Clinical
Microbiology Review Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Microbiology explores the role of microorganisms in human disease by examining pathogenic bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, as well as the mechanisms by which they cause infections. This course emphasizes laboratory techniques for isolating and identifying pathogens, antibiotic susceptibility testing, and the interpretation of clinical microbiology results. Students will also learn about the principles of infection control, epidemiology of infectious diseases, and emerging microbial threats. Through case studies and practical exercises, the course bridges the gap between microbiological theory and clinical practice, preparing students for careers in healthcare and biomedical research.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Introduction 13th Edition by
Gerard J. Tortora
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28 Chapters
1820 Verified Questions
1820 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Microbial World and You
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about biofilms is FALSE?
A)Compared to free-living bacteria,biofilms are more sensitive to antibiotics.
B)Biofilms in pipes can block the flow of water.
C)Biofilms in your body protect mucous membranes from harmful microbes.
D)Biofilms on medical devices cause infections.
E)Biofilms on rocks provide food for animal life.
Answer: A
Q2) Common commercial benefits of microorganisms include synthesis of A)riboflavin.
B)acetone.
C)insulin.
D)aspirin.
E)riboflavin,acetone and insulin.
Answer: E
Q3) The process of pasteurization to reduce food spoilage utilizes high heat to kill all bacteria present.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Chemical Principles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based upon the valence numbers of the elements magnesium (2)and hydrogen (1),predict how many covalent bonds would form between these atoms to achieve the full complement of electrons in their outermost energy shells.
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
Answer: B
Q2) The antimicrobial drug imidazole inhibits sterol synthesis.This would most likely interfere with A)bacterial cell walls. B)fungal cell walls.
C)eukaryotic plasma membranes. D)prokaryotic plasma membranes. E)genes.
Answer: C
Q3) Individual covalent bonds are stronger than individual ionic bonds. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) The negative stain is used to
A)visualize endospores.
B)determine Gram reaction.
C)determine flagella arrangement.
D)visualize fimbriae.
E)determine cell size.
Answer: E
Q2) Bacterial smears are fixed before staining to
A)affix the cells to the slide.
B)make their walls permeable.
C)accept stain.
D)make the cells visible.
Answer: A
Q3) The resolution of a microscope can be improved by changing the A)condenser.
B)fine adjustment.
C)wavelength of light.
D)diaphragm.
E)coarse adjustment.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Functional Anatomy of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oxygen crosses a plasma membrane
A)by osmosis.
B)through simple diffusion.
C)with the help of a nonspecific transporter.
D)through facilitated diffusion.
E)through porins.
Q2) In Figure 4.3,which diagram of a cell wall is a gram-negative cell wall?
A)a
B)b
C)both a and b
D)neither a nor b
E)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Q3) In Figure 4.3,which diagram of a cell wall contains porins?
A)a
B)b
C)both a and b
D)neither a nor b
E)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Q4) Provide evidence to substantiate the hypothesis that eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells.
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Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements are TRUE?
1-Electron carriers are located at ribosomes.
2-ATP is a common intermediate between catabolic and anabolic pathways.
3-ATP is used for the long-term storage of energy and so is often found in storage granules.
4-Anaerobic organisms are capable of generating ATP via respiration.
5-ATP can be generated by the flow of protons across protein channels.
A)2,4,5
B)1,3,4
C)2,3,5
D)1,2,3
E)All of the statements are true.
Q2) Which biochemical process is NOT used during glycolysis?
A)substrate-level phosphorylation
B)oxidation-reduction
C)carbohydrate catabolism
D)beta oxidation
E)enzymatic reactions
Q3) Streptococcus lacks an electron transport chain.How does this bacterium reoxidize NADH? Where is the NADH formed?
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Chapter 6: Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Figure 6.2 shows a typical bacterial growth curve with the y-axis indicating the log of the number of bacteria and the x-axis indicating time in culture.In the figure,which section (or sections)shows a growth phase where the number of cells dying equals the number of cells dividing?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)a and c
Q2) The biosafety level (BSL)for a clinical microbiology laboratory working with potentially airborne pathogens,such as tuberculosis bacteria,is
A)BSL-1.
B)BSL-2.
C)BSL-3.
D)BSL-4.
Q3) Bacterial growth refers to an increase in the numbers of cells in a bacterial culture.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some antimicrobial chemicals are considered to be disinfectants and antiseptics.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched?
A)bacteriostatic - kills vegetative bacterial cells
B)germicide - kills microbes
C)virucide - inactivates viruses
D)sterilant - destroys all living microorganisms
E)fungicide - kills yeasts and molds
Q3) In Figure 7.1,the thermal death point for this culture is
A)15 minutes.
B)50°C.
C)30 minutes.
D)170°C.
E)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided
Q4) Desiccation is a reliable form of sterilization.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In Table 7.4,what is the minimal bacteriostatic concentration of each disinfectant? Which compound is bactericidal? At what concentration?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Table 8.2 The anticodon for valine is
A)GUU.
B)CUU.
C)CTT.
D)CAA.
E)GTA.
Q2) Recombination will always alter a cell's genotype.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A gene is defined as
A)any random segment of DNA.
B)three nucleotides that code for an amino acid.
C)a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product.
D)a sequence of nucleotides in RNA that codes for a functional product.
E)the RNA product of a transcribed section of DNA.
Q4) Both base substitution and frameshift mutations can result in the formation of premature stop codons.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the survival value of the semiconservative replication of DNA?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Biotechnology and Dna Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following steps must be performed to make a bacterium produce human protein X.
1-Translation
2-Restriction enzyme
3-Prokaryotic transcription
4-DNA ligase
5-Transformation
6-Eukaryotic transcription
7-Reverse transcription
Which of the following places the steps in the correct order?
A)5,2,3,4,7,6,1
B)1,2,3,5,4,7,6
C)6,7,2,3,4,5,1
D)6,7,2,4,5,3,1
E)6,2,1,3,4,5,7
Q2) Nearly all cells,including E.coli and yeast,naturally take up DNA from their surroundings without chemical treatment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Classification of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phage typing is based on the fact that
A)bacteria are destroyed by viruses.
B)viruses cause disease.
C)bacterial viruses attack only members of a specific species.
D)Staphylococcus causes infections.
E)phages and bacteria are related.
Q2) Fatty acid methyl ester analysis is commonly used
A)in bacterial identification.
B)in DNA sequencing reactions.
C)in serological identification methods.
D)in DNA fingerprinting.
Q3) At this point in time,scientists believe the vast majority of the domain Bacteria have been discovered.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Once a culture is purified,the next logical step in the process of identifying bacteria is biochemical testing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: The Prokaryotes: Domains Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Gram stain is not suitable for identifying members of the Archaea.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following can survive in phagocytic cells and grows in refrigeration temperatures?
A)Borrelia burgdorferi
B)Mycoplasma hominis
C)Mycobacterium leprae
D)Clostridium botulinum
E)Listeria monocytogenes
Q3) Chlamydia differ from most other bacteria in that they
A)have a developmental cycle.
B)lack a cell wall.
C)are acid-fast.
D)produce endospores.
E)are photosynthetic.
Q4) Explain the rationale for using molecular data for classification,in the place of morphology.
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Q5) Describe two factors that contribute to the limits of our knowledge of microbial diversity.
Chapter 12: The Eukaryotes: Fungi, algae, protozoa, and Helminths
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Q1) Most cases of hookworm infection are acquired by ingestion of adult forms in contaminated food or water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Arthropod vectors are blood-sucking animals such as ticks,lice,and fleas that transmit microbial pathogens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A)Basidiomycota - basidiospores
B)Ascomycota - conidiospores
C)Zygomycota - sporangiospores
D)microsporidia - lack mitochondria
E)anamorphs - lack spores
Q4) Which of the following organisms is photoautotrophic protozoan?
A)oomycote
B)cellular slime mold
C)Euglena
D)Phytophthora
E)plasmodial slime mold
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Chapter 13: Viruses,viroids,and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A virus's ability to infect an animal cell depends primarily upon the
A)host cell's ability to phagocytize viral particles.
B)presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane.
C)type of viral nucleic acid.
D)enzymatic activity of a host cell.
E)presence of pili on the host cell wall.
Q2) Binomial nomenclature is used to name viruses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus envelope. A)True
B)False
Q4) Dogs do not get measles because their cells lack the correct receptor sites for that virus.
A)True B)False
Q5) Bacteriophages are used as vectors in genetic engineering to insert new genes into bacteria.Describe the process that makes this genetic recombination possible.
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Chapter 14: Principles of Disease and Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The yeast Candida albicans does NOT normally cause disease because of A)symbiotic bacteria.
B)antagonistic bacteria.
C)parasitic bacteria.
D)commensal bacteria.
E)other fungi.
Q2) The CDC is located in A)Atlanta,GA.
B)Washington,DC.
C)New York City,NY.
D)Los Angeles,CA.
E)Chicago,IL.
Q3) Situation 14.1 is an example of A)human reservoirs.
B)a zoonosis.
C)a nonliving reservoir.
D)a vector.
E)a focal infection.
Q4) Would you expect all EIDs to be on the notifiable infectious disease list? Explain.
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Chapter 15: Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Endotoxins in sterile injectable drugs could cause A)infection.
B)septic shock symptoms.
C)giant cell formation.
D)nerve damage.
E)no damage,because they are sterile.
Q2) Bacteria that cause periodontal disease have adhesins for receptors on streptococci that colonize on teeth.This indicates that A)streptococci get bacterial infections.
B)streptococcal colonization is necessary for periodontal disease.
C)bacteria that cause periodontal disease adhere to gums and teeth.
D)bacteria that cause periodontal disease adhere to teeth.
E)streptococci cause periodontal disease.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of direct damage due to bacterial infection?
A)the uncontrolled muscle contractions in Clostridium tetani infection
B)the invasion and lysis of intestinal cells by E.coli
C)the hemolysis of red blood cells in a staphylococcal infection
D)the fever,nausea,and low blood pressure in a Salmonella infection
E)the excessive secretion of fluids in a Vibrio cholera infection
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Defenses of the Host
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Sample Questions
Q1) Innate immunity
A)is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens.
B)is nonspecific and present at birth.
C)involves a memory component.
D)involves T cells and B cells.
E)provides increased susceptibility to disease.
Q2) Margination refers to
A)the adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms.
B)the chemotactic response of phagocytes.
C)adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels.
D)dilation of blood vessels.
E)the movement of phagocytes through walls of blood vessels.
Q3) Which of the following is found normally in serum?
A)complement
B)interferon
C)histamine
D)leukocytosis-promoting factor
E)TLRs
Q4) Describe and differentiate between the three pathways of activating complement.
18
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Chapter 17: Adaptive Immunity: Specific Defenses of the Host
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Q1) The importance of M cells concerns
A)facilitation of contact between antigens in the intestinal tract and the immune system.
B)presentation of epitopes in MHCII molecules.
C)having microvilli to facilitate antigen capture.
D)preventing damage to adaptive immune system cells.
E)ability to migrate along the intestinal tract.
Q2) Memory cells do not require B cell receptors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following bacterial components would most likely result in B cell stimulation by T-independent antigens?
A)capsule
B)flagellum
C)pili
D)ribosome
E)plasmid
Q4) Cytokine storms negatively impact human health.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Practical Applications of Immunology
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Q1) Live weakened polio virus can be used directly in a(n)
A)inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B)attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C)conjugated vaccine.
D)subunit vaccine.
E)toxoid vaccine.
Q2) A test used to identify antibodies against Treponema pallidum in a patient's serum is the
A)direct fluorescent-antibody test.
B)indirect fluorescent-antibody test.
C)direct agglutination test.
D)direct ELISA test.
E)neutralization test.
Q3) A test used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes in a patient's throat swab is the
A)direct fluorescent-antibody test.
B)indirect fluorescent-antibody test.
C)hemagglutination test.
D)neutralization test.
E)indirect ELISA test.
Q4) Describe an ELISA test to detect the presence of HIV antibodies in a patient.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Disorders Associated With the Immune System
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Q1) Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from an
A)Rh mother with an Rh fetus.
B)Rh mother with an Rh fetus.
C)AB mother with a B fetus.
D)AB mother with an O fetus.
E)Rh mother and an A fetus.
Q2) Allergic contact dermatitis is due to A)sensitized T cells.
B)IgG antibodies.
C)IgE antibodies.
D)IgM antibodies.
E)activated macrophages.
Q3) All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT A)asthma.
B)dust allergies.
C)severe reactions to insect venom.
D)pollen allergies.
E)transplant rejections.
Q4) Explain why a transplant tissue would be rejected if that tissue had different HLAs compared to the HLAs of the recipient.How can this rejection be decreased?
21
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Explain the difficulties in developing antiviral drugs against DNA viruses,when compared to RNA viruses.
Q2) Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against A)viruses.
B)bacteria.
C)fungi.
D)protozoa.
Q3) More than half of our antibiotics are
A)produced by fungi.
B)produced by bacteria.
C)synthesized in laboratories.
D)produced by Fleming.
E)produced by eukaryotic organisms.
Q4) Lamisil is an allylamine used to treat dermatomycoses.Lamisil's method of action is similar to that of
A)polymyxin B.
B)azole antibiotics.
C)echinocandins.
D)griseofulvin.
E)bacitracin.
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Chapter 21: Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Pathogens of the skin often enter via hair follicles and ducts of the sweat glands.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which disease commonly leads to blindness in parts of the world but can be largely controlled through sanitary practices and health education?
A)Yaws
B)Buruli ulcer
C)Trachoma
D)Acanthomoeba keratitis
E)Herpetic keratitis
Q3) Only infestation with the body louse Pediculus humanus corporis,and not the head louse,spreads diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The majority of the staphylococci isolated from human skin are coagulase-positive.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Each of the following is caused by prions EXCEPT
A)sheep scrapie.
B)kuru.
C)Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
D)bovine spongiform encephalopathy.
E)rabies.
Q2) Which one of the following diseases causes symptoms in fewer than 1% of infected individuals,but has a mortality rate in symptomatic patients of about 20%?
A)Eastern equine encephalitis
B)Western equine encephalitis
C)St.Louis encephalitis
D)California encephalitis
E)West Nile virus encephalitis
Q3) The most effective control of mosquito-borne disease is
A)treatment of infected humans.
B)treatment of infected wild animals.
C)elimination of the mosquito population.
D)avoidance of endemic areas.
E)treatment of uninfected humans.
Q4) Explain the transmission and etiology of meningococcal meningitis.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Microbial Diseases of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) Worldwide,which disease is the most serious public health threat: malaria,Chagas' disease,or brucellosis? Explain why,and provide a plan to reduce the incidence of the disease.
Q2) All forms of typhus are associated with arthropod vectors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT caused by a bacterium?
A)epidemic typhus
B)tickborne typhus
C)malaria
D)plague
E)relapsing fever
Q4) Yellow fever
A)is transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes.
B)has a mortality rate of 5%.
C)was eradicated from the U.S.in the early 1900s.
D)cannot be transmitted human to human.
E)has an effective component vaccine available.
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Q5) Humans are not the normal hosts for Ixodes and Xenopsylla.How,then,do humans contract Lyme disease and plague?
Chapter 24: Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Infection by which one of the following is often confused with viral pneumonia?
A)Blastomyces
B)Coccidioides
C)Mycoplasma
D)Streptococcus
E)Mycobacterium
Q2) Which one of the following is responsible for epidemics of respiratory disease in infants?
A)rhinovirus
B)adenovirus
C)respiratory syncytial virus
D)influenza
E)Mycoplasma
Q3) Soil is a reservoir for the pathogen for all of the following diseases EXCEPT A)Q fever.
B)melioidosis.
C)blastomycosis.
D)histoplasmosis.
E)coccidioidomycosis.
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Chapter 25: Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System
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Q1) Approximately 30 percent of the body's immune system is located in the intestinal tract.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following causes inflammation of the liver?
A)Salmonella enterica
B)Shigella spp.
C)hepatitis A virus
D)Vibrio cholerae
E)Escherichia coli
Q3) Campylobacter gastroenteritis is the leading cause of foodborne illness in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q4) H.pylori is able to survive the acidic environment of the stomach as a result of adaptations that allow it to increase the pH of the immediate environment.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the process of periodontal disease.
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Q1) One form of NGU is lymphogranuloma venereum caused by A)Leptospira interrogans.
B)Chlamydia trachomatis.
C)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
D)Treponema pallidum.
E)Candida albicans.
Q2) Would you expect the incidence of leptospirosis to be higher in urban or rural communities? Explain.
Q3) Candida is a normal flora fungal microorganism found in the majority (greater than 50%)of women.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Trichomoniasis is the only known STI caused by a protozoan. A)True B)False
Q5) The male urethra is typically sterile. A)True
B)False
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Q6) Would you expect reported cases of urethritis to be higher than pyelonephritis? Explain.
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Chapter 27: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Adding untreated sewage to a freshwater lake would cause the biochemical oxygen demand to A)increase.
B)decrease.
C)stay the same.
D)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Q2) Untreated sewage is released into a river.Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)The untreated sewage is a health hazard.
B)The untreated sewage increases the BOD.
C)The untreated sewage decreases the dissolved oxygen.
D)The untreated sewage kills bacteria.
E)All of the statements are true.
Q3) Differentiate endomycorrhizae from ectomycorrhizae and give an example of each.
Q4) What is the effect of discharging primary-treated sewage on the BOD and dissolved O (DO)of the receiving body of water? What is the effect of secondary-treated sewage on the BOD and DO?
Q5) Based on your knowledge of extremophiles and endoliths,describe the characteristics you would expect of microorganisms capable of living on Mars or other non-Earth environments.
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Chapter 28: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) In Figure 28.1,assume that a secondary metabolite is your desired product.Remember,the top lines/markings indicate the different phases observed in the curve below them.When would you be able to obtain it?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
Q2) Aseptic packaging utilizes which of the following to sterilize laminated paper or plastic prior to filling with food?
A)hot HCl solution
B)gamma radiation
C)hot hydrogen peroxide solution
D)X rays
E)autoclave
Q3) The production of vinegar relies on the microbial oxidation of ethanol to acetic acid.
A)True
B)False
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