Clinical Microbiology
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Clinical Microbiology explores the interactions between microorganisms and human hosts, emphasizing the identification, characterization, and diagnosis of pathogenic bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites responsible for human disease. The course covers fundamental laboratory techniques, diagnostic procedures, antimicrobial susceptibility testing, infection control practices, and the clinical implications of microbial infections. Students gain insight into microbiological principles as they relate to patient care, integrating laboratory findings with clinical case scenarios to develop a comprehensive understanding of infectious disease management in healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 5th Edition by Connie R. Mahon
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Bacterial Cell Structure, Physiology, Metabolism, and Genetics
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Q1) A microbiologist is working with two separate cultures of the same organism.The bacteria in one culture are resistant to penicillin, whereas the bacteria in the other culture are susceptible to penicillin.The bacteria from both cultures are mixed together, and all the resulting bacteria are resistant to penicillin.What caused this phenomenon?
A)The plasmid carrying the resistance gene was transferred to the susceptible population of bacteria.
B)The plasmid carrying the susceptibility gene was transferred to the resistant population of bacteria.
C)An IS element was inserted into the genome of the susceptible bacterial population.
D)A frame-shift mutation occurred that allowed the susceptible population of bacteria to develop resistance to penicillin.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Host-Parasite Interaction
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Q1) Interferon is a substance produced by the body that inhibits viral replication.Interferon accomplishes this task by:
A)digesting the virus that is attempting to attach to the host cell.
B)destroying the host cell before the virus can attach and replicate.
C)binding to surface receptors that stimulate the cell to synthesize enzymes that inhibit viral replication over several days.
D)stimulating platelets to produce b-lysins.
Answer: C
Q2) During the childbearing years, the normal flora of the vagina maintain a low pH, thus encouraging colonization with all the following types of organisms except: A)lactobacilli.
B)gram-negative rods.
C)anaerobic gram-negative bacilli.
D)gram-positive cocci.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: The Laboratory Role in Infection Control
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Q1) Information that the microbiology laboratory can provide to infection control practitioners includes:
A)the prevalence of a particular pathogen.
B)data on the effectiveness of handwashing techniques.
C)information about the outbreak of meningitis cases in the surrounding counties.
D)the antibiotic ordering patterns of particular physicians.
Answer: A
Q2) What ongoing process helps public health and health care officials recognize outbreaks, upward trends of infections, and positive effects of interventions?
A)Handwashing techniques
B)Intervention
C)Surveillance
D)Antimicrobial resistance
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Control of Microorganisms
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Q1) The main goal of handwashing is to:
A)sterilize a person's hand.
B)increase the risk of passing on pathogens.
C)eliminate transient flora.
D)disinfect a person's hands.
Q2) The biosafety levels were categorized using all the following criteria except:
A)the bacterial load necessary to cause infection.
B)the organism's ability to cause serious illness.
C)the organism's mode of transmission.
D)whether there is treatment available for an infection.
Q3) Technicians are doing the morning chemistry run.Once they load the specimens onto the instrument, they remove their gloves to do paperwork in a clean area of the laboratory.What should the technicians do after removing their gloves?
A)Reposition the tubes in the racks.
B)Take a break and eat a snack.
C)Call any critical values.
D)Wash their hands.
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Chapter 5: Performance Improvement in the Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) All of the following are provisions of CLIA 88 except:
A)verify employee competency upon employment.
B)determine an employee's competency.
C)reverify the employee's competency monthly.
D)reverify the employee's competency annually.
Q2) Thermometers used in the laboratory must be calibrated before they are put into use.This is accomplished by:
A)sending to the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) to determine its accuracy.
B)checking against an NIST thermometer.
C)measuring the grades to make sure they are the standard size and accurate.
D)using a colored dye.
Q3) Antimicrobial susceptibility is hard to control because many of the same species of organisms have a varied susceptibility to particular antibiotics.To reduce this variation, Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) guidelines recommend:
A)using in-house organisms isolated from past patients.
B)sharing strains between hospital laboratories.
C)using specific strains from American Type Culture Collection (ATCC).
D)obtaining test strains from Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Specimen Collection and Processing
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Q1) A safe method of transporting aspirated wound material would be in a(n):
A)leak-proof bag.
B)tube of broth.
C)anaerobic transport system.
D)plastic container.
Q2) An enrichment broth is:
A)a broth that has growth enhancers to allow fastidious organisms to flourish.
B)used as a supplement to agar plates to detect small numbers of most aerobes, anaerobes, and microaerophiles.
C)a liquid medium designed to encourage the growth of small numbers of a particular organism while suppressing other flora.
D)a broth that allows the grouping of microbes based on different characteristics demonstrated in the medium.
Q3) What work practice have microbiologists incorporated to keep laboratory testing cost-effective while providing optimum patient care?
A)Using definitive identification for the standard of quality patient care
B)Always identifying organisms to the maximum extent
C)Limited identification procedures
D)Limited antimicrobial susceptibility procedures
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Microscopic Examination of Materials From Infected Sites
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Q1) What is the most common causative agent of urethritis?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C)Clostridium perfringens
D)Haemophilus influenzae
Q2) Some pathogens will not grow in culture and are usually unsuspected.This pathogen can be seen in the sputum and bronchoalveolar fluid of patients with a hyperinfestation syndrome.The name of this pathogen is:
A)Strongyloides stercoralis.
B)Giardia lamblia.
C)Staphylococcus aureus.
D)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
Q3) The direct microscopic examination of infected materials, along with specimen site and historical information, may suggest modifications in routine culture techniques to allow the isolation of a suspected pathogen.Common modifications include all of the following except:
A)ordering other culture tests.
B)adding special media.
C)changing incubation temperature or atmosphere.
Page 9
D)changing the amount of humidity in the incubator.
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Chapter 8: Use of Colony Morphology for the Presumptive
Identification of Microorganisms
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Q1) Generally, microbiologists observe the colonial morphology of organisms on primary culture after how many hours of incubation?
A)18 to 24 hours
B)6 to 12 hours
C)24 to 48 hours
D)72 hours
Q2) A microbiologist is reading plates from a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) culture.She notices that there is growth on chocolate agar (CHOC), but no growth on sheep blood agar (SBA) or MacConkey (MAC) agar.The Gram stain showed a gram-negative bacillus.What organism should be suspected?
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Escherichia coli
Q3) The edge of the colonies is described as all the following except:
A)smooth.
B)glasslike.
C)filamentous.
D)irregular.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria
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Q1) A technician is reading the biochemical tests for identifying a particular gram-negative rod.The organism has produced acid, indicated by a color change, in the closed tube only.This indicates that the organism is:
A)an oxidizer.
B)a fermenter.
C)both an oxidizer and a fermenter.
D)a reducer.
Q2) What amino acid is the substrate in indole test broth?
A)Ornithine
B)Arginine
C)Tryptophan
D)Leucine
Q3) The Vitek AutoMicrobic System is manufactured by:
A)Abbott.
B)bioMérieux.
C)Dade Behring.
D)Becton Dickinson.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Immunodiagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) What patients are highly susceptible to cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections?
A)Immunosuppressed
B)Immunocompetent
C)Males
D)Females
Q2) How can one determine if a person has had a previous illness with an organism?
A)Perform acute and convalescent IgM levels.
B)Perform acute and convalescent IgG levels.
C)Perform an IgM level 1 week after the symptoms start.
D)Perform an IgG level 1 week after the symptoms start.
Q3) John goes to his physician complaining of a high fever (38.2° C [102° F]), muscle aches, cough, and a headache.These symptoms came on suddenly, and his physician thinks John may have the flu.What kind of antibody is his body producing against the virus?
A)IgG
B)IgM
C)IgE
D)IgD
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Chapter 11: Applications of Molecular Diagnostics
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Q1) What is the fluorescence resonance energy transfer (FRET) methodology?
A)The transfer of energy is made from a donor dye molecule to an acceptor dye molecule.
B)A fluorescent probe is mixed with labeled primers and a sandwich occurs where the fluorescent molecule is activated to fluorescent.
C)A light shines on the fluorescent probe label and it fluoresces.
D)A chromogenic substrate is mixed into solution, and when it combines with the Taq DNA polymerase, a fluorophore is formed and it fluoresces.
Q2) The most sensitive technique available for detecting and quantifying messenger RNA is:
A)multiplex polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
B)standard PCR.
C)nested PCR.
D)reverse-transcription PCR.
Q3) NASBA stands for:
A)nucleic acid sequence-based assay.
B)nucleic acid short-base amplification.
C)nucleic acid sequence-based amplification.
D)nucleotide amplification subsequent-base assay.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Agent Mechanisms of Action and Resistance
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Q1) Biofilms are groups of bacteria that are irreversibly attached to surfaces and are embedded in a matrix of extracellular polymeric substances.They are commonly found on:
A)native heart valves.
B)dialysis shunts.
C)indwelling medical devices.
D)patient beds.
Q2) Penicillins, cephalosporins, monobactams, and carbapenems all have what ring in their structure that is responsible for inhibiting the transpeptidation reaction, resulting in bacterial lysis and cell death?
A)Benzene
B)b-Lactam
C)a-Lactam
D)D-Cephems
Q3) Antibiotics that demonstrate a narrow spectrum of activity kill:
A)a wide variety of bacteria.
B)only a few specific types of bacteria.
C)bacteria by using only one specific mechanism.
D)bacteria by using a narrow spectrum of mechanisms.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) Oxacillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is called _____-resistant S.aureus.
A)methicillin
B)oxacillin
C)penicillin
D)penicillinase
Q2) Agar dilution and disk diffusion tests for Streptococcus pneumoniae and Streptococcus spp.use:
A)Mueller-Hinton agar supplemented with X and V factors.
B)Columbia base supplemented with 5% sheep blood.
C)trypticase soy agar base supplemented with 5% lysed horse blood.
D)Mueller-Hinton agar supplemented with 5% sheep blood.
Q3) What principle does the MicroScan Walkaway SI use to determine antimicrobial susceptibility?
A)Redox indicator system
B)Turbidimetry
C)Hydrolysis of a bioluminescent substrate
D)Carbon dioxide concentration
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Chapter 14: Staphylococci
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Q1) Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning is most commonly caused by which two enterotoxins?
A)A and D
B)A and B
C)B and C
D)B and D
Q2) How do staphylococci spread so easily when infecting the skin?
A)They produce hyaluronidase, which hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid present in the intracellular ground substance that makes up connective tissue.
B)They produce lipase, which melts the fat under the skin, making it easier to spread.
C)The hemolysins kill the white and red blood cells; then the protease liquefies the skin protein, allowing easy penetration for the bacteria.
D)All of the above.
Q3) The primary reservoir for staphylococci is:
A)ears.
B)mouth.
C)nares.
D)throat.
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Chapter 15: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Other
Catalase-Negative, Gram-Positive Cocci
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Q1) Skin or pyoderma infections with group A streptococci result in all the following syndromes except:
A)impetigo.
B)bullous impetigo.
C)cellulitis.
D)erysipelas.
Q2) What is the name of the test presumptively used to identify group B streptococci?
A)CAMP
B)Lancefield
C)Bacitracin
D)Optochin
Q3) What is the inexpensive test used to presumptively identify Streptococcus pyogenes?
A)Optochin
B)Bacitracin
C)Nitrate
D)Citrate
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli
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Sample Questions
Q1) What media does Corynebacterium diphtheriae grow on?
A)Sheep blood agar (SBA)
B)Loeffler
C)Cystine-tellurite blood
D)All of the above
Q2) How is anthrax spread in animals?
A)Respiratory-droplet where the bacteria is directly transferred
B)Intimate contact where the bacteria is directly transferred
C)Drinking contaminated water where the bacteria is directly transferred
D)Eating plants contaminated with the spores
Q3) What is the name of the Bacillus sp.that causes anthrax in cattle?
A)B.anthracis
B)B.cereus
C)B.asteroids
D)B.subtilis
Q4) What other gram-positive rod is similar to Bacillus anthracis?
A)B.subtilis
B)B.cereus
C)L.monocytogenes
D)E.rhusiopathiae
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Chapter 17: Neisseria Species and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the specimen of choice in males for genital infections?
A)Urine
B)Throat culture
C)Purulent discharge
D)Stool
Q2) What Neisseria spp.can be found as part of the transient flora of the upper respiratory tract?
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B)Moraxella catarrhalis
C)N.sicca
D)N.meningitidis
Q3) A microbiologist is reading CTA sugars from a vaginal culture that grew an oxidase-positive, gram-negative cocci.Only the glucose tube is yellow.What is the organism?
A)Neisseria meningitidis
B)N.sicca
C)N.gonorrhoeae
D)N.lactamica
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19
Chapter 18: Haemophilus and Other Fastidious
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Q1) A microbiologist is reading a sputum culture and notices that there is no growth on the sheep blood and MacConkey agars, but there is growth on the chocolate plate.The colonies on the plate are translucent, moist, smooth, and convex, with a mousy odor.What is the most likely identification of the organism?
A)Haemophilus parainfluenzae
B)H.influenzae
C)H.aegyptius
D)H.ducreyi
Q2) Which species are associated with infections in humans?
A)Haemophilus influenzae
B)H.aegyptius
C)H.ducreyi
D)All of the above
Q3) What organism causes Brazilian purpuric fever (BPF)?
A)Haemophilus parainfluenzae
B)H.aphrophilus
C)H.aegyptius
D)H.influenzae biogroup aegyptius
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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) What are the primary antigens used in serologic grouping of salmonellae?
A)Somatic A antigen and flagellar O antigens
B)Capsular A antigen and somatic O antigen
C)Flagellar H antigen and capsular A antigen
D)Flagellar H antigen and somatic O antigen
Q2) All of the following are categories of diarrhea-causing Escherichia coli except:
A)ETEC.
B)EMEC.
C)EIEC.
D)EPEC.
Q3) This genus currently has only one species associated with it that has been implicated in urinary tract infections.What is the name of this organism?
A)Klebsiella pneumoniae
B)Escherichia coli
C)Hafnium alvei
D)Morganella morganii
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Chapter 20: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Plesiomonas, and
Campylobacter Species
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Q1) What is the name of the organism that causes the disease cholera?
A)Vibrio furnissii
B)V.cholerae
C)V.vulnificus
D)V.parahaemolyticus
Q2) What is the drug of choice for treating intestinal campylobacteriosis?
A)Erythromycin
B)Gentamicin
C)Vancomycin
D)Imipenem
Q3) Aeromonads are generally susceptible to all these antibiotics except:
A)trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
B)ampicillin.
C)aminoglycosides.
D)quinolones.
Q4) What organism may play a role in Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)?
A)Helicobacter
B)Aeromonas
C)Campylobacter
D)Plesiomonas
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Chapter 21: Nonfermenting and Miscellaneous
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Q1) Members of the Alcaligenes are usually susceptible to all the following antibiotics except:
A)aminoglycosides.
B)ceftazidime.
C)sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (SXT).
D)piperacillin.
Q2) What organisms, which are gram-negative coccobacilli, can appear as gram-positive cocci in smears made from blood culture bottles?
A)Pseudomonas putida
B)Acinetobacter spp.
C)Haemophilus
D)Alcaligenes spp.
Q3) What is the causative agent of glanders?
A)Burkholderia cepacia
B)B.gladioli
C)B.mallei
D)Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Anaerobes of Clinical Importance
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Q1) What is the ideal anaerobic incubation system?
A)Anaerobic chamber
B)Anaerobic jars
C)Anaerobic bags
D)Candle jars
Q2) All of the following reasons are cited for performing antimicrobial susceptibility testing on anaerobes by the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) except to:
A)determine the resistance mechanisms in anaerobes.
B)assist in the management of patients with serious illnesses.
C)monitor local and regional resistance patterns.
D)determine susceptibility of anaerobes to new antimicrobials.
Q3) What disease does Clostridium perfringens cause?
A)Botulism
B)Tetanus
C)Food poisoning
D)Toxic shock syndrome
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Chapter 23: The Spirochetes
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Q1) Factors that may play a role in pathogenicity of Leptospira include all the following except:
A)hemolysin.
B)endotoxins.
C)pancytopenia in host.
D)decreased phagocytosis in host.
Q2) How is congenital syphilis transmitted from the mother to her unborn child?
A)During birth from the birth canal
B)During the microhemorrhages that occur as the placenta breaks away from the uterus
C)Crossing the placenta
D)None of the above
Q3) All of the following are symptoms of tertiary syphilis except:
A)gummas in the skin, bones, and liver.
B)encephalitis.
C)aortitis.
D)aortic valve insufficiency.
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Chapter 24: Chlamydia, Rickettsia and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Guidelines for testing and reporting the results of Chlamydia trachomatis testing on patients include all the following except:
A)testing specifically using profiles.
B)reporting which tests were and were not performed.
C)reporting unusual observations.
D)performing a routine culture in addition to all the tests for Chlamydia.
Q2) A young man goes to his physician complaining of a discharge from his penis.The physician collects a slide for Gram stain and a swab for culture and sends them to the laboratory.The Gram stain is prepared and read: greater than 25 wbc/hpf, no bacteria seen.The culture results after 48 hours show no growth.What is the most probable diagnosis and the organism responsible?
A)Urethritis, Streptococcus pneumonia
B)Epididymitis, Moraxella
C)Nongonococcal urethritis, Neisseria meningitidis
D)Nongonococcal urethritis, Chlamydia trachomatis
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Chapter 25: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) What disease causes the condition primary atypical pneumonia?
A)Mycoplasma hominis
B)M.urealyticum
C)M.fermentans
D)M.pneumoniae
Q2) All the following antibiotics are used to treat mycoplasma infections except:
A)macrolides.
B)fluoroquinolones.
C)tetracyclines.
D)penicillin.
Q3) Which factor is added to media to provide cholesterol for mycoplasma-like organisms?
A)Trypticase soy digest
B)20% fetal calf serum
C)X and V factor supplement
D)5% sheep blood
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Chapter 26: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis and Nontuberculous Mycobacteria
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Q1) What are nonchromogens?
A)Species that produce carotene pigment upon exposure to light
B)Species that produce pigment in the light or the dark
C)Species whose colonies remain buff colored after exposure to light
D)Species whose colonies fluoresce under ultraviolet light
Q2) All of the following are traditional characteristics used to identify mycobacteria except:
A)rate of growth.
B)colony morphology.
C)gram stain results.
D)pigmentation.
Q3) What is the antigen used in the purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test?
A)A purified protein from the nucleus of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B)A purified piece of DNA from M.tuberculosis
C)A purified protein from the cell wall of M.tuberculosis
D)A piece of ribosomal RNA from M.tuberculosis
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Chapter 27: Medically Significant Fungi
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Q1) A patient with very pale patches on his arms and legs is examined at his physician's office.His physician orders a fungal culture.The fungus shows a spaghetti-and-meatball appearance on the direct smear.What organism is it?
A)Microsporum canis
B)Malassezia furfur
C)Trichophyton rubrum
D)Epidermophyton floccosum
Q2) All of the following organisms cause cutaneous mycoses except:
A)Sporothrix schenckii.
B)Trichophyton beigelii.
C)Microsporum canis.
D)Epidermophyton floccosum.
Q3) What is the causative agent of tinea nigra?
A)Microsporum canis
B)Trichosporon beigelii
C)Piedraia hortae
D)Hortaea werneckii
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Chapter 28: Diagnostic Parasitology
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Q1) When a request is submitted to examine a blood sample for malaria, which of the following procedures should be performed?
A)A thick smear for maximum detection and to determine morphology
B)A PVA trichrome-stained blood smear
C)A Giemsa thick blood smear preparation for maximum detection and a thin smear for speciation
D)A formalin-ethyl acetate concentration for detection and a thin smear for speciation
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Chapter 29: Clinical Virology
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Q1) Which cancer is associated with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)?
A)Hepatocellular carcinoma
B)Burkitt's lymphoma
C)Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
D)T-cell leukemia
Q2) What is the most common flavivirus infection in the United States?
A)West Nile virus
B)Eastern equine encephalitis virus
C)St.Louis encephalitis
D)Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Q3) What is another name for HHV-5?
A)Varicella-zoster
B)Cytomegalovirus
C)Herpes simplex
D)Epstein-Barr
Q4) What type of genome do herpesviruses have?
A)ssDNA
B)ssRNA
C)dsDNA
D)Both dsDNA and ssRNA
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Agents of Bioterror and Forensic Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is smallpox diagnosed?
A)Through a Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) algorithm
B)By clinical signs
C)Through cell culture
D)All of the above
Q2) What is the specimen of choice for cutaneous anthrax?
A)Blood
B)Spinal fluid
C)Vesicular fluid from lesions
D)Sputum
Q3) What organism causes Q fever?
A)Coxiella burnetii
B)Brucella abortus
C)Yersinia pestis
D)Burkholderia cepacia
Q4) How can biological weapons enter the host?
A)Through the respiratory tract
B)Through the gastrointestinal (GI) tract
C)Through the mucous membranes
D)All of the above
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Chapter 31: Biofilms: Architects of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What process allows the bacteria of the biofilm to spread to other body sites?
A)Conjugation
B)Metastasis
C)Disaggregation
D)Planktonization
Q2) Cobiofilms of what two organisms are associated with serious lung infections in cystic fibrosis patients?
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Moraxella
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Burkholderia cepacia
C)Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D)Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q3) What is stage III of biofilm development?
A)Irreversible binding phase
B)Layering phase
C)Attachment phase
D)Multiplication phase
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Chapter 32: Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clinical picture of this condition includes an incubation period of 2 to 10 days, fever, with or without cough, and dyspnea.The condition may resolve or progress to a more severe form.What is this condition?
A)Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
B)Streptococcal pneumonia
C)Viral pneumonia
D)Viral bronchitis
Q2) Elements of the respiratory tract that can help prevent infection include which of the following?
A)Nasal hair
B)Normal flora
C)Coughing
D)All of the above
Q3) What usually causes community-acquired pneumonias in children during the winter months?
A)Haemophilus influenzae
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)Viral pathogens
D)Legionella spp.
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Chapter 33: Skin and Soft Tissue Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most infamous type of myonecrosis?
A)Tetanus
B)Flesh-eating Streptococcus
C)Gas gangrene
D)Ebola hemorrhage
Q2) What is swimmer's itch?
A)When cercariae larvae penetrate human skin, causing dermatitis
B)When arthropods deposit larvae in human skin, causing dermatitis
C)When food or water causes dermatitis
D)When Pseudomonas spp.causes dermatitis
Q3) What is erysipelas?
A)Inflammation of hair follicle
B)A deep form of cellulitis
C)A synonym for furuncle
D)A synonym for carbuncle
Q4) What is thrush?
A)Tinea unguium
B)Tinea corporis
C)Dermatophytosis
D)Oral candidiasis
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Chapter 34: Gastrointestinal Infections and Food Poisoning
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Sample Questions
Q1) What organism that causes gastroenteritis can be found in aquaculture-farmed fish?
A)Salmonella
B)Campylobacter
C)Vibrio
D)Shigella
Q2) What organism grows best at 42° C and in a reduced oxygen atmosphere (5% to 10%)?
A)Shigella sonnei
B)Clostridium difficile
C)Campylobacter jejuni
D)Escherichia coli
Q3) Disease caused by which of the following organisms has fever, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and stools with gross blood and pus?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Clostridium difficile
C)Campylobacter jejuni
D)Bacillus cereus
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Chapter 35: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are common fungal causes of central nervous system (CNS) infection except:
A)Cryptococcus neoformans.
B)Coccidioides immitis.
C)Candida albicans.
D)Histoplasma capsulatum.
Q2) What organism is the most common cause of meningitis in adults?
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Neisseria meningitidis
Q3) What type of meningitis is usually uncomplicated and resolves in 2 to 7 days?
A)Septic meningitis
B)Enteroviral
C)Bacterial
D)Meningococcal
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Chapter 36: Bacteremia and Sepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient's immune system attempts to control infection via which of the following mechanisms?
A)Antibodies
B)Complement activation
C)Phagocytosis
D)All of the above
Q2) Bacteremia with which organism often leads to endocarditis, osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, hepatic abscess, or pyomyositis?
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Escherichia coli
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a secondary bacteremia source?
A)An infected cardiac valve
B)The lung
C)An infected intravenous catheter
D)The bone marrow
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Chapter 37: Urinary Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the definitive method for collecting uncontaminated urine specimens?
A)Catheterized specimen
B)Suprapubic aspirate
C)First morning specimen
D)Voided midstream specimen
Q2) What is the most commonly used method to collect urine samples?
A)Catheterized specimen
B)Suprapubic aspirate
C)First morning specimen
D)Voided midstream specimen
Q3) What part of the urinary tract is most susceptible to infection?
A)Urethral mucosa
B)Bladder
C)Ureters
D)Nephrons
Q4) In what patient population is a colony count on a urine culture significant?
A)Young, sexually active women with cystitis
B)Elderly men with prostatitis
C)Asymptomatic individuals with pyelonephritis
D)Elderly women with candiduria
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Chapter 38: Genital Infections and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an advantage to using PACE 2C method for detection of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
A)There is no advantage.
B)You can also find syphilis.
C)You can also find Cryptosporidium.
D)You can also find Chlamydia.
Q2) What is the main symptom for primary syphilis?
A)Purulent discharge
B)Asymptomatic
C)Chancre
D)Genital warts
Q3) What cells are found in bacterial vaginosis?
A)Clue cells
B)Lymphocytes
C)Macrophages
D)Squamous epithelial cells
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Chapter 39: Infections in Special Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with hematologic malignancies and those who have undergone surgery for tumors involving the head and spine may be at risk for developing:
A)meningitis.
B)septicemia.
C)pneumonia.
D)osteomyelitis.
Q2) When a child with cancer contracts cytomegalovirus (CMV), how does it manifest?
A)Renal failure
B)Pneumonia
C)Septicemia
D)Meningitis
Q3) Organisms that are commonly associated with ventilator-associated pneumonia include:
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B)Streptococcus pyogenes.
C)Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D)Clostridium difficile.
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Chapter 40: Zoonotic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients that develop Weil's syndrome have all the following symptoms except:
A)hemolysis.
B)jaundice.
C)congestive heart failure.
D)renal failure.
Q2) What disease is known as the woolsorter's disease?
A)Glanders
B)Venezuelan equine encephalitis
C)West Nile disease
D)Anthrax
Q3) Rickettsial organisms, which cause disease in humans, are transmitted by which of the following methods?
A)Arthropod vectors
B)Aerosols
C)Fomite contact
D)Contact with body fluids
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Chapter 41: Ocular Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who makes her own saline solution for her contact lenses is examined at her physician's office because she has a blood red, infected right eye.The physician performs bacterial, fungal, and viral cultures, all of which are negative.What is the most probable cause of this infection?
A)Acanthamoeba spp.
B)Entamoeba spp.
C)Trypanosoma spp.
D)Leishmania spp.
Q2) What is the most common infection of the lacrimal gland?
A)Blepharitis
B)Dacryocystitis
C)Canaliculitis
D)Conjunctivitis
Q3) Nosocomial transfer of which virus may occur during optometry examinations through contaminated tonometer tips?
A)Adenovirus
B)Caliciviruses
C)Herpesviruses
D)Enteroviruses
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