Course Introduction
Clinical
Microbiology Review Questions
Clinical Microbiology is the study of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, that cause diseases in humans. This course explores the fundamental principles of microbial pathogenesis, laboratory identification techniques, and the clinical significance of pathogens. Emphasis is placed on specimen collection, diagnostic testing, antimicrobial susceptibility, infection control, and epidemiology within healthcare settings. Students will gain practical experience in interpreting laboratory results and understanding the role of clinical microbiology in guiding patient management and public health interventions.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Anthony Strelkauskas
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1101 Verified Questions
1101 Flashcards
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Page 2
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which substance or process decreases the virulence of a bacterial pathogen in a host?
A)Peptidoglycan
B)Adaptive immune cells
C)Virulence factor
D)Binary fission
E)Toxins
Answer: B
Q2) A term reserved for a disease that is acquired in a clinical setting is known as a(n)_____ infection.
A)Enterohemorrhagic
B)Contagious
C)Multidrug-resistant
D)Nosocomial
E)Acute
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Fundamental Chemistry for Microbiology
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Q1) A triglyceride contains fatty acids that are _____ and therefore do not dissolve with water.
A)Hydrophilic
B)Carbohydrates
C)No lipid groups
D)Ribose sugars
E)Hydrophobic
Answer: E
Q2) Atomic structure gives an atom
A)Its mass
B)Its reactivity
C)Its valence in molecules
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) The components of ATP include
A)Adenine, ribose sugar, and three phosphates
B)Amino acid and three phosphates
C)Adenine, triglycerols, and one phosphate
D)Adenine, deoxyribose sugar, and three phosphates
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Essentials of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) During alcoholic fermentation the intermediate _____ is synthesized from pyruvic acid.
A)NAD?
B)Acetaldehyde
C)Lactic acid
D)ATP
E)Acetyl CoA
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following distinguishes an enzyme from an apoenzyme? An apoenzyme_____.
A)Is the mirror image of its enzyme?
B)Cannot bind a competitive inhibitor
C)Cannot form an enzyme-substrate complex
D)Contains no cofactor
Answer: D
Q3) When a molecule is oxidized it receives electrons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: An Introduction to Cell Structure and Host-Pathogen Relationships
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a biofilm and why are biofilms clinically problematic? Provide a specific example.
Q2) Which of the following increases susceptibility to infection?
A)Malnutrition
B)Poverty
C)Crowded housing conditions
D)Unsanitary conditions
E)All of the choices
Q3) Describe two ways in which pathogens can escape the toxic effects of lysosomes once they have been phagocytosed.
Q4) Considering the development of high performance high technology methods for detecting and differentiating organisms,justify the continued use of staining techniques.
Q5) When an antibiotic targets a pathogen-specific component,its mechanism of action is
A)Receptor-mediated endocytosis
B)Ubiquitylation
C)Inhibition of a biochemical function that is unique to the pathogen
D)Quorum sensing
Q6) What is the endosymbiont theory? Provide an example of this process.
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Chapter 5: Requirements for Infection
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Q1) Connective tissue in the host is compromised by the production of _____ by bacteria.
A)Hyaluronidase
B)Capsules
C)Streptokinase
D)M protein
E)Leukocidins
Q2) Which of the following is the most virulent?
A)Bordetella pertussis (whooping cough)
B)Yersinia pestis (plague)
C)Pseudomonas aeruginosa (infections of burns)
D)Clostridium difficile (antibiotic-induced colitis)
E)Candida albicans (vaginitis, thrush)
Q3) Which of the following is the process by which phagocytic cells adhere to and ingest antibody-coated or complement-coated bacteria?
A)Resolution
B)Pinocytosis
C)Phagocytosis
D)Binary fission
E)Opsonization
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Chapter 6: Transmission of Infection, the Compromised
Host, Epidemiology, and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) How does morbidity rate differ from incidence rate?
Q2) An individual who seems healthy but infects others with disease-causing pathogens is a(n)
A)Index case
B)Compromised patient
C)Immunodeficient patient
D)Public health hazard
E)Carrier
Q3) Calculate the morbidity,mortality,and incidence rates,given the following information: in a study conducted between January 1 and January 31,80 new cases of influenza were reported in a community of 10,000 individuals,bringing the total number of active influenza cases to 100.In this same period,2 individuals died from complications of the disease.
Q4) The Hantavirus has a limited transmission because
A)It is transmitted by droplets
B)It is not transmitted from human to human
C)Only a small fraction of humans are susceptible
D)It is transmitted by direct contact
Q5) What are potential sources of nosocomial infections? List at least six.
Q6) Explain how global warming could affect the spread of infectious diseases. Page 8
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Principles of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the process by which Streptococcus pyogenes causes streptococcal toxic shock syndrome (STSS).
Q2) Which of the following is the definition for latent disease?
A)Pathogens use blood or lymph to access all organs
B)Symptoms reappear long after initial infection
C)Symptoms immediately follow a primary infection
D)Rapid symptom development and rapid subsequent improvement
E)Symptoms are between those of acute and chronic disease
Q3) Escherichia coli cells producing bacteriocins are participating in
A)Opportunism
B)Antibiotic resistance
C)Commensalism
D)Parasitism
E)Microbial antagonism
Q4) The development of shingles is believed to be linked to
A)Persistent granulomas
B)Aging
C)Microbial antagonism
D)Toxemia
Q5) List and describe the five specific periods of infection.
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Chapter 8: Emerging and Re-Emerging Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the process of recombination?
A)Synthesis of a nearly perfect copy of a molecule
B)Portions of chromosomes from different pathogens link
C)Single base in genetic material converts to another
D)Two chromosomes from different pathogens form a pair
Q2) Which of the following choices regarding Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease (CJD)is a mismatched pair?
A)Iatrogenic form: blood transfusion
B)Mad cow disease: epidemic in humans
C)Familial form: genetically inherited
D)Prognosis: death within 12 months of first signs
E)Brain morphology: plaques
Q3) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates recruitment by chemokines?
Q4) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates production of edema?
Q5) Where did the Hantavirus originate and how is it transmitted to humans? Explain the factors that contributed to the outbreak of Hantavirus in the southwestern region of the USA in 1993.
Q6) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates apoptosis?
Q7) Identify and explain four different factors that have contributed to the re-emergence of tuberculosis.
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Chapter 9: The Clinical Significance of Bacterial Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a function of the plasma membrane?
A)Secretion
B)Protection from osmotic pressure
C)Energy production
D)DNA replication
E)Transport
Q2) Explain why endospores are attractive agents for bioterrorism.Provide an example.
Q3) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates the structure that contains the electron transport system?
Q4) Gram-positive bacteria possess how many pair(s)of rings anchoring the flagellum to the plasma membrane?
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four
Q5) What is the function of the bacterial flagellum? Describe the three components of a flagellum and the four distinct patterns of flagella arrangement.Provide a brief explanation of each pattern.
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Growth
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Q1) A thioglycolate tube was inoculated with an unknown bacterium.After overnight incubation growth is seen only in the area several millimeters below the surface of the agar.This bacterium exhibits a growth pattern characteristic of a(n)
A)Aerotolerant organism
B)Microaerophile
C)Obligate aerobe
D)Obligate anaerobe
E)Facultative anaerobe
Q2) Bacteria requiring multiple growth factors to survive are classified as _____ bacteria.
A)Fastidious
B)Selective
C)Differential
D)Beta hemolytic
E)Stationary
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement: Successful bacterial growth depends on the right temperature,pH,and osmotic pressure.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 11: Microbial Genetics and Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the figure which letter (A-C)refers to the codon,UAA?
Q2) Which enzyme facilitates the attachment of amino acids to tRNA molecules?
A)Peptidyl transferase
B)RNA polymerase
C)Helicase
D)Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
E)Topoisomerase
Q3) Topoisomerase is required for replication because
A)It links DNA to the primer
B)It prevents unnecessary replication forks from forming
C)It is a DNA polymerase
D)It relaxes the supercoiling of DNA to allow replication
E)It is a DNA ligase
Q4) A six carbon sugar is a component of
A)RNA
B)DNA
C)Both DNA and RNA
D)Neither DNA or RNA
Q5) Discuss five ways in which transcription differs from DNA replication.
Q6) Explain how RNA differs from DNA in structure and function.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: The Structure and Infection Cycle of Viruses
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Q1) In the figure which letter (A-D)indicates the RNA or DNA?
Q2) Regions on the host cell's plasma membrane rich in cholesterol and particular types of fatty acids to which some viruses attach are called
A)Syncytia
B)Protein coats
C)Capsomeres
D)Lipid rafts
Q3) Why is the capsid an important part of the structure of the virus?
A)It allows for the virion to withstand harsh environments until it infects a cell
B)It is easily shed when the virion enters into the host cell
C)It selectively allows certain agents to penetrate the coat and enter into the virion
D)It allows the virion to withstand harsh environments and is easily shed when it enters the host cell
E)It allows the virion to withstand harsh environments and selectively allows certain agents to penetrate the coat and enter the virion
Q4) In the figure which letter (A-D)indicates the matrix protein?
Q5) In the figure which letter (A-D)indicates neuraminidase or hemagglutinin?
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Page 15
Chapter 13: Viral Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr.Johnson has an immunodeficiency disease called X-linked agammaglobulinemia owing to a genetic defect in a gene called Bruton's tyrosine kinase (Btk),which is required for B cell development.He lacks B cells and is therefore unable to produce antibodies.He receives regular injections of gammaglobulin to ensure he has protective immunity against microbial diseases.This is an example of A)Active immunity
B)Attenuated immunity
C)Subunit vaccination
D)Passive immunity
E)Inactivated immunity
Q2) All of the following cause skin rashes in humans except A)Rubella virus
B)Measles virus
C)Parvovirus
D)Hepatitis C virus
E)Varicella-zoster virus
Q3) What is virulence and what factors have an effect on the virulence of viral infections? Explain why host susceptibility is such an important consideration in viral virulence.
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Chapter 14: Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement: In contrast with bacteria,fungi incorporate ergosterol into their plasma membranes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are possible symptoms of malaria except
A)Hypotension
B)Hemoglobinuria
C)Fever
D)Thrombocytopenia
E)Elevated red blood cell level
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement: Hyphae form in yeast by budding.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Answer true or false to the following statement: Fungi are classified according to the characteristics of their sexual spores and hyphal septation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify and describe three categories of pathogenic fungal infection.
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Chapter 15: The Innate Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dendritic cells located in the skin are referred to as
A)Kupffer cells
B)M cells
C)Natural killer (NK) cells
D)Langerhans cells
E)Mast cells
Q2) The interaction between natural killer (NK)cells and macrophages amplifies the innate immune response.Rearrange the following into the order of events during this amplification.Which is the last event?
A)Macrophage production of cytokines TNF and IL-12 increases
B)Increased production of IL-2 by NK cells
C)NK cells produce gamma interferon (IFN-?)
D)Proliferation of NK cells
Q3) Which of the following cell types produce mucus in the lower respiratory tract?
A)M cell
B)Alveolar macrophage
C)Goblet cell
D)Mast cell
E)Basophil
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Chapter 16: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rearrange the following cell choices to describe the sequence in which they form.Which cell is second?
A)Plasma cell
B)Pluripotent stem cell
C)B cell
D)Common lymphoid progenitor
Q2) A(n)_____ is any foreign substance that provokes an immune response.
A)Mitogen
B)Immunoglobulin
C)Tolerate
D)Antigen
E)Androgen
Q3) Explain what is meant by the phrase "T and B cell cooperation" in the context of adaptive immune responses.Why is it important that the B cell functions as an antigen-presenting cell for this cooperation to occur and how is this accomplished?
Q4) Explain why dendritic cells are considered "watch dogs" for pathogens.
Q5) Describe the three ways in which antibodies function to protect a host from pathogens.
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Chapter 17: Failures of the Immune Response
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Q1) If an individual is diagnosed with DiGeorge syndrome,then
A)T cells fail to develop
B)Class II MHC molecules are not expressed
C)Cytokines are not produced
D)There is increased susceptibility to Neisseria spp. infections owing to defects in complement
E)They cannot form phagolysosomes
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of HIV?
A)Enveloped
B)Retrovirus
C)Single-stranded DNA
D)Sexually transmitted
E)Encodes reverse transcriptase
Q3) Which of the following statements is false?
A)Autoimmunity can be induced by infection, drugs, and toxins
B)Some individuals are genetically predisposed to the development of autoimmune disease
C)Autoimmune diseases are classified according to whether they are organ-specific or systemic
D)Graves' disease affects the nervous system
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Chapter 18: Control of Microbial Growth with Disinfectants and Antiseptics
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Q1) Which of the following is not a quality of an antimicrobial used for disinfection and antisepsis?
A)It should have a narrow spectrum of activity
B)It should be effective even in the presence of bodily fluids
C)It should not be toxic
D)It should be chemically stable
Q2) Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic for skin?
A)Ethanol
B)Iodophor
C)Formaldehyde
D)phenol-containing compounds
E)Hydrogen peroxide
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Ionizing radiation useful because it sterilizes without using heat or chemicals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain what happens when a protein becomes denatured and why this process is likely to be detrimental to microbes.Provide three examples of how proteins can be denatured.
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Chapter 19: Antibiotics and Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) The efficacy of penicillin is highest during the _____ phase of the bacterial life cycle.
A)Static
B)Active growth
C)Stationary
D)Death
Q2) Discuss selective toxicity as it relates to antimicrobials.
Q3) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Acyclovir (nucleoside analog): herpes simplex virus
B)Zanamivir (neuraminidase inhibitor): cytomegalovirus
C)Azidothymidine (AZT; nucleoside analog): HIV
D)Ribavirin (nucleoside analog): respiratory syncytial virus
E)Amantadine (viral un-coating inhibitor): influenza A
Q4) Making semi-synthetic antibiotics in the laboratory by altering the side chains of naturally occurring antibiotics is an important approach for generating new antibiotics.Why is a search for new antibiotics needed? Provide examples of new desirable properties conferred on antibiotics through these types of chemical modification.
Q5) Explain how sulfa drugs exert their antimicrobial effects.Why is this lethal to the bacterium and how are these drugs selectively toxic?
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Chapter 20: Antibiotic Resistance
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Q1) Describe the four types of protective mechanism microbes use to develop resistance to antibiotics.Provide an example of each type.
Q2) Which of the following is a superinfection pathogen of the gastrointestinal tract associated with the overuse of broad-spectrum antibiotics?
A)Escherichia coli
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C)Clostridium difficile
D)Bacillus subtilis
E)Staphylococcus aureus
Q3) The minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)is determined using the A)Kirby-Bauer method
B)E test
C)Disk diffusion method
D)Broth dilution test
Q4) Why is selective toxicity particularly problematic when developing antimicrobials to treat viral infections?
Q5) Identify and describe five factors that contribute to the growing problem of antibiotic resistance in today's world.
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Chapter 21: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Describe three ways in which host defenses can be breached,leading to predisposition to respiratory tract infections.
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Rhinovirus is known as the common cold virus because it is the major cause of the mild upper respiratory infections that affect people of all ages.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Q fever?
A)Spontaneous resolution
B)Bacteria growing well in the placenta
C)Transmitted by inhalation and ingestion
D)Humans are the only reservoir
E)Caused by Coxiella burnetii
Q4) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Strep throat: pyrogenic toxin
B)Scarlet fever: pseudomembrane in throat
C)Mycoplasma: walking pneumonia
D)Corynebacterium: "snapping" during cell division
E)Diphtheria: protein synthesis-inhibiting toxin
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) All of the following toxins are produced by pathogenic Escherichia coli except
A)Vacuolating cytotoxin
B)Heat-labile toxin
C)Pore-forming toxin
D)Shiga toxin
E)Heat-stable toxin
Q2) Answer true or false to the following statement: Because there is no animal model for typhoid fever,development of a vaccine has been delayed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A vaccine is available for which of following hepatitis viruses?
A)Hepatitis B
B)Hepatitis C
C)Hepatitis E
D)Hepatitis G
Q4) Which of the following is not typical of cholera infections?
A)Fever
B)Use of filamentous pili for colonization
C)Toxin production
D)Voluminous rice stool
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Lymphadenitis is consistent with which stage of syphilis?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Latent
D)Tertiary
Q2) Gonococcal resistance to _____ has prompted the development of third-generation anti-gonococcal antibiotics?
A)Cephalosporin
B)Fluoroquinolone
C)Azithromycin
D)Doxycycline
E)Penicillin
Q3) Chancre are consistent with which stage of syphilis?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Latent
D)Tertiary
Q4) Identify and differentiate between the four types of urinary tract infection (UTI)affecting men.How are UTIs treated?
Q5) Describe the virulence factors associated with uropathogenic Escherichia coli.
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Compare abortive to paralytic polio in relation to the following statement: It is a non-specific febrile illness.
A)Abortive
B)Paralytic
C)Both abortive and paralytic
D)Neither abortive or paralytic
Q2) Cerebrospinal fluid is located in the
A)Blood vessels surrounding the cerebrum
B)Subarachnoid space
C)Dura mater
D)Spinal cord
E)Cerebrum
Q3) Which of the following is not an example of an arbovirus?
A)West Nile virus
B)Saint Louis encephalitis
C)Eastern equine encephalitis
D)Western equine encephalitis
E)Rabies virus
Q4) Describe the three forms of botulism.
Q5) How do the effects on the nervous system differ between botulism and tetanus?
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Chapter 25: Infections of the Blood and Lymph
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Q1) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: The periodicity of filarial movement between the pulmonary circulation and the systemic circulation is important because it determines which type of mosquito will serve as the vector and intermediate host.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about filariasis is false?
A)Filariasis is caused by threadlike nematodes
B)Microfilariae move between the systemic circulation during the day to the pulmonary circulation during the night
C)Humans are the only host for the causative agents of filariasis
D)Recurrent filariasis may lead to elephantiasis
E)There are no known treatments for filariasis
Q3) The movement of bacteria from _____ is the most common route linked to extravascular infections.
A)Bloodstream lymphatics tissues
B)Tissues lymphatics bloodstream
C)Lymphatics tissue bloodstream
D)Tissues bloodstream lymphatics
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Chapter 26: Infections of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Tissue invasion by Candida albicans is facilitated by the formation of A)Yeast cells
B)Koplik's spots
C)Hyphae
D)Cutaneous warts
Q2) Dermatophytosis of the feet (athlete's feet)is also known as
A)Tinea cruris
B)Cutaneous candidiasis
C)Cutaneous leishmaniasis
D)Tinea pedis
E)Pediculosis
Q3) Which of the following is not consistent with scalded skin syndrome?
A)High fever
B)More common in infants
C)Recurrence unlikely because of an effective immune response
D)Production of exfoliatins
E)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q4) Explain the similarities and differences between cold sores and warts.
Q5) Describe five mechanisms by which the skin provides an important first line of defense to the host.
29
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