Clinical Microbiology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Clinical Microbiology explores the principles and practices involved in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of infectious diseases caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. The course covers the identification and characterization of clinically relevant microorganisms, laboratory techniques for specimen collection and analysis, antimicrobial susceptibility testing, mechanisms of pathogenicity, and epidemiology of infectious diseases. Emphasis is placed on the role of the clinical microbiology laboratory in patient care, infection control, and public health, as well as emerging trends in microbial resistance and diagnostic technology.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations 7th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Koch's postulates were
A) specific to anthrax and tuberculosis but don't apply to other diseases
B) designed to establish a casual relationship between a causative microbe and a disease
C) strict in that microorganisms isolated from experimentally inoculated hosts had to be different from the microorganism that was introduced into the host.
D) interpreted as many organisms could cause the same disease
Answer: B
Q2) Over 100 microbial genomes have been sequenced; beyond yielding insight into microbial genomes,these sequencing projects have been important because:
A) they developed the techniques that allowed for the Human Genome Project
B) knowing how many chromosomes a microbe has lets us know if it causes disease
C) without the sequence of the genome we can not tell what the organism uses as its genetic material
D) it demonstrated that microorganisms do not cause infectious diseases.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anabolic reactions tend to
A) use energy and degrade food
B) produce energy, and degrade food
C) produce energy and new chemical bonds
D) use energy and produce new chemical bonds
Answer: D
Q2) What is true about atomic weights?
A) it is the sum of the number of electrons and protons in an atom.
B) the higher the atomic weight the more likely an atom will form a chemical bond
C) it is always a whole number
D) atoms of a particular element that have different atomic weights are called isotopes
Answer: D
Q3) Identify which of the following is not a colloid
A) salt water
B) gelatin desserts
C) agar plates used to grow microorganisms
D) fluid in cells
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stains used in the Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain are
A) crystal violet and eosin
B) carbolfuschin and methylene blue
C) carbolfuschin and safranin
D) safranin and methylene blue
Answer: B
Q2) Atomic force microscope
A) allows 3 dimensional imaging and measurement of structures as small as nucleotides in DNA
B) is not yet capable of measuring small forces
C) involves ultraviolet light exciting molecules so that they release light of a longer wavelength
D) has a special condenser and objective lens
Answer: A
Q3) Transmission electron microscopes have a maximum magnification of A) 1,000X
B) 100,000X
C) 500,000X
D) 1,000,000X
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Q1) The Fluid-mosaic model describes the structure of A) cell walls
B) cell membranes
C) capsules
D) endosymbiotic relationships
Q2) Extrachromosomal DNA in prokaryotic cells can be found in the form of
A) chromosomes
B) plasmids
C) mitochondria
D) chloroplasts
Q3) Which of the following statements about cell walls is false?
A) all bacterial cell walls contain teichoic acid
B) plants and fungi have cell walls
C) bacteria which have lost their cell wall are known as L-forms
D) algal protests have cell walls
Q4) Penicillin controls the growth of bacteria by
A) destroying cell membranes
B) preventing protein synthesis
C) removing cell walls
D) preventing peptidoglycan synthesis
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Chapter 5: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Q1) The prokaryotic aerobic metabolism of glucose produces a total (net)of ________ molecules of ATP.
A) 24
B) 30
C) 34
D) 38
Q2) In aerobic respiration,the final electron acceptor is
A) water
B) oxygen
C) sulfur
D) coenzyme Q
Q3) Glucose is to photosynthesis as pyruvate is to
A) oxidative phosphorylation
B) glycolysis
C) fermentation
D) Krebs cycle
Q4) What are chemoheterotrophs and how do they obtain energy? Name and describe two other ways microorganisms obtain energy. Why do you think so many different ways of obtaining energy evolved?
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Chapter 6: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of cell will generally shift to aerobic metabolism when oxygen is available but will carry on fermentation otherwise?
A) aerotolerant anaerobes
B) facultative anaerobes
C) obligate anaerobes
D) obligate aerobes
Q2) Sabourard's agar has a low pH which encourages the growth of molds and discourages the growth of bacteria. Sabourard's agar could best be described as being A) selective
B) differential
C) complex
D) enriched
Q3) Organisms with special nutritional needs are said to be A) barophiles
B) fastidious
C) aerobes
D) none of the above
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) During DNA replication
A) the leading strand is synthesized in the 3' to 5' direction
B) the leading strand is synthesized discontinuously
C) the lagging strand is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction
D) both strands are synthesized discontinuously
Q2) Transcription results in the formation of what type of new molecule?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) Protein
D) lipid
Q3) Which of the following properties are exclusive to mRNA?
A) combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes
B) carries information from DNA for synthesis of a protein
C) molecules contain an anticodon
D) contains the nucleotide thymine
Q4) Genes with different information at the same locus are called
A) chromosomes
B) homologs
C) plasmids
D) alleles
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Restriction enzymes come from
A) fungal cells
B) viruses
C) bacteria cells
D) animal cells
Q2) DNA can be cut at specific sites by using A) ligases
B) restriction enzymes
C) antibiotics
D) plasmids
Q3) Electroporation is a technique that is used to
A) kill bacteria
B) make bacteria competent
C) increase conjugation among bacteria
D) decrease the pathogenicity of bacteria
Q4) Without restriction endonucleases,it would be impossible to A) insert plasmids into bacteria
B) bring about mutations in bacteria
C) replicate DNA in a recombinant cell
D) open the DNA of plasmids
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Taxonomy: the Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms that degrade organic molecules to methane belong to the domain
A) archaea
B) eukarya
C) bacteria
D) moreara
Q2) How do lateral gene transfer and symbiosis complicate both the three domain and five kingdom treelike structure? Where do viruses,viroids and prions fit in today's taxonomy? Are they classified based on phylogeny or morphology?
Q3) The correct order of taxonomic hierarchies (from most broad to most specific)is
A) class, order, family, phylum
B) order, family, class, phylum
C) phylum, class, order, family
D) phylum, class, family, order
Q4) A eukaryotic,unicellular organism with no cell wall would be classified as a
A) Monera
B) Animal
C) Fungi
D) Protista
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Chapter 10: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why did scientists initially resist the idea of an infectious,self-replicating protein?
Q2) Which of the following is used by negative strand RNA viruses such as measles and influenza during their replication cycle?
A) synthesize DNA via reverse transcriptase
B) synthesize a double stranded RNA intermediate
C) synthesize an RNA:DNA hybrid whose RNA is a (+) strand
D) synthesize an RNA:DNA hybrid whose DNA is a (-) strand
Q3) Bacteriophages contain the enzyme lysozyme,which is used to A) replicate viral DNA.
B) shut down bacterial cell metabolism.
C) weaken bacterial cell walls.
D) help recognize the proper bacterial host.
Q4) All of the following viruses may stay inside of a cell for many years and remain inactive except
A) herpes
B) chickenpox
C) HIV
D) enterovirus
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Q1) Protists are classified according to whether they resemble organisms in each of the following kingdoms except
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Animals
D) Plants
Q2) Tapeworms consist of a head end and a long chain of hermaphroditic segments,each of which is called a ________.
A) scolex
B) proglottid
C) sporocyst
D) cysticercus
Q3) A leech that feeds on a person swimming in a pond then releases itself from the skin to return to the water is an example of a/n
A) endoparasite
B) permanent parasite
C) temporary parasite
D) reservoir host
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13
Chapter 12: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dry heat changes the structure of _______ through the process of _____
A) lipids; dehydration
B) lipids; oxidation
C) proteins; oxidation
D) proteins; dehydration
Q2) Which is not a practical means of killing microorganisms?
A) pasteurization
B) freeze-drying
C) ultrasonic waves
D) ultraviolet light
Q3) Moist heat kills microorganisms by denaturing their
A) lipids
B) proteins
C) carbohydrates
D) nucleic acids
Q4) Which of the following do not affect viruses?
A) alkylating agents
B) detergents
C) alcohols
D) halogens
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Resistance of a microorganism to an antibiotic
A) means that the microorganism is susceptible to the antibiotic
B) can be acquired by genetic changes as well as by non-genetic mechanisms
C) leads to a disruption of cell membrane function
D) leads to a disruption of normal microflora
Q2) Because the tetracyclines are effective against a large variety of different organisms,they are considered to
A) be narrow-spectrum drugs
B) have a therapeutic dosage level
C) be bacteriocidal
D) be broad-spectrum drugs
Q3) What antibiotic kills bacteria by disrupting their cell membranes?
A) erythromycin
B) rifampin
C) tetracycline
D) polymyxin B
Q4) Describe three mechanisms for antibiotic resistance. If exposure to antibiotics does not induce drug-resistant mutations to occur,why do we see so many more drug-resistant strains today?
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Chapter 14: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Botulinum Toxin
A) when used for cosmetic purposes is called Botox
B) relieves muscle spasms in dystonia
C) is produced by Clostridium botulinum
D) all of the above
Q2) Which of the following must be true in order to satisfy Koch's postulates?
A) causative agent must be observed in a small percentage of cases of disease
B) must be isolated from hosts that are not inoculated with the pure culture
C) when pure cultures inoculated in healthy hosts, they do not show disease
D) causative agent must be isolated from diseased host and grown in pure culture
Q3) Factors that improve the chances of a pathogen's ability to invade a host and cause infection are known as:
A) contagious factors
B) non-communicable factors
C) viral factors
D) virulence factors
Q4) What are the difficulties in demonstrating Koch's postulates for human infections? Why was it difficult to demonstrate that Leprosy or HIV satisfied Koch's Postulate?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infection acquired in the hospital or other medical facility is called:
A) zoonosis
B) notifiable
C) exogenous
D) nosocomial
Q2) An index case
A) refers to the first case where an infectious disease kills a susceptible host
B) is necessary for a common source outbreak
C) defines a propagated epidemic
D) refers to the first case of an infectious disease outbreak to be identified
Q3) An epidemic that arises from horizontal transmission and where the number of cases slowly rises and falls is said to be of what type?
A) common-source outbreak
B) sporadic disease
C) pandemic
D) propagated epidemic
Q4) What makes a microbe a potential bioterroism weapon? Do you believe that bioterroism that targets humans or agriculture is more worrisome? Explain your answer.
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17
Chapter 16: Innate Host Defenses
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Q1) What non-specific immune component is directly responsible for the lysis of invading microorganisms?
A) chemotaxis
B) membrane attack complex
C) opsonin
D) chronic inflammation
Q2) Specific defenses
A) function against any infectious agent
B) include phagocytes and interferon
C) include only noncellular defenses
D) respond to particular infectious agents
Q3) Bacteria that resist digestion by phagocytes use all of the following mechanisms except
A) produce capsule that can resist lysosomal digestion
B) block chemokines from reaching phagocytes
C) form parasitophorous vacuoles
D) produce streptolysisin and leukocidin
Q4) Is fever useful? A patient comes to you with a fever and a respiratory infection,would you be more worried about aggressively treating the fever or too little fever control? Explain your answers.
18
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Chapter 17: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive
Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) Which of the following statements about antigenicity is false?
A) normal host tissue is referred to as self
B) foreign substances are referred to as non-self
C) all bacteria have antigens and are seen as non-self
D) transplanted organs have no antigens and are seen as self
Q2) The concentration of antibody needed to bind to and neutralize an antigen is called:
A) tolerance
B) T-cell
C) titer
D) antitoxin
Q3) Which of the following statements about immunization is false?
A) inadequate refrigeration decreases effectiveness of measles vaccine
B) recommended age for immunization in children varies for each vaccine
C) injection of gamma globulin can establish passive immunization
D) route of administration does not affect the vaccines's efficacy
Q4) What are 4 attributes of adaptive immunity? Describe how both humoral and cell-mediated responses achieve these properties.
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Chapter 18: Immunolgy Ii: Immunological Disorders and Tests
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Q1) All of the following are Type III hypersensitivities except
A) granulomatous reactions
B) serum sickness
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) lupus erythematosus
Q2) Immunosuppression is important in transplant success; which of the following are immunosuppressive agents?
A) radiation
B) methotrexate
C) cyclosporine
D) all of the above
Q3) HIV has an affinity for cells that bear the _______ antigen(s)on their surface.
A) CD4
B) HLA-B27
C) CD8
D) two of the above
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) Debridement
A) destroys much of the body's protective covering
B) is a surgical scraping technique that improves antibiotic efficacy
C) prevents nosicomal infections from occurring in severe burns
D) two of the above
Q2) Roseola
A) causes a sudden rash and brief high fever
B) is also known as german measles
C) causes a lifelong latent infection of T cells
D) two of the above
Q3) What are means by which asymptomatic Staphylococcus carriers (like hospital personnel)spread staphylococci?
A) via the skin
B) by nasal dropets
C) fomites
D) all of the above
Q4) What's the difference between trachoma and bacterial conjunctivitis? How are they transmitted? Are they both common in the United States? Which one would you rather have?
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Chapter 20: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following groups has the most problem with UTIs?
A) females, infants
B) males, infants
C) females, over 60 years
D) males, adults
Q2) In healthy individuals all of the following parts of the urinary tract are sterile except
A) lower folds of urinary bladder
B) portion of the urethra closest to the urethral opening
C) ureter of the kidney
D) nephrons
Q3) Herpes infections are most successfully treated with daily doses of A) penicillin
B) interferon
C) AZT
D) acyclovir
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Consumption is another name for A) over-eating
B) diphtheria
C) tuberculosis
D) pneumonia
Q2) Pneumonia can be caused by
A) bacteria
B) viruses
C) fungi
D) all of the above
Q3) Respiratory syncytial virus
A) is the most common cause of lower respiratory tract infections in infants under 1 yr of age
B) is a pneumonia-like disease transmitted to humans by birds
C) usually a skin disease but sometimes disseminated to the lungs
D) two of the above
Q4) A friend calls and says he thinks he has the flu,because he has a runny,stuffy nose and has been sneezing quite a bit. You tell him it sounds like a cold,not the flu. Compare and contrast four of the symptoms of the common cold and influenza for him.
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Chapter 22: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Consuming which of the following would not put you at risk for gastrointestinal diseases?
A) fresh fruits and vegetables that were thoroughly washed
B) improperly cooked pork chops or venison
C) sushi
D) chlorinated and filtered water
Q2) Dental caries are most effectively controlled by
A) fluoride treatment
B) chloride treatment
C) sealant application.
D) two of the above
Q3) All of the statements about mumps are true except
A) Domestic pets can be carriers of the virus.
B) Caused by a paramyxovirus.
C) Incidence of disease is significantly less since the vaccine was licensed.
D) Parotid glands swell 14 to 21 days after exposure.
Q4) Describe peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis. What infectious agent causes peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis? What is known about its mode of transmission?
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24
Chapter 23: Cardiovascular, lymphatic and Systemic Disease
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Q1) The mite is the vector for
A) Rickettsialpox
B) Ehrlichiosis
C) Trench fever
D) Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Q2) Puerperal fever is caused by
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Streptococcus agalactiae
Q3) A family arrived at a rustic cabin in the woods in Texas for summer break and found it full of mice. During the second week most of the members of the family came down with fever,chills and a crushing headache,followed by a rash in 3 to 5 days. They all recovered in about 2 weeks from onset. What disease might they have had and how did they get it?
Q4) Lyme disease is characterized by all of the following except
A) etiology is Borrelia burgdorferi
B) bull's eye rash
C) genetic predisposition with HLA-DR4 or RLA-DR2
D) debilitating hepatitis is a common sequelae
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Chapter 24: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Which term refers to aggregates of neuron cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system?
A) ganglia
B) microglial cells
C) blood-brain barrier
D) meninges
Q2) Botulism toxin is characterized by all of the following except A) most potent toxin known
B) released upon autolysis of cells
C) boiling will not inactivate the toxin
D) activated by proteolytic enzymes
Q3) All of the following are associated with prions except A) Chagas' disease
B) Kuru
C) Scrapie
D) Mad cow disease
Q4) What are the two vaccines developed to prevent polio? Which vaccine would be recommended for an immunocompromised child? How about in an area where it is difficult to get to and vaccine coverage is poor? Why are there still cases of polio in the United States if vaccine coverage is excellent?
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Chapter 25: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) A niche includes all of the following except
A) the taxonomy of an organism
B) the role an organism plays in the ecosystem
C) an organism's use of abiotic factors in its environment
D) the interactions an organism has with other organisms
Q2) The indicator organism for human pathogens in a water supply is
A) Escherichia coli
B) Salmonella typhi
C) Poliovirus
D) Staphylococcus aureus
Q3) Which is a primary symbiotic nitrogen fixer?
A) Azotobacter
B) Rhizobium
C) Cyanobacteria
D) Clostridium
Q4) Which of the following statements about soil is false?
A) anywhere in the soil you can find snottites
B) viruses can be used for biocontrol of insect pests in soil
C) humus is the nonliving organic matter in soil
D) carbon in the soil is continuously recycled
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Chapter 26: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) Bone stink
A) is caused by Clostridium and leads to putrefaction deep in tissues of large carcasses
B) refers to molds that grow on refrigerated and frozen meats
C) refers to fluffy white whiskers on the surfaces of hanging carcasses
D) causes green discoloration on refrigerated meat under low oxygen conditions
Q2) What can cause mild to severe gastroenteritis,arthritis,glomerulonephrities,a fatal typhoid like septicemia,and fatal ileitis,and inflammation of the small intestines that can be misdiagnosed as appendicitis?
A) Adirondack disease
B) Erysipelas
C) Yersinia enterocolitica infection
D) two of the above
Q3) What statement about microorganism production of enzymes is incorrect?
A) all enzymes used in industrial processes are synthesized in living organisms
B) enzyme specificity minimizes the problems of product purification
C) invertase is the commercially available enzyme produced in greatest quantity
D) Aspergillus molds produce proteases and amylases
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