebos

Q2) Compared with females, males:

A) have more cortical gyri.

B) have greater cerebral blood flow rates.

C) are better at most verbal skills

D) have more neurons.

Q3) Imaging studies have shown that monozygotic (identical) twins show the greatest degree of anatomical similarity in the:

A) right-hemisphere language areas.

B) left-hemisphere language areas.

C) right-hemisphere visual areas.

D) left-hemisphere visual areas.

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Chapter 12: Extension: B - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the laterality of nonhearing people.

Q2) What is the significance of a larger corpus callosum for cerebral asymmetry?

Q3) better computational ability ___

A) if the item is truer for males than for females

B) if the item is truer for females than for males.

Q4) greater verbal fluency ___

A) if the item is truer for males than for females

B) if the item is truer for females than for males.

Q5) What is the evidence for cerebral lateralization in birds and nonhuman primates? Answer Key

Q6) larger right planum parietale ___

A) if it is truer for males than for females

B) if it is truer for females than for males

C) if there is no reliable sex difference.

Q7) superior mental rotation ___

A) if the item is truer for males than for females

B) if the item is truer for females than for males.

Q8) What are some male-female differences in human brain asymmetries?

Q9) What explanations have been offered for the apparent anomalies in the cerebral lateralization of Genie? Page 41

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Chapter 12: Extension: C - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the brains of chimpanzees there are:

A) humanlike asymmetries in Broca's area and the planum temporale.

B) no anatomical asymmetries.

C) only asymmetries in Broca's area.

D) only asymmetries in the planum temporale.

Answer Key

Q2) In general, which is true of women when compared with men?

A) more left-handedness

B) larger splenium of the corpus callosum

C) larger isthmus of the corpus callosum

D) larger absolute cross-sectional area of the corpus callosum

Q3) Evidence suggests that congenitally deaf people have:

A) typical patterns of cerebral organization.

B) atypical patterns of cerebral organization.

C) typical patterns of cerebral asymmetry.

D) atypical patterns of cerebral lateralization only if also brain-injured.

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Chapter 13: Extension: A - The Occipital Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) When analyzing facial features, visual attention is directed more toward the:

A) medial visual field.

B) right visual field.

C) left visual field.

D) outlines of the face.

Q2) Alexia can be considered to be due to:

A) object agnosia for living things.

B) object agnosia for human faces.

C) object agnosia for letters and words.

D) synesthesia for letters and words.

Q3) Patients with a left homonymous hemianopia often show sparing of left field vision from the _____ in both eyes.

A) superior parafovea

B) inferior parafovea

C) fovea

D) periphery

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44

Chapter 13: Extension: B - The Occipital Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) lingual gyrus ___

A)includes V2, VP

B)divides upper and lower halves of visual world

C)first cortical relay for visual input

D)contains V4

Q2) prosopagnosia ___

A)inability to recognize faces

B)inability to recognize objects

C)inability to see more than one object at a time

D)inability to see due to naturally occurring lack of photoreceptors

Q3) Describe examples of how "our brains are organized around vision."

Q4) Distinguish between allocentric space and egocentric space.

Q5) Why are small scotomas often unnoticed by persons with them?

Q6) calcarine fissure ___

A)includes V2, VP

B)divides upper and lower halves of visual world

C)first cortical relay for visual input

D)contains V4

Q7) List four of the five general categories of visual processing, and give an example of each.

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Chapter 13: Extension: C - The Occipital Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The area of the visual cortex that receives the largest direct input from the lateral geniculate nucleus is _____.

A) V1

B) V2

C) V3

D) V4

Q2) A patient such as D.B., who is able to point accurately to locations that he does not report seeing, is demonstrating _____.

A) visual agnosia

B) cortical blindness

C) scintillating scotoma

D) nystagmus

Q3) Destruction of one optic nerve will produce _____.

A) scotoma

B) monocular blindness

C) homonymous hemianopia

D) bitemporal hemianopia

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46

Chapter 14: Extension: A - The Parietal Lobes

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32 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Activity within the human medial parietal region is important for:

A) spatial navigation ability.

B) discriminative touch.

C) object recognition.

D) guided reaching.

Q2) The ability to voluntarily direct one's gaze to select environmental stimuli depends on connections between the _____ and the _____.

A) posterior parietal cortex; fusiform gyrus

B) primary motor cortex; anterior parietal cortex

C) frontal eye fields; anterior parietal cortex

D) frontal eye fields; posterior parietal cortex

Q3) Patients with left parietal lesions typically have difficulty distinguishing between:

A) up and down.

B) right and wrong.

C) red and green.

D) left and right.

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Chapter 14: Extension: B - The Parietal Lobes

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40 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) lateral fissure ___

A)greatly expanded in the human brain

B)anterior zone of parietal lobe

C)secondary somatosensory cortex

D)ventral border of the lateral parietal lobe

Q2) How did the experiments by Andersen and colleagues suggest a role for the posterior parietal cortex in thought and intention?

Q3) How would you describe the functions of the posterior zone of the parietal lobe in humans? Give an example from everyday life.

Q4) astereognosis ___

A)inability to recognize objects by touch

B)inability to name and locate body parts

C)lack of awareness of one's own illness

D)inability to do arithmetic

Q5) Brodmann 1, 2, 3, 43 ___

A)greatly expanded in the human brain

B)anterior zone of parietal lobe

C)secondary somatosensory cortex

D)ventral border of the lateral parietal lobe

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Chapter 14: Extension: C - The Parietal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is more likely after right parietal damage?

A) more errors in Weigl's Sorting Test

B) Wernicke's aphasia

C) dressing disability

D) dyscalculia

Q2) Apraxia is commonly found after damage to _____.

A) area PE

B) areas PF and PG in the left hemisphere

C) the cingulate gyrus

D) area PG in the right hemisphere

Q3) In Brodmann's mapping system, areas 5 and 7 correspond to von Economo's area

A) PE

B) PF

C) PG

D) PH

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Chapter 15: Extension: A - The Temporal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) During a test of pitch discrimination, subjects with greater gray - matter volume in the left primary auditory areas would be predicted to rely primarily on:

A) meter and rhythm.

B) periodicity pitch.

C) spectral pitch.

D) fundamental pitch.

Q2) Loss of memory for events occurring after the time of surgery or trauma is termed:

A) retrograde amnesia.

B) redundant amnesia.

C) contextual amnesia.

D) anterograde amnesia.

Q3) Brodmann's area 21 is most closely congruent with which of the following in the human brain?

A) the inferior temporal gyrus

B) the middle temporal gyrus

C) the superior temporal gyrus

D) Heschl's gyrus

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Chapter 15: Extension: B - The Temporal Lobes

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33 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Distinguish between spectral pitch and fundamental pitch, functionally and anatomically.

Q2) Rey Complex - Figure test ___

A)verbal memory

B)language comprehension

C)nonverbal memory

D)auditory processing

Q3) impaired visual perception ___

A)hippocampus, both hemispheres

B)Brodmann's area 41, right hemisphere

C)Brodmann's area 42, left hemisphere

D)Brodmann's area 37, both hemispheres

Q4) Describe Perrett's experiment concerning superior temporal sulcus (STS) neurons in the monkey brain.

Q5) Consider a group of friends gathered together to watch a movie. Which cortical regions would you expect to show the most similar patterns of activity across the different individuals, and which regions show the most divergent patterns of activity? What might be the implications of these activity patterns for perceptual experiences?

Q6) How would you know a temporal lobe personality if you met one?

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Chapter 15: Extension: C - The Temporal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The temporal lobes are involved in each of these EXCEPT:

A) processing auditory input.

B) visual object recognition.

C) memory functions.

D) identifying tactile information.

Q2) In the model by Haxby, Hoffman, and Gobbini (2000) of the distributed human neural system for face perception, which brain region is responsible for perceiving the personal identity of the individual who is being viewed?

A) the anterior temporal cortex

B) the superior temporal sulcus

C) the fusiform face area

D) the intraparietal sulcus

Q3) The "temporal - lobe personality" is characterized by each of the following EXCEPT: A) egocentricity.

B) pedantic speech.

C) perseveration in talking.

D) conscientiousness.

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Chapter 16: Extension: A - The Frontal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Impaired olfactory discrimination is typically found with damage to the _____ area of the frontal lobes.

A) dorsolateral

B) prefrontal

C) premotor

D) orbital

Q2) The principal location of frontal - lobe damage that results in perseveration on the Wisconsin card - sorting test appears to be:

A) area 11.

B) area 9.

C) area 47.

D) the frontal eye fields.

Q3) The area that has been proposed as crucial for the programming of movement sequences is the:

A) premotor cortex.

B) orbital cortex.

C) primary motor cortex.

D) red nucleus.

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53

Chapter 16: Extension: B - The Frontal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discuss the relationship between the prefrontal cortex anatomy, performance on the gambling task, and addictive behaviors.

Q2) convergent thinking ___

A)Wisconsin Card-Sorting test

B)standard IQ test

C)Word-Fluency test

D)delayed nonmatching to sample

Q3) behavioral spontaneity ___

A)Wisconsin Card-Sorting test

B)standard IQ test

C)Word-Fluency test

D)delayed nonmatching to sample

Q4) Describe the neural networks that support successful performance of Bechara and Damasio's gambling task.

Q5) loss of fine movements ___

A)Broca's area

B)the orbital cortex

C)the primary motor cortex

D)frontal eye fields

Q6) Name four cognitive skills impaired by dorsolateral frontal cortex damage.

Page 54

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Chapter 16: Extension: C - The Frontal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which frontal region is MOST closely associated with Broca's aphasia?

A) the orbital prefrontal

B) area 4

C) area 11

D) area 44

Q2) Impaired _____ discrimination is found with damage to the orbital area of the frontal lobe.

A) visual

B) olfactory

C) auditory

D) taste

Q3) The Wisconsin Card - Sorting Test is MOST appropriate to evaluate _____.

A) behavioral spontaneity

B) convergent thinking

C) response inhibition

D) memory

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Chapter 17: Extension: A - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a familiar object were placed out of sight in the left hand of a commissurotomy patient, that person:

A) would fail to recognize the object.

B) could identify it verbally, if prompted.

C) could point to a matching object only with his or her right hand.

D) could point to a matching object only with his or her left hand.

Q2) In those individuals who undergo a callosal transection, which of the following is TRUE?

A) Ipsilateral pathways may become stronger in younger patients.

B) Ipsilateral pathways are enhanced regardless of the age at transection.

C) New contralateral pathways are formed in younger patients.

D) New contralateral pathways can be generated at any age.

Q3) The term "disconnection syndrome" is used to describe the behavioral effects of:

A) an interruption of communication between two cerebral regions.

B) the destruction of one or more cortical regions contributing to a neural network.

C) the disruption of communication between the brainstem and cerebrum.

D) psychiatric disorders characterized by out-of-body experiences.

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Page 56

Chapter 17: Extension: B - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Sample Questions

Q1) How would an individual with agenesis of the corpus callosum respond to requests to verbally name odors presented to left and right nostril? Justify your answer.

Q2) Identify the three major types of fiber pathways found in the neocortex.

Q3) Sperry ___

A)constructed animal models of disconnection syndromes

B)hypothetized conduction aphasia

C)studied "split-brain" patients

D)defined disconnection syndromes

Q4) Why do the authors suggest that disconnection hypotheses are applicable in brain dysfunction?

Q5) What is the "zipper hypothesis"?

Q6) Why do individuals with agenesis of the corpus callosum show fewer and milder cognitive deficits than commissurotomy patients?

Q7) What is the therapeutic value of the severing of commissures in the treatment of epilepsy?

Q8) Describe the three general classes of projections of corpus callosal fibers.

Q9) What do discussions regarding disconnecting cognitive functions conclude about the concept of localization of function within the brain? Page 57

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Chapter 17: Extension: C - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The condition that results from severing the anterior commissure is called _____.

A) anosmia

B) alexia

C) acopia

D) agraphia

Q2) Who further developed the Dejerine and Liepmann concept of "disconnexion syndromes"?

A) Sperry

B) Wernicke

C) Mishkin

D) Geschwind

Q3) The _____ lobe has the fewest interhemispheric connections.

A) parietal

B) occipital

C) temporal

D) frontal

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59

Chapter 18: Extension: A - Learning and Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) "Delay cells" in the prefrontal cortex described by Fuster and Goldman - Rakic are active during:

A) fear conditioning.

B) mirror-tracing tasks.

C) tactile working memory tasks.

D) visuospatial working memory tasks.

Q2) According to Harris, short - term memory for somatosensory stimuli was disrupted by transcranial magnetic stimulation only if the TMS was applied:

A) within 600 seconds of stimulus presentation.

B) within 600 milliseconds of stimulus presentation.

C) after 900 milliseconds following stimulus presentation.

D) in conjunction with electroconvulsive therapy.

Q3) The anatomical model of implicit memory proposed by the authors supports a central role for the:

A) premotor cortex.

B) ventral thalamus.

C) substantia nigra.

D) basal ganglia.

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Chapter 18: Extension: B - Learning and Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) diencephalon ___

A)episodic memory

B)confabulation

C)emotional coloring

D)recognition memory

Q2) amygdala ___

A)episodic memory

B)confabulation

C)emotional coloring

D)recognition memory

Q3) hippocampus ___

A)episodic memory

B)confabulation

C)emotional coloring

D)recognition memory

Q4) fimbria fornix ___

A)location of granule cells

B)neocortex-hippocampus pathway

C)location of pyramidal cells

D)hippocampus-thalamus pathway

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Chapter 18: Extension: C - Learning and Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which question would be most difficult for H.M. to answer correctly?

A) What was your mother's maiden name?

B) How many days are there in 3 weeks?

C) Did you have any visitors the day before yesterday?

D) What is the sum of 6 plus 12?

Q2) Which is NOT a part of explicit memory functioning?

A) semantic memory

B) bottom-up processing

C) intentional remembering

D) episodic memory

Q3) According to Petri and Mishkin, the _____ is NOT part of the proposed implicit memory system.

A) ventral thalamus

B) premotor cortex

C) hippocampus

D) basal ganglia

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Chapter 19: Extension: A - Language

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Sample Questions

Q1) The fundamental sounds in a language are called:

A) morphemes.

B) lexicals.

C) phonemes.

D) vowels.

Q2) Reduced verbal fluency and difficulties in comprehension and production of prosody have been reported following damage to the:

A) right orbitofrontal cortex.

B) left orbitofrontal cortex.

C) right insular cortex.

D) left insular cortex.

Q3) Tests of language abilities in split - brain subjects show that the right hemisphere has:

A) good language production but poor comprehension abilities.

B) good language comprehension but poor production abilities.

C) good language production and comprehension capabilities.

D) all the elements required for fluent American sign language use.

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63

Chapter 19: Extension: B - Language

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the four separate abilities necessary for language?

Q2) Discuss theories of language evolution that emphasize changes to the vocal tract with those that focus on the brain.

Q3) How does the dual - route theory account for deep and surface dyslexia subtypes?

Answer Key

Q4) anomia ___

A)unintended word production

B)word-finding deficit

C)muscular incoordination

D)reading deficit

Q5) paraphasia ___

A)unintended word production

B)word-finding deficit

C)muscular incoordination

D)reading deficit

Q6) Distinguish, on the basis of the type of language errors produced, among fluent aphasia, nonfluent aphasia, and word deafness.

Q7) About how long ago did human language develop? Gather the evidence for your answer.

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Chapter 19: Extension: C - Language

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Sample Questions

Q1) The language disorder known as "word deafness" falls under which of the headings of aphasic syndromes listed in the text?

A) fluent aphasias

B) pure aphasias

C) dyslexic aphasias

D) afluent aphasias

Q2) According to Brodmann's neuroanatomical identification scheme, Broca's area is referred to as _____, and Wernicke's area is referred to as _____.

A) areas 44 and 45; area 22

B) the perisylvian region; the inferior frontal cortex

C) the arcuate fasciculus; the perforant pathway

D) IT; TE

Q3) Syntax is more generally referred to as _____.

A) word flow

B) grammar

C) prosody

D) articulation

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65

Chapter 20: Extension: A - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) Attaching affective (emotional) qualities to experiences and memories is the role of the:

A) basal ganglia.

B) limbic system.

C) dopamine system.

D) prefrontal cortex.

Q2) Social cognition includes the human ability to be aware of whom we are (selfawareness). Imaging and patient data provide evidence that the _____ network mediates this function.

A) right temporal-occipital network

B) left temporal-occipital network

C) left frontoparietal network

D) right frontoparietal network

Q3) The somatic marker hypothesis stresses the importance of emotional expression in: A) reasoning processes.

B) habit learning.

C) fear conditioning.

D) reflex formation.

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Chapter 20: Extension: B - Emotion and the Social Brain

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28 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the four behavioral components of emotion, as described by the text.

Q2) Identify the major contribution to the study of emotion for the following individuals: Papez, Klüver and Bucy, and Gainotti.

Q3) decrease in frequency of spontaneous talking ___

A) if the behavior listed is more likely to be impaired by left-hemisphere lesions B) if it is more likely to be impaired by right-hemisphere lesions.

Q4) Guido Gainotti ___

A)cognitive-emotional interaction theory

B)cognitive asymmetry of emotion

C)somatic marker hypothesis

D)left-hemisphere cognitive interpreter

Q5) You are giving a lecture to an introductory class in neuropsychology. How do you define emotion for your students?

Q6) What are the key neural structures in the original (1937) Papez circuit? What structures have been added in the more current "limbic circuit of emotion"?

Q7) Support or attack the following statement: The emotional complexity of mammals is due to evolutionary changes in the frontal lobes.

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Chapter 20: Extension: C - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) A bilateral anterior temporal lobectomy in monkeys (and in at least one human case) produces a syndrome that includes _____.

A) amnesia

B) lack of sexual desire

C) tameness

D) aggression

Q2) With respect to cognitive control of emotions either up or down regulation, which of the following brain regions have been implicated?

A) the prefrontal cortex and anterior cingulate

B) the hypothalamus and amygdala

C) the medial thalamus and anterior cingulate

D) the hippocampus and prefrontal cortex

Answer Key

Q3) According to Ross, which type of aprosodia is marked by deficits in interpreting the emotional components of language?

A) sensory

B) conduction

C) mixed transcortical

D) anomic

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Page 68

Chapter 21: Extension: A - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) In the context of spatial behavior, the term "egocentric" refers to the localization of environmental stimuli with reference to:

A) prominent, unchanging landmarks.

B) one's own body.

C) one's sense of self-importance.

D) imagined landmarks.

Q2) According to McGee's hypothesis, if superior abilities are heritable through a recessive gene located on the X chromosome, then ______ percent of the female population should show above average abilities.

A) 25

B) 33

C) 75

D) 50

Q3) Females with Turner's syndrome do not produce ______ and have ______.

A) gonadal hormones; impaired spatial abilities

B) stress hormones; impaired spatial abilities

C) gonadal hormones; enhanced spatial abilities

D) stress hormones; enhanced spatial abilities

Answer Key

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Page 69

Chapter 21: Extension: B - Spatial Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why is the Morris water maze so useful in studying spatial behavior?

Q2) Distinguish between place cells and head - direction cells.

Q3) What evidence exists that neurogenesis may play an important role in spatial memory ability?

Q4) What is the relationship between hippocampal size and food storing in birds?

Q5) What are the main symptoms of Bálint's syndrome?

Q6) Discuss the role of the frontal lobe in spatial discriminations.

Q7) Distinguish between egocentric disorientation and heading orientation.

Q8) How do Turner's syndrome individuals perform on spatial tasks (on average)? What may account for their performance?

Answer Key

Q9) heading disorientation ___

A)inability to determine a direction of movement

B)inability to use prominent environmental features for orientation

C)difficulty perceiving the relative location of objects with respect to self

D)inability to remember topographic relations among landmarks

Q10) Discuss the role of temporal lobe structures in spatial behavior.

Page 70

Q11) Marshall the evidence to support or attack the idea that the hippocampus serves as a "cognitive map."

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Page 71

Chapter 21: Extension: C - Spatial Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Patients with heading disorientation are unable to plan a course of direction, despite being able to describe where they want to go. This disorder is associated with lesions to which brain region?

A) right posterior cingulate cortex

B) left posterior cingulate cortex

C) right anterior cingulate cortex

D) left anterior cingulate cortex

Q2) Research by Maguire and others suggests that females are more likely to use _____ in navigation than are males.

A) common sense

B) landmarks

C) dead reckoning

D) compasses

Q3) Moving toward a cue or object (route following) is also called:

A) head direction.

B) cue learning.

C) GPS navigation.

D) topographic learning.

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72

Chapter 22: Extension: A - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) Attentional Blink is a phenomenon characterized by the individual failing to detect a second visual stimulus that is presented _____ milliseconds after the first stimulus.

A) 250

B) 500

C) 750

D) 100

Q2) Work by Corbetta and colleagues suggests that the _____ is activated during attention shift studies, regardless of which visual field contains the stimulus.

A) left parietal cortex

B) left hippocampus

C) right parietal cortex

D) cortical area V4

Q3) "Pop out" stimuli are associated with _____ searching by the visual system.

A) feature

B) conjunction

C) top-down

D) memorial

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Chapter 22: Extension: B - Attention and Consciousness

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Sample Questions

Q1) attention to color

A)area V4

B)anterior cingulate

C)areas V3 and TE

D)parietal cortex

Q2) Define "bottom - up" processing and "top - down" processing. Give an example of each.

Q3) What evolutionary advantage might there be for faster detection of sad versus happy faces?

Q4) Regarding the cerebral source of consciousness, discuss which brain regions have been identified as crucial to conscious behavior.

Q5) What brain regions would you expect to be particularly active in a PET scan during a task in which the attended stimulus is presented in the left visual field only?

Q6) attention to location

A)area V4

B)anterior cingulate

C)areas V3 and TE

D)parietal cortex

Q7) What is "attentional blink"?

74

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Chapter 22: Extension: C - Attention and Consciousness

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Sample Questions

Q1) Temporary reductions in the field defect present in patients with contralateral neglect were observed by Rossetti after the use of _____.

A) aids to memory, such as taking notes on the location of objects

B) increased rewards for such reductions

C) prisms that shifted the visual field to the right

D) Contralateral neglect is impervious to attempts to reduce it.

Q2) Sensory neglect is a disorder that involves lesions to which brain region?

A) the right parietal cortex

B) the right temporal cortex

C) the right prefrontal cortex

D) the right visual cortex

Q3) Summarizing several studies, Corbetta and colleagues found that the parietal cortex is particularly active during tasks that require attention to _____.

A) movement

B) color

C) location

D) distance from the animal

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Chapter 23: Extension: A - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Migrating neuroblasts are guided by:

A) electrical gradients.

B) radial glial cells.

C) internal maps.

D) neurogenesis.

Q2) In humans, synaptic density is greatest at about age:

A) 2 months.

B) 12 months.

C) 6 years.

D) 16 years.

Q3) In adults, aphasia develops about _____ percent of the time with righthemisphere damage.

A) 8

B) 20

C) 3

D) 10

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Chapter 23: Extension: B - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) holoprosencephaly ___

A)aborted cell migration of gray matter

B)absence of cerebral hemispheres, diencephalon, and midbrain

C)failure to form sulci and gyri

D)single undifferentiated hemisphere

Q2) What is one proposal about why some kinds of visuospatial orientation are impaired following early left - hemisphere injury?

Q3) Flechsig ___

A)speech lateralization

B)ocular dominance columns

C)myelination index

D)cognitive development

Q4) What are the effects of area TE lesions in monkeys on performance in the delayed nonmatching - to - sample task? What are the effects of medial temporal lobe lesions? Discuss the difference.

Q5) What evidence from rats indicates that pregnant mothers should have access to stimulating environments?

Q6) Identify the five phases of synapse formation in the cerebral cortex of primates as proposed by Bourgeois.

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Chapter 23: Extension: C - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) The results of Bachevalier and Mishkin's studies in infant monkeys suggest that the most severe autistic behavior occurs for lesions in which location?

A) area TE

B) the medial temporal area

C) the amygdala and entorhinal cortex

D) the parahippocampal gyrus and hippocampus

Q2) Which disorder is LEAST likely to be seen following left - hemisphere lesions in childhood?

A) acalculia

B) writing disorders

C) mutism

D) articulatory disorders

Q3) Which CANNOT be seen in rats after exposure to complex environments?

A) an increased density of glial cells

B) an increased length of dendrites

C) an increased size of synapses

D) a decreased density of glial cells

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Chapter 24: Extension: A - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) It is the result of early brain trauma. It is probably most useful as an "administrative term." It is not curable. It is:

A) Asperger's syndrome.

B) hydrocephalus.

C) cerebral palsy.

D) attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder.

Q2) _____ percent of the offspring of alcoholic mothers have pronounced fetal alcohol syndrome.

A) Two

B) Six

C) Twelve

D) Twenty

Q3) Although controversial, the stimulant Ritalin is widely used in the treatment of: A) dyslexia.

B) autism.

C) cerebral palsy.

D) hyperactivity.

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Chapter 24: Extension: B - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) Why do stimulants such as amphetamines sometimes improve the performance of cognitive skills in learning - disabled children?

Q2) Little ___

A)sluggish attention shifting

B)deficiency in phonemic awareness

C)too rapid presentation of sounds

D)cerebral palsy

Q3) Distinguish between cerebral palsy and hydrocephalus.

Q4) dyslexia ___

A)precocious reading

B)ACID

C)isolated cognitive skills

D)extreme social withdrawal

Q5) Ruffino ___

A)sluggish attention shifting

B)deficiency in phonemic awareness

C)too rapid presentation of sounds

D)cerebral palsy

Q6) Distinguish between graphemic and phonological reading. Give an example of each.

Q7) What are some early signs that a child may have an autism spectrum disorder?

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Chapter 24: Extension: C - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) _____ is treated by the insertion into one lateral ventricle of a valve and a tube that passes into a jugular vein to drain into the cardiac atrium.

A) Cerebral palsy

B) Hyperlexia

C) Fragile-X syndrome

D) Hydrocephalus

Q2) Fragile - X syndrome involves a protein that affects a couple of different receptors. Which of the following treatments have proven some success in treatment of the social deficits in these patients?

A) dopamine agonists

B) glutamate agonists

C) cholinergic agonists

D) GABA agonists

Q3) Asperger's syndrome is a milder form of _____.

A) hyperactivity

B) Down syndrome

C) autism

D) hyperlexia

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Chapter 25: Extension: A - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Q1) The size of the brain area representing the musical scale in musicians correlates with:

A) the number of hours they practice per week.

B) the number of instruments they can play.

C) the age at which they began to practice.

D) their skill level.

Q2) LTP was first found in the:

A) hippocampus.

B) cerebellum.

C) pulvinar nucleus.

D) amygdala.

Q3) Sugita found that properties of neurons in area _____ changed following monkeys' adaptive changes to prisms.

A) V1 and V4

B) V4

C) V1 but not V4

D) V4 but not V1

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Page 82

Chapter 25: Extension: B - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why did a brain - injured motorcycle racer show drastic improvement in both attitude and recovery after he was given a large tricycle on which to ride around?

Q2) Why do the authors of the textbook call compensation the "problem of the threelegged cat"?

Q3) Elbert et al. ___

A)musical scale in musicians

B)grasp techniques

C)human synapse

D)focal hand dystonia

Q4) The authors list four major therapeutic approaches to brain damage. What are they?

Q5) Nudo et al. ___

A)musical scale in musicians

B)grasp techniques

C)human synapse

D)focal hand dystonia

Q6) What is LTP?

Q7) What is kindling in the brain?

Q8) What evidence is there that sensory maps can be modified by experience? Page 83

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Chapter 25: Extension: C - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) _____ is the loss of motor control of one or more digits because of increased muscle tone.

A) Focal hand dystonia

B) Long-term potentiation

C) Metaplasticity

D) Kindling

Q2) The phenomenon of long - term potentiation involves measuring the size of the _____ following high - frequency stimulation.

A) nerve impulse

B) EPSP

C) dendritic tree

D) absolute refractory period

Q3) Which type of therapy for brain injury involves stimulating the production of new neurons in the brain?

A) constraint-induced movement therapy

B) community neurorehabilitation

C) stem-cell induction

D) pharmacological therapy

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Chapter 26: Extension: A - Neurological Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The MOST frequent cause(s) of cerebral hemorrhage is(are):

A) migraine attacks.

B) hypertension.

C) arteriosclerosis.

D) leukemia.

Q2) A feeling or sensation that a seizure is about to take place is called a(n):

A) symptomatic seizure.

B) idiopathic seizure.

C) aura.

D) automatism.

Q3) Which of the following events is NOT a secondary consequence of closed - head brain trauma?

A) ischemic brain damage

B) intracranial hemorrhage

C) diffuse brain swelling

D) vomiting

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Chapter 26: Extension: B - Neurological Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) hematoma ___

A)abnormal blood vessels

B)accumulation of fluid

C)transient ischemia

D)blood trapped under skull

Q2) Babinski sign ___

A)unilateral section of spinal cord

B)not breathing during sleep

C)extensor plantar response

D)emotional excitement

Q3) Describe the normal and abnormal Babinski sign. What does an abnormal adult sign indicate?

Q4) What is the difference, in terms of both causes and symptoms, between paraplegia and Brown - Séquard syndrome?

Q5) How does caffeine, in conjunction with ergotamine compounds, alleviate headaches? What explanation do the authors give for the fact that caffeine can also exacerbate some headaches?

Q6) What is the difference between an angioma and an aneurysm?

Q7) Describe multiple sclerosis in terms of symptoms, course of the disease, and causes (if known).

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Chapter 26: Extension: C - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) _____ is a periodic cessation of respiration in sleep caused by a collapse of the oropharynx.

A) Obstructive sleep apnea

B) Central sleep apnea

C) Periodic sleep apnea

D) SIDS

Answer Key

Q2) Brain tumors referred to as "encapsulated" are characterized by which of the following?

A) The tumor has not infiltrated the healthy brain tissue.

B) The tumor has produced displacement of brain structures due to compression.

C) The tumor was the result of a metastasis.

D) The tumor resulted from glial cells that infiltrated the brain substance.

Q3) An individual who sustains a traumatic brain injury will most likely develop a contusion at the point of impact, termed a:

A) contrecoup.

B) coma.

C) coup.

D) hematoma.

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Page 88

Chapter 27: Extension: A - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) The drugs that are most effective in the treatment of Tourette's syndrome suggest that there may be an abnormality in the _____ neurotransmitter system in these patients.

A) serotonin

B) GABA

C) dopamine

D) acetylcholine

Q2) Parkinson's patients are sometimes referred to as having a "disease of the will." Which of the following symptoms is MOST closely related to this idea?

A) tremor at rest

B) involuntary movements

C) festination

D) muscular rigidity

Q3) The main neurotransmitter system implicated in schizophrenia is:

A) acetylcholine.

B) dopamine.

C) norepinephrine.

D) serotonin.

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Chapter 27: Extension: B - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) Camilla is a 30 - year - old woman who is highly intelligent, gainfully employed, and has Tourette's syndrome. What are some difficulties she may face in going about her day as a result of her disorder?

Q2) Describe the sequence of changes in dendritic structure in normal aging and in advancing Alzheimer's disease.

Q3) coprolalia ___

A)Alzheimer's disease

B)Huntington's disease

C)Parkinson's disease

D)Tourette's syndrome

Q4) Sacks ___

A)modern psychosurgery

B)cognitive behavioral therapy

C)Parkinson's disease

D)bipolar disorder

Q5) Distinguish between Huntington's disease and Parkinson's disease in terms of the neurotransmitter abnormalities suspected to underlie the symptoms for each condition.

Q6) What are the five putative causes of Alzheimer's disease, based on the text?

Q7) What are the main anatomical correlates of Alzheimer's disease?

Page 90

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Chapter 27: Extension: C - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) Neuritic plaques are one of the brain entities found in _____ disease.

A) Alzheimer's disease

B) Huntington's disease

C) Wilson's disease

D) Tourette's syndrome

Q2) Post and Weiss hypothesized that in bipolar patients, mood - disorder episodes are initially _____.

A) spontaneous and unrelated to external events

B) precipitated by psychosocial stressors

C) very rapid, cycling daily

D) not effectively treated by medication

Q3) The root cause of Huntington's disease has been identified as _____.

A) damage to GABA neurons resulting from brain trauma

B) shrinkage of the cortex due to stress hormones

C) a dominant autosomal gene with complete penetrance

D) a recessive sex-linked gene that is linked to the dopamine system

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Chapter 28: Extension: A - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) The FSIQ has a standard deviation of:

A) 5.

B) 10.

C) 15.

D) 20.

Q2) The combination of neuropsychological test development and imaging techniques has led to an understanding of the role of the right frontal lobe in:

A) social cognition.

B) visual acuity.

C) verbal memory.

D) spatial memory.

Q3) A patient with closed - head brain injury goes to see a neuropsychologist. To assess the nature and extent of disability, the doctor has the patient undergo:

A) functional imaging.

B) the Wechsler Memory Scale.

C) a thorough neuropsychological assessment.

D) composite test batteries.

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Chapter 28: Extension: B - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discuss how right - versus left - hemisphere damage would likely affect performance and verbal scores on the Weschler Scales.

Q2) Name six frequently used categories of neuropsychological testing, as identified by Zillmer and Spiers.

Q3) self - control ___

A)finger tapping

B)consonant trigrams test

C)Wide Range Achievement Test

D)cow-and-circle test

Q4) academic skills ___

A)finger tapping

B)consonant trigrams test

C)Wide Range Achievement Test

D)cow-and-circle test

Q5) Why is neuropsychological testing particularly useful in cases of closed - head injuries?

Q6) In the Boston Process Approach to neuropsychological testing, what tests are used to evaluate self - control and motor functions?

Q7) Identify four of the tests for memory functions in the Boston Process Approach.

93

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Chapter 28: Extension: C - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) The emergence of _____ in the 1990s produced a dramatic change in the theoretical understanding of brain and cognition.

A) better cut-off scores

B) more sophisticated test batteries

C) cognitive neuroscience

D) problem-solving tests

Q2) Which of the following tests is BEST suited to evaluate a patient for righthemisphere dysfunction?

A) Wisconsin Card Sorting Test

B) consonant trigrams test

C) Rey Complex-Figure Test

D) a test of verbal fluency

Answer Key

Q3) The authors suggest that the biggest change in neuropsychology since the 1980s has been the development of _____.

A) better psychiatric drugs

B) functional imaging

C) better paper-and-pencil tests

D) increased treatment of those suffering from psychological disorders.

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Page 94