Clinical Microbiology
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Microbiology explores the role of microorganisms in human health and disease, emphasizing the identification, diagnosis, and management of infectious agents. Students will learn about the biology of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, as well as laboratory techniques for detecting and characterizing pathogens. The course covers topics such as antimicrobial resistance, infection control, emerging infectious diseases, and the interpretation of clinical laboratory data. Through lectures and practical sessions, students gain a comprehensive understanding of the critical role clinical microbiology plays in patient care and public health.
Recommended Textbook
Linne Ringsruds Clinical Laboratory Science 7th Edition by Mary Louise Turgeon
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529 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Fundamentals of the Clinical Laboratory
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Q1) screens for viral diseases,for example,HIV
A)hematology
B)clinical chemistry
C)immunohematology
D)immunology and serology
E)microbiology
Answer: D
Q2) The federal legislation requiring strict confidentiality of patient results is:
A) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA '88).
B) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).
C) National Certifying Agency.
D) combined state laws.
Answer: B
Q3) ASCP
A)American Society for Clinical Laboratory Science
B)National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences
C)American Society of Clinical Pathologists
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Safety in the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following legislative documents ensures that workers have safe and healthful working conditions?
A) Occupational Safety and Health Act
B) Hazard Communication Standard
C) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)
D) Both a and b
Answer: D
Q2) Infectious disease safety practices include:
A) educating and training all health workers in standard precautions.
B) providing disposable gloves.
C) monitoring compliance with protective biosafety policies.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Q3) Rubber-stoppered test tubes should be opened slowly with a gauze square over the stopper.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Quality Assessment and Quality Control in the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) dispersion
A)a gradual change in the control sample results
B)a sudden and sustained change in one direction in control sample values
C)when random error or lack of precision increases
Answer: C
Q2) ISO 15189 is based on:
A) ISO/IEC 17025.
B) ISO 9001.
C) CAP 15189.
D) both a and b.
Answer: D
Q3) Required regulation of clinical laboratories is achieved by the:
A) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988.
B) The Joint Commission (TJC).
C) College of American Pathologists (CAP).
D) American Hospital Association (AHA).
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Phlebotomy: Collecting and Processing Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first critical step in blood collections is:
A) introduction of the phlebotomist.
B) a brief explanation of the procedure and tests to be performed.
C) patient identification.
D) a check of test requisitions for ordered tests.
Q2) Environmental factors that can affect the quality of evacuated tubes can be:
A) sunlight.
B) ambient temperature.
C) humidity.
D) all of the above.
Q3) The most common cause of an abnormal appearance of a collected blood specimen is:
A) hemolysis.
B) icterus (jaundice).
C) lipemia.
D) excess anticoagulant.
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Chapter 5: The Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) An artificial neural network:
A) simulates the action of a robot.
B) simulates human brain processing of information.
C) simulates automated instruments.
D) follows strict algorithms.
Q2) The definition of the microscopic working distance is the distance from the:
A) bottom of the objective to the material being studied.
B) ocular to the bottom of the objective.
C) ocular to the material being studied.
D) top of the objective to the material being studied.
Q3) The definition of Köhler illumination is the:
A) strength of the transmitted light.
B) light path through the microscope.
C) light path passing through the condenser of the microscope.
D) light path passing through the diaphragm of the microscope.
Q4) A brightfield microscope may be converted to a darkfield microscope by:
A) use of a special darkfield condenser in place of the usual condenser.
B) replacement of the usual filters.
C) use of a special ocular.
D) changing the type of light source.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Systems of Measurement, laboratory
Equipment, and Reagents
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Q1) In the process of deionization,water is:
A) heated and cooled to liquefy the condensation.
B) passed through a resin column containing positively (+) and negatively (-) charged particles.
C) first heated and then passed through a resin column containing charged particles.
D) both b and c.
Q2) A pipette that has been calibrated to deliver a fixed volume of liquid by drainage is known as ____ pipette.
A) a volumetric
B) a serologic
C) a graduated
D) both b and c
Q3) The purpose of a material safety data sheet (MSDS)is to provide information about:
A) possible hazards.
B) safe handling instructions.
C) storage and disposal of the specific chemical that it accompanies.
D) all of the above.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Laboratory Mathematics and Solution Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) specific gravity
A)the amount of matter per unit volume of a substance
B)relates the weight of 1 mL of a solution and the weight of 1 mL of pure water at 4°C (1 g)
Q2) The more digits that are used in laboratory assay results,the more precise the answer is.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Report a laboratory result with the most number of significant figures as the accuracy of the final result.
A)True
B)False
Q4) standard solution
A)a solution prepared from a stock solution and usually stored in the refrigerator
B)one that contains a known, exact amount of the substance being measured
C)one that contains reagents used in the procedure but not the substance to be measured
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Chapter 8: Basic and New Techniques in the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coulometry measures the:
A) amount of current passing between two electrodes in an electrochemical cell.
B) color generated in a chemical reaction.
C) heat generated in a chemical reaction.
D) relative speed of current passing between two electrodes in an electrochemical cell.
Q2) <380
A)not visible (infrared light)
B)red
C)orange
D)yellow
E)green
F)blue
G)violet
H)not visible (ultraviolet light)
Q3) The term light is used to describe:
A) radiant energy with wavelengths visible to the human eye.
B) wavelengths bordering on those visible to the human eye.
C) all forms of radiant energy.
D) both a and b.
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Chapter 9: Delivery of Laboratory Testing From Point of
Care to Total Automation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Computer hardware for an LIS system includes:
A) central processing unit (CPU).
B) random access memory (RAM).
C) an operating system.
D) both a and b.
Q2) A false-negative fecal occult blood can be caused by:
A) beets and carrots.
B) chicken.
C) multivitamins.
D) vitamin C.
Q3) The three most highly automated areas of the clinical laboratory are:
A) microbiology, urinalysis, and hematology.
B) clinical chemistry, hematology, and urinalysis.
C) clinical chemistry, microbiology, and blood banking.
D) immunology, microbiology, and hematology.
Q4) If urine is used for pregnancy testing,it should be:
A) first morning.
B) random.
C) 24-hour.
D) sterile.
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Chapter 10: Introduction to Clinical Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) CA 27.29
A)suggests early recurrence of breast cancer
B)secreted in endodermal sinus tumors
C)detected in choriocarcinoma
D)found in 20% of smokers
Q2) An increased anion gap may be due to:
A) lactic acidosis.
B) hypercalcemia.
C) hypermagnesemia.
D) hypoproteinemia.
Q3) Hypoglycemia is not a consequence of:
A) insulinoma.
B) islet cell hyperplasia.
C) insulin resistance.
D) glycogen storage disease.
Q4) Which of the following is the least utilized role of a tumor marker?
A) Cancer screening
B) Cancer diagnosis
C) Monitoring of patients for a recurrence of cancer
D) Determination of the extent of tumor burden
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Chapter 11: Principles and Practice of Clinical Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood samples that are unsuitable for hematology testing include ____ specimens.
A) hemolyzed
B) clotted
C) icteric
D) both a and b
Q2) If a patient has a total leukocyte count of 20.0× 10 /L with 70% neutrophils and 30% lymphocytes on the leukocyte differential smear,what is the absolute lymphocyte count?
A) 3.6× 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) 6.0× 10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) 6.6× 10<sup>9</sup>/L
D) 14.0× 10<sup>9</sup>/L
Q3) When RBCs are examined morphologically,what characteristics should be observed?
A) Variations in color
B) Variations in size (anisocytosis)
C) Variations in shape (poikilocytosis)
D) All of the above
Q4) Platelets act as plugs around the opening of a wound.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Introduction to Hemostasis
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Q1) The protein "glue" that optimally binds platelets and collagen after vessel injury is:
A) fibronectin.
B) von Willebrand's Factor (VIII:vWF).
C) factor II.
D) factor I.
Q2) A function or activity of platelets is to help activate and be a participant in plasma coagulation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The final result of secondary hemostasis is:
A) platelet plug.
B) constriction of a blood vessel.
C) a blood clot.
D) promotion of bleeding to cleanse a wound.
Q4) contact group
A)factors II, VII, IX, and X
B)factors XI and XII, prekallikrein (Fletcher factor), and HMWK (Fitzgerald factor)
C)factors I, V, VIII, and XIII
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Chapter 13: Renal Physiology and Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most desirable type of routine urinalysis specimen is:
A) sterile.
B) first, early morning.
C) random, mid-day.
D) 24-hour.
Q2) The longer a reagent strip is in contact with a urine specimen,the better the results that will be observed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) a blue color forms for the protein reaction,if the urine is exposed to the reagent strip for too long
A)false positive
B)false negative
Q4) Select the microscopic elements that could be found in normal or abnormal urinary sediment: Moderate number of squamous epithelial cells.
A) Normal
B) Abnormal
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15
Chapter 14: Examination of Body Fluids and Miscellaneous Specimens
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Q1) CSF specimens should be delivered to the laboratory:
A) immediately.
B) within an hour.
C) within 12 hours.
D) within 24 hours.
Q2) A macroscopically turbid cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)may indicate:
A) blood clots.
B) increased white blood cell count.
C) presence of hemorrhage.
D) viral infection.
Q3) Seminal fluid may be examined for:
A) infertility studies.
B) postvasectomy assessment.
C) evaluation of probable sexual assault.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Normally,____% or more of sperm are motile.
A) 15
B) 25
C) 50
D) 100
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Chapter 15: Introduction to Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an obligate intracellular pathogen that is a prevalent sexually transmitted disease?
A) Gardnerella vaginalis
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Trichomonas vaginalis
Q2) Which of the following is a sterilization procedure that uses moist heat and how is this method effective in killing bacterial spores?
A) Filtration; filters all microbes larger than the filter pore size
B) Boiling; kills all microorganisms and spores at 100° C (boiling)
C) Hot-air chamber; kills all microorganisms and bacterial spores at 171° C for at least 1 hour
D) Autoclaving; kills all microorganisms and bacterial spores at 121° C for 15 minutes at 15 lb above atmospheric pressure
Q3) What is the name of the type of infection that is acquired in a hospital?
A) Opportunistic infection
B) Normal flora
C) Community acquired infection
D) Nosocomial infection
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Chapter 16: Immunology and Serology
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Q1) decline
A)no detectable antibody
B)antibody titer stabilizes
C)antibody is catabolized
D)antibody titer increases
Q2) A convalescent blood specimen should be collected ____ after the onset of symptoms.
A) 24 hours
B) 72 hours
C) 1 week
D) 2 weeks
Q3) Factors that influence an individual's defense against disease include taking mega-doses of vitamins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A popular method for waived,over-the-counter testing is:
A) chemiluminescence.
B) fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH).
C) signal amplification technology.
D) enzyme immunoassays (EIA).
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Chapter 17: Immunohematology and Transfusion Medicine
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Q1) The presence of A,B,and H antigenic material in body secretions is regulated by:
A) precursor of A and B RBC antigens.
B) H gene.
C) Se gene.
D) A and B genes.
Q2) All of the following are criteria for postpartum eligibility for Rh immune globulin administration except:
A) administered to the mother within 72 hours of delivery.
B) administered to the baby within 72 hours of delivery.
C) baby must be RhO (D) positive.
D) mother must not demonstrate anti-D in her blood.
Q3) The first stage of red cell agglutination is sensitization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Rh antibodies belong to the ____ subclass of antibodies.
A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgD
D) IgE
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