Clinical Microbiology
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Clinical Microbiology explores the role of microorganisms in human disease, emphasizing the identification, classification, and characteristics of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites relevant to clinical settings. The course covers diagnostic techniques, antimicrobial susceptibility testing, infection control measures, and the principles of pathogenesis, epidemiology, and host pathogen interactions. Through laboratory exercises and case studies, students gain practical experience in specimen collection, microbial culture, direct detection methods, and interpretation of laboratory results crucial for guiding patient management and public health response.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Systems Approach 4th Edition by Marjorie Kelly
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Disease-causing microorganisms are called A)decomposers.
B)prokaryotes.
C)pathogens.
D)eukaryotes.
E)fermenters.
Answer: C
Q2) In the experiments constructed by Pasteur to disprove spontaneous generation,swan-necked flasks were used.Why was this shape of flask used in this experiment?
A)The glass necks needed to be open to the air,yet constructed so that bacteria would settle in the lowest part of the neck.
B)These flask shapes were the easiest and cheapest to produce.
C)The shape of the glass neck allowed the bacteria into the flask and then into the media,but air could not enter.
D)Because the glass necks were stretched out,the heat used to sterilize the medium inside of the flask could not kill the bacteria in the neck.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lipid group that is the major component of cell membranes is the A)prostaglandins.
B)waxes.
C)phospholipids.
D)steroids.
E)triglycerides.
Answer: C
Q2) Ionic bonds
A)result from sharing electrons.
B)result from transferring electrons.
C)result from like charge attraction.
D)are the weakest chemical bonds.
E)always involve carbon.
Answer: B
Q3) The purine ___ always binds with the pyrimidine ___ within both DNA and RNA.
A)guanine;cytosine
B)cytosine;guanine
C)adenine;guanine
D)thymine;guanine
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing of Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Robert Koch and his lab workers first used agar in bacteriological media.Why did they find this media so much better than previous materials used to grow bacteria?
A)Bacteria,growing on the solidified media,did not degrade or break down the medium.
B)Agar could convert from liquid to solid form,and back again,very easily.
C)The food material that Koch was previously using in the lab was much more expensive than agar.
D)Agar is a great source of nutrients for bacteria.
Answer: A
Q2) Basic dyes are
A)attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells.
B)anionic.
C)used in negative staining.
D)repelled by cells.
E)dyes such as India ink and nigrosin.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Prokaryotic Profiles: The Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) A chain of rod-shaped cells would be called a A)streptobacillus.
B)Staphylobacillus.
C)streptococcus.
D)staphylococcus.
E)palisade.
Q2) Halobacterium salinarium lives in and requires salt to grow.This is an example of an archaebacterium described as a/n A)osmophile.
B)halophile.
C)thermophile.
D)psychrophile.
E)barophile.
Q3) Bacterial cells could have any of the following appendages except A)flagella.
B)cilia.
C)fimbriae.
D)periplasmic flagella (axial filaments).
E)pili.
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Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) All fungi cause some kind of disease in plants and animals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There are nine peripheral pairs and one central pair of _____ found inside eukaryotic flagella and cilia.
A)filaments
B)microtubules
C)active proteins
D)cilia
E)endoflagella.
Q3) There are no algae that can cause human disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cell walls are not typically possessed by:
A)protozoa.
B)algae.
C)fungi.
D)bacteria.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: An Introduction to the Viruses
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Q1) Who developed a rabies vaccine after realizing the disease was caused by something smaller than a bacterium?
A)Leewonhoek
B)Koch
C)Pasteur
D)Cohn
E)Ivanovski
Q2) Diagnosis of viral infections sometimes involves analyzing the patient's blood for specific _____ that the immune system produces against the virus.
A)glycoproteins
B)antibodies
C)complement proteins
D)antigens
Q3) Spikes are glycoproteins that can be found projecting from the viral capsid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Viruses are unable to multiply outside of a host cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calcium is required for bacteria because it
A)stabilizes the cell wall.
B)stabilizes the ribosomes.
C)stabilizes the nucleoid.
D)maintains cellular pH.
E)makes strong cell walls.
Q2) In _____ conditions,the cell wall will help prevent the cell from bursting.
A)hypertonic
B)hypotonic
C)isotonic
D)mesotonic
Q3) The production of antibiotics is a form of antagonism called A)symbiosis. B)satellitism.
C)antibiosis.
D)mutualism.
E)synergism.
Q4) After binary fission,daughter cells will differ genetically.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following are true of enzymes except
A)they can be used over and over.
B)they may or may not require cofactors.
C)their active site is specific to the substrate.
D)they increase the activation energy of a reaction.
E)their action may involve minerals.
Q2) Which of the following characterize the Calvin cycle?
A)a process that requires light
B)nitrogen is fixed into an organic form
C)produces glucose as an end product
D)produces carbon dioxide and water
E)produces oxygen
Q3) Enzymes that catalyze the removal of electrons from one substrate and the addition of electrons to another are called
A)transferases.
B)oxidoreductases.
C)lyases.
D)isomerases.
E)ligases.
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following additions have been made to principles of the central dogma of biology?
A)DNA information cannot be converted into RNA information.
B)Protein information can be converted into DNA information.
C)RNA can be used to regulate gene function.
D)DNA codes for proteins.
Q2) Full induction of the lactose operon requires
A)lactose present.
B)lactose and glucose present.
C)lactose present without glucose.
D)lactose and arabinose present.
Q3) Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination?
A)transformation
B)conjugation
C)mitosis
D)transduction
Q4) In bacteria,initiator tRNA carries formyl methionine.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering and Recombinant Dna
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Q1) The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are termed
A)genetic engineering.
B)biotechnology.
C)recombinant DNA.
D)gel electrophoresis.
E)gene probes.
Q2) The size of DNA is often given in the number of _____ that it contains.
A)genes
B)codons
C)base pairs
D)proteins
E)triplets
Q3) Identification of unique DNA fingerprints relies on the presence of single nucleotide polymorphisms among samples.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Viruses are often used as cloning hosts in recombinant DNA methods.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Q1) Your aim is to sterilize prosthetic devices like heart valves and artificial joint structures before being used in the patient.Considering where they will be placed and the probable composition of the devices,what would be the best chemical to use?
A)iodine
B)crystal violet dye
C)quaternary ammonium compounds
D)bleach
Q2) The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms,including bacterial endospores,on inanimate objects is A)disinfection.
B)sterilization.
C)antisepsis.
D)sanitization.
E)degermation.
Q3) Alcohols are more effective at inactivating enveloped viruses than naked viruses.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, host-The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an aminoglycoside?
A)streptomycin
B)gentamicin
C)tetracycline
D)amikacin
E)tobramycin
Q2) The use of a drug to prevent imminent infection is called
A)competitive inhibition.
B)synergism.
C)prebiotics.
D)prophylaxis.
E)lantibiotics.
Q3) Drugs that insert on the _____ ribosomal subunit prevent peptide bond formation or inhibit translocation of the subunit during translation.
A)30S
B)40S
C)50S
D)60S
E)70S
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infection spread between animals and humans is a:
A)secondary infection.
B)sequela.
C)healthcare-associated infection.
D)zoonosis.
Q2) Based upon new information from the Human Microbiome Project,the human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal biota
A)before birth,in utero.
B)during and immediately after birth.
C)when a child first goes to school.
D)when an infant gets its first infectious disease.
E)during puberty.
Q3) Once a microbe has entered a host,what process performed by certain white blood cells will attempt to destroy the microbes?
A)phagocytosis
B)adhesion
C)encapsulation
D)margination
E)exocytosis
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is
A)lactic acid.
B)hydrochloric acid.
C)lysozyme.
D)histamine.
E)bile.
Q2) Keratin is an important aspect of nonspecific defense because it
A)is toxic to pathogens.
B)creates a physical barrier against pathogens.
C)destroys pathogens.
D)physically restricts pathogens to a specific region.
Q3) Which of the following is incorrect about blood cells?
A)after birth,produced in red bone marrow sites
B)develop from undifferentiated stem cells
C)include glial cells
D)include leukocytes that are either granulocytes or agranulocytes
E)include erythrocytes that,when mature,lose their nuclei
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most significant cells in graft rejection are
A)helper T cells.
B)suppressor T cells.
C)cytotoxic T cells.
D)delayed hypersensitivity T cells.
E)natural killer (NK)cells.
Q3) Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?
A)neutralization
B)opsonization
C)complement fixation
D)agglutination
E)anamnestic response
Q4) The secondary response to an antigen is more rapid and robust than the primary response.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Allergic reactions to penicillins are considered a/n _____ hypersensitivity.
A)T-cell-mediated
B)antibody-mediated
C)immune complex-mediated
D)immediate
E)Both T-cell-mediated and antibody-mediated are correct.
Q2) The allergen in poison ivy plants is an oil called urushiol.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Degranulation of mast cells leads to
A)airway obstruction.
B)headache.
C)dilated blood vessels.
D)constricted bronchioles.
Q4) Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators?
A)degranulation
B)bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
C)binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
D)histamine acts on smooth muscle
E)prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) What type of test affixes an antigen to an inert particle such as a latex bead?
A)cross-reactions
B)agglutination
C)precipitation
D)specificity
E)sensitivity
Q2) The polymerase chain reaction can be used for identification of:
A)antibodies in the patient's serum.
B)microorganisms.
C)proteins.
D)growth characteristics of microorganisms.
Q3) The direct ELISA test is used to diagnose all of the following except A)hantavirus.
B)rubella virus.
C)past exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D)Toxoplasma.
Q4) Nucleic acid testing is appropriate as a testing method when one is not sure what microorganisms are present in the specimen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chickenpox
A)is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions.
B)is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material.
C)has an incubation of 10 to 20 days.
D)has fever and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) River blindness is
A)caused by Wuchereria bancrofti.
B)a disease in which worms can invade the eyes.
C)caused by a blood fluke.
D)transmitted by mosquito vector.
Q3) Smallpox is a disease in which
A)fever,prostration,rash,and possible toxemia and shock occur.
B)virus becomes latent in ganglia of sensory neurons.
C)recurrent episodes are called shingles.
D)can only be transmitted by direct skin contact with skin crusts.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Occassionally,Staphylococcus epidermidis may be isolated from the eye.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Q1) In both botulism and tetanus,respiratory muscles cannot facilitate breathing and,if untreated,respiratory collapse leads to death.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What organism is the main reservoir and host for Toxoplasma gondii?
A)cat
B)dog
C)mouse
D)mosquito
E)raccoon
Q3) The concept of "immunologically privileged" explains why the CNS has
A)a greater immune response than the rest of the body.
B)a reduced immune response compared to the rest of the body.
C)a completely different set of immune responses.
D)more MHC markers than other tissues.
Q4) Pneumovax is a vaccine for prevention of disease caused by strains of Neisseria meningitidis.
A)True
B)False
21
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Malaria may be prevented by
A)using bed nets sprayed with insecticide.
B)eliminating standing water.
C)taking prophylactic drugs.
D)using interfering RNA in mosquitoes.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Cytomegalovirus
A)causes the most prevalent fetal infection.
B)is transmitted by saliva,mucus,milk,urine,semen,cervical secretions,and feces.
C)can be sexually transmitted.
D)is commonly carried in the latent state.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48- to 72-hour episodes in a malaria patient are
A)bloody,mucus-filled stools,fever,diarrhea,and weight loss.
B)fever,swollen lymph nodes,and joint pain.
C)urinary frequency and pain,and vaginal discharge.
D)chills,fever,and sweating.
E)sore throat,low grade fever,and swollen lymph nodes.
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a virulence factor of Bordetella pertussis?
A)endotoxin
B)tracheal cytotoxin
C)M protein
D)pertussis toxin
E)filamentous hemagglutinin
Q2) Your patient has pneumonia.Since there are so many microorganisms causing pneumonia,what might be the best test to do first for identification of the agent?
A)an antibody test
B)a culture from a lung aspirate
C)a skin test
D)a Gram stain of a saliva specimen
Q3) The most common type of virus leading to rhinitis is
A)coronavirus.
B)adenovirus.
C)rhinovirus.
D)herpes simplex virus.
E)retrovirus.
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Chapter 22: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Q1) "Rice-water stools" are associated with disease caused by which organism?
A)Vibrio vulnificus
B)Vibrio parahaemolyticus
C)Vibrio cholerae
D)Campylobacter jejuni
E)Helicobacter pylori
Q2) Salmonelloses are
A)not caused by Salmonella typhi.
B)associated with undercooked poultry and eggs,and reptile and rodent feces.
C)gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea.
D)treated with fluid and electrolyte replacement.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Despite acidic conditions,some microorganisms have been found residing within the human stomach.
A)True
B)False
Q4) E.coli O157:H7 secretes shiga exotoxin.
A)True
B)False
24
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Chapter 23: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Group B Streptococcus infections can cause serious infections in infants through vertical transmission.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The chancre of syphilis
A)occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries.
B)is very painful.
C)occurs during the tertiary stage.
D)develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of prostatitis?
A)caused by GI tract biota
B)can be chronic or acute
C)The specific agent is easy to determine.
D)Patients may be very ill with the acute form.
E)accompanied by pain and frequent,difficult urination
Q4) All of the following are true for HSV-2 (genital herpes)except
A)becomes latent in sacral ganglion.
B)virus is only shed from active lesions.
C)is reactivated by bacterial infections.
D)can infect oral mucosa.
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Chapter 24: Microbes and the Environment
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Q1) The terrestrial realm of the biosphere is distributed into particular climatic regions called
A)niches.
B)habitats.
C)populations.
D)communities.
E)biomes.
Q2) The correct sequence of events involved in nitrogen cycling is:
A)denitrification,nitrogen fixation,nitrification
B)nitrogen fixation,nitrification,denitrification
C)denitrification,nitrification,denitrification
D)nitrification,denitirification,nitrogen fixation
Q3) The thermocline is broken down by temperature changes that allow upwelling to occur.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Living or dead organisms that occupy an organism's habitat are called biotic factors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Applied Microbiology and Food and Water Safety
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Q1) Which of the following is a/are microorganism/s that can be used as food?
A)Spirulina
B)Methylophilus methylotrophus
C)algae
D)Fusarium graminearum
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Preservation of food to limit microbial survival and growth includes
A)high temperature and pressure.
B)pasteurization.
C)refrigeration and freezing.
D)irradiation.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following activities uses microbial biotransformation?
A)production of human hormones
B)alcohol production
C)production of fermented milk products
D)production of antibiotics
Q4) Dehydration is an excellent microbicidal method.
A)True
B)False
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