Clinical Microbiology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Clinical Microbiology explores the relationship between microorganisms and human disease, focusing on the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of infectious diseases. The course covers essential concepts such as microbial physiology, pathogenic mechanisms, host responses, and laboratory techniques used to identify bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Students learn about specimen collection, antimicrobial susceptibility testing, and infection control practices, gaining skills necessary for interpreting laboratory results and supporting clinical decision-making. Real-world case studies highlight the clinical relevance of microbiological findings, emphasizing their critical role in patient care and public health.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Anthony Strelkauskas
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26 Chapters
1101 Verified Questions
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17 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Temperature,pain,redness,and swelling are the hallmarks of A)Inflammation
B)Virulence
C)Nosocomial infections
D)Immunological memory
E)None of the above
Answer: A
Q2) Microorganisms that normally colonize skin and mucous membranes can be A)Commensal
B)Nonpathogenic
C)Mutualistic
D)Protective against pathogens
E)All of the choices
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: Fundamental Chemistry for Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are components of a nucleotide except
A)Nitrogenous base
B)Phosphate group
C)Amino acid
D)Pentose sugar
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true?
A)Oxygen has 2 unpaired electrons in the second shell.
B)Nitrogen has 7 electrons which occupy the first and second shells.
C)Hydrogen has an atomic number of 1 and an atomic weight of 2.
D)Carbon has an atomic number of 6 and an atomic weight of 12.
E)The third shell must contain 18 electrons to be stable.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following statements is correct?
A)A base is a H? ion donor
B)Pure water is completely neutral and has a pH of 0
C)On a pH scale, gastric fluids are classified as alkaline
D)H? ion concentration is inversely related to pH
E)If the hydroxyl ions outnumber the H? ions, the pH will be less than 7.0
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Essentials of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a mitochondrion carrying out electron transport,the proton concentration gradient develops
A)Across the inner mitochondrial membrane
B)In the cytosol
C)In the nucleus
D)In the space between the outer membrane and the plasma membrane
E)Across the outer mitochondrial membrane
Answer: A
Q2) The regulation of enzymes is illustrated by the ability of the end product of a series of enzymatic reactions to inhibit the first enzyme in the pathway.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Explain why anabolism is important during the replication of bacteria during an infection.
Answer: When bacteria replicate,anabolism is required to ensure that a continuous supply of large molecules is provided for the new cells generated.Anabolism is the process of biosynthesis,and it requires energy from the cell to build large molecules from small building blocks.
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Chapter 4: An Introduction to Cell Structure and Host-Pathogen Relationships
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the difference between opportunistic and primary pathogens and the circumstances under which they cause disease.
Q2) Bacteria which are spherical are A)Bacilli
B)Coccobacilli
C)Fusiform bacilli
D)Spirillum
E)Cocci
Q3) The organelle where lysosome enzymes are packaged is
A)Plasma membrane
B)Endosome
C)Golgi apparatus
D)Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E)Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Q4) You are teaching a class the principles of the Gram stain.Discuss which controls you will use to illustrate what happens during the decolorizing step.
Q5) Describe two ways in which pathogens can escape the toxic effects of lysosomes once they have been phagocytosed.
Q6) What is the endosymbiont theory? Provide an example of this process.
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Chapter 5: Requirements for Infection
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Q1) A dose of 1000 bacteria can kill 50% of the animals and a dose of 2400 can kill 70% of the animals.What is the approximate LD<sub>50</sub>?
A)1000
B)2400
C)150
D)1700
Q2) Which of the following diseases is not likely to have been acquired through a mucous membrane-associated portal of entry?
A)Tuberculosis
B)Tetanus
C)Gonorrhea
D)Chickenpox
E)Cholera
Q3) _____ enhances fibrin blood clots,whereas _____ breaks them down.
A)hemolysin; leukocidin
B)hyaluronidase; collagenase
C)coagulase; streptokinase
D)coagulase; collagenase
E)endotoxin; exotoxin
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Transmission of Infection, the Compromised
Host, Epidemiology, and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Explain how global warming could affect the spread of infectious diseases.
Q2) Identify and describe three types of reservoir with a role in the transmission of infectious diseases to humans and provide an example of a disease for each type of reservoir.
Q3) What is achieved when widespread vaccination is administered to a population as a means of protecting unvaccinated potential hosts?
A)Immunosuppression
B)Super-vaccination
C)Multi-drug resistance
D)Quarantine
E)Herd immunity
Q4) Control groups are required when performing _____ studies.
A)Descriptive epidemiological
B)Universal precaution
C)Superinfection
D)Nosocomial
E)Analytical epidemiological
Q5) Explain the difference between descriptive and analytical epidemiological studies.
Q6) Describe and provide examples for the three types of contact transmission.
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Chapter 7: Principles of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of toxic shock?
A)Granulomas form in the lungs
B)Neutrophils are inhibited
C)Phagolysosomes cannot form properly
D)The blood pressure decreases
Q2) Which of the following is an example of mutualism?
A)M. tuberculosis in the lungs
B)S. enterica serovar Typhi surviving in the gallbladder
C)Bacteria in the colon providing vitamins K and B
D)Chlamydia species surviving in epithelial cells of the genital tract
E)Saprophytic bacteria surviving on sloughed cells of the ear
Q3) Which of the following is the definition for latent disease?
A)Pathogens use blood or lymph to access all organs
B)Symptoms reappear long after initial infection
C)Symptoms immediately follow a primary infection
D)Rapid symptom development and rapid subsequent improvement
E)Symptoms are between those of acute and chronic disease
Q4) Name and describe the three strategies used by health professionals to control communicable diseases.Characterize each of them.
Q5) List and describe the five specific periods of infection.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Emerging and Re-Emerging Infectious Disease
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Q1) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates recruitment by chemokines?
Q2) Explain which measures led to the development of resistance to amantadine and rimantadine in the H5N1 influenza virus and why this resistance is a problem.Are there any alternative drugs to combat H5N1 and,if so,could sufficient protection be provided if there was an influenza pandemic?
Q3) Which of the following is not true of the SARS coronavirus?
A)It is a single-stranded viral RNA
B)There is a vaccine available
C)It causes pneumonia
D)It initiates infection on mucosal epithelia of the respiratory tract
Q4) A new virus has been identified by DNA sequencing methods in a remote location in the South Pacific.The World Health Organization is very concerned because infection with this virus has a death rate of 20% of all infected individuals and no vaccine is available.This is an example of a(n)_____ disease.
A)Re-emerging infectious
B)Latent
C)Prion
D)Emerging infectious
E)Vector-borne
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Chapter 9: The Clinical Significance of Bacterial Anatomy
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Q1) The outer membrane is found in _____ bacteria and is composed of _____.
A)Gram-positive; lipopolysaccharide, lipoprotein, and phospholipid
B)Gram-negative; lipopolysaccharide, lipoprotein, and phospholipid
C)Gram-positive; teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid
D)Gram-negative; teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid
Q2) Answer true or false to the following statement: Mycobacterium species incorporate mycolic acid (a waxy substance)in their cell walls,which makes them resistant to antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some bacteria incorporate chemical entities into their cell walls that contribute to virulence.Provide three examples and explain why these molecules increase the virulence of these bacteria.
Q4) Explain why endospores are attractive agents for bioterrorism.Provide an example.
Q5) Answer true or false to the following statement: The outer layer of Gram-negative organisms functions as an exotoxin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Growth
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Q1) What part of the growth curve is the region where number of living cells is increasing exponentially?
Q2) Explain why growth rate is an important consideration in the context of the disease process and diagnosis.
Q3) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Growth at low pH values; acidophiles
B)Obligate halophile; requires high salt conditions for growth
C)Facultative anaerobes; require oxygen for growth
D)Selective medium; prohibits growth of some organisms
Q4) A recent hurricane has disrupted the local sewage facilities in your community.A water sample is filtered to trap suspected fecal contaminants and the filter is transferred to an eosin methylene blue (EMB)agar plate.On the following day you note growth and a bright green sheen on some of the colonies.The green colonies are most likely to be
A)Gram-negative bacteria
B)Gram-positive bacteria
C)Unable to ferment lactose
D)Viruses
Q5) What is a chemostat? Why are chemostats used by biotechnology and pharmaceutical companies?
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Chapter 11: Microbial Genetics and Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) An mRNA that encodes information for more than one protein is a(n)_____ mRNA.
A)Inducible
B)Repressible
C)Constitutive
D)Poly-cistronic
E)Transposable
Q2) A six carbon sugar is a component of
A)RNA
B)DNA
C)Both DNA and RNA
D)Neither DNA or RNA
Q3) During DNA replication,the lagging strand moves _____ the replication fork and requires the synthesis of _____ primer(s).
A)Away from; one
B)Toward; one
C)Away from; many
D)Toward; many
Q4) In the figure which letter (A-C)refers to the codon,UAA?
Q5) In the figure which letter (A-C)refers to the codon AUG?
Q6) Explain how RNA differs from DNA in structure and function.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Structure and Infection Cycle of Viruses
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Q1) A capsid is
A)A protective protein shell surrounding nucleic acid
B)The complete viral particle
C)A phospholipid bilayer that contains glycoproteins
D)A protein molecule that forms the capsid
E)The sum of the nucleic acid and the capsid
Q2) The _____ is the protein that is located between the capsid and the nucleocapsid of some enveloped viruses.
A)Glycoprotein spike
B)Icosahedron
C)Helix
D)Tegument
E)Nucleic acid-binding protein
Q3) Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that
A)Is provided by the host cell
B)Is virally encoded and must be synthesized immediately after infection by (-) single-stranded RNA viruses
C)Is carried within retroviruses and can function immediately after infection
D)Copies viral DNA into (+) RNA
Q4) How does a simple icosahedral virus differ from a complex icosahedral virus?
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Viral Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a virus that does not use host neurons for the establishment of latency is
A)Herpes simplex virus type 2
B)Varicella-zoster virus
C)Hepatitis C virus
D) Herpes simplex virus type 1
Q2) Many viruses are able to be reactivated many years after initial entrance into a host.An example of this is the varicella-zoster virus and shingles.This is an example of a(n)
A)Acute infection
B)Persistent infection
C)Latent infection
D)Slow infection
Q3) Active viremia describes
A)Replication of viruses and the initial site of entry
B)Replication of viruses in secondary organs
C)Replication of viruses in the blood
D)Replication of viruses in the next host after viral transmission
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Chapter 14: Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rearrange the following into the order of events following ingestion of Ascaris eggs.Which is the third event?
A)Invasion of intestinal epithelium
B)Pumped into the lung
C)Conversion to larval stage
D)Coughed into mouth
E)Liver invasion
Q2) All of the following are matched correctly except
A)Malaria: mosquito transmission
B)Amebiasis: fecal-oral transmission
C)Trichomoniasis: sexual transmission
D)Toxoplasmosis: feline transmission
E)Trypanosomiasis: fecal-oral transmission
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement: Hyphae form in yeast by budding. A)True
B)False
Q4) What type of host immune response is needed to eliminate trypomastigotes from the blood? Why is this often not sufficient for complete eradication of the pathogen?
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Chapter 15: The Innate Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following includes histamine?
A)Hematopoietins
B)Chemokines
C)Both hematopoietins and chemokines
D)None of the choices
Q2) Neutrophils are tightly controlled to prevent damage to host cells for all the following reasons except that they
A)Produce perforins that produce pores in plasma membranes
B)Are programmed for apoptosis
C)Produce granzymes which enter the pores and induce apoptosis in target cells
D)Can release toxic substances into extracellular fluids
Q3) Which of the following cell types produce mucus in the lower respiratory tract?
A)M cell
B)Alveolar macrophage
C)Goblet cell
D)Mast cell
E)Basophil
Q4) What is the purpose of the mucociliary escalator? Explain the mechanism by which it functions.
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Chapter 16: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) The production of effector T cells is made possible by all of the following except A)Macrophages
B)Mast cells
C)Dendritic cells
D)B cells
Q2) Which of the following is utilized by vaccination to produce long-lasting immunity?
A)Artificially acquired active immunity
B)Artificially acquired passive immunity
C)Naturally acquired active immunity
D)Naturally acquired passive immunity
Q3) Lymphocytes bearing antigen receptors that have a high degree of affinity for self-antigen undergo _____ during B cell development.
A)Clonal deletion
B)Rearrangement
C)Mutation
D)Isotype switching
E)Atrophy
Q4) Explain why dendritic cells are considered "watch dogs" for pathogens.
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Chapter 17: Failures of the Immune Response
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Q1) If an individual is diagnosed with DiGeorge syndrome,then
A)T cells fail to develop
B)Class II MHC molecules are not expressed
C)Cytokines are not produced
D)There is increased susceptibility to Neisseria spp. infections owing to defects in complement
E)They cannot form phagolysosomes
Q2) B-cell immunodeficiencies cause all of the following except
A)Failure to protect mucosal surfaces with neutralizing antibody
B)Increased susceptibility to viral infections
C)Inability to opsonize encapsulated bacteria
D)Loss of toxin neutralization function
E)Severe combined immunodeficiency
Q3) HIV uses a complex of glycoproteins on its surface,including _____,to bind to the surface of T cells,dendritic cells,and macrophages.
A)CD4 and CD8
B)Gp120 and gp41
C)CXCR4 and CCR5
D)CCL3, CCL4, and CCL5
Q4) Describe the three phases of HIV infection.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Control of Microbial Growth with Disinfectants and Antiseptics
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Q1) A solution made by combining alcohol with another antimicrobial compound is a A)Bisphenolic
B)Tincture
C)Surfactant
D)QUAT
Q2) Which of the following is used to destroy endospores in a liquid medium that will subsequently be used to culture bacteria?
A)Boiling
B)Pressurized steam
C)Filtration
D)Dry heat
E)Pasteurization
Q3) Microbial death has occurred if
A)Microbes are no longer able to form endospores
B)Reproductive capability is lost even when microbe is placed in optimal conditions
C)The microbe stops growing
D)DNA mutation rates increase
Q4) Identify and describe five factors that affect the death of microbes by antimicrobial agents.
Chapter 19: Antibiotics and Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Making semi-synthetic antibiotics in the laboratory by altering the side chains of naturally occurring antibiotics is an important approach for generating new antibiotics.Why is a search for new antibiotics needed? Provide examples of new desirable properties conferred on antibiotics through these types of chemical modification.
Q2) Augmentin combines amoxicillin with _____ to overcome enzymatic resistance to the antibiotic by the microbe.
A) -lactamase
B)Clavulanic acid
C)Transpeptidase
D)Sulbactam
E)Cilastatin
Q3) The most appealing target for antibiotics is the bacterial cell wall,because it is on the outside of the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how sulfa drugs exert their antimicrobial effects.Why is this lethal to the bacterium and how are these drugs selectively toxic?
Q5) Discuss selective toxicity as it relates to antimicrobials.
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Chapter 20: Antibiotic Resistance
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Sample Questions
Q1) By incorporating antibiotics into animal feed,farmers
A)Increase the weight gains of their livestock and can create antibiotic resistant microbes
B)Extend the period cattle spend in feedlots
C)Prevent viral diseases in their herds
D)Reduce the incidence of foot-and-mouth disease in their livestock
Q2) Which of the following is not used for susceptibility testing of antibiotics?
A)Kirby-Bauer method
B)Phenol coefficient
C)E test
D)Disk diffusion method
Q3) Which of the following is a mismatched pair in reference to antibiotic compounds composed of peptide fragments and where they are derived from?
A)Drosocin: insects
B)Nisin: Gram-positive bacteria
C)Apidaecin: insects
D)Defensins: Gram-negative bacteria
E)lantibiotics: Gram-positive bacteria
Q4) Describe the test used to determine whether an antimicrobial agent is microbicidal.
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Chapter 21: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Explain how Ghon complexes are formed.How are they diagnosed and why are they problematic?
Q2) Describe three important host defenses against infections of the respiratory tract.
Q3) Which of the following is false?
A)Coccidiomycosis infections usually occur in the lower respiratory tract
B)The lower respiratory tract is a relatively sterile anatomical location compared with the upper respiratory tract
C)Diphtheria and whooping cough are still prevalent in underdeveloped nations despite the availability of effective vaccines
D)Chlamydophila psittaci is transmitted from one human to another
Q4) Which individuals are most likely to develop a severe fungal infection of the respiratory tract?
Q5) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Q fever?
A)Spontaneous resolution
B)Bacteria growing well in the placenta
C)Transmitted by inhalation and ingestion
D)Humans are the only reservoir
E)Caused by Coxiella burnetii
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Organization of Salmonella into serotypes is based on
A)Lipopolysaccharide O antigens
B)Shiga toxins
C)M cell ruffles
D)Distending cytotoxins
E)Vacuolating cytotoxins
Q2) Enterovirus is part of which family of viruses?
A)Hepadnaviridae
B)Flaviviridae
C)Reoviridae
D)Picornaviridae
E)Caliciviridae
Q3) Which of the following organisms is the most appropriate match for food poisoning by bacterial infection?
A)Clostridium difficile
B)Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
C)Campylobacter jejuni
D)Staphylococcus aureus
E)Salmonella species
Q4) Explain how hepatitis B produces a partly double-stranded DNA genome.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Compare syphilis to gonorrhea in relation to the following statement: It drills its way into cells.
A)Only syphilis
B)Only gonorrhea
C)Both syphilis and gonorrhea
D)Neither syphilis or gonorrhea
Q2) Which of the following is responsible for more than 90% of cystitis cases?
A)Staphylococcus
B)Streptococcus
C)Pseudomonas
D)Enterococcus
E)Escherichia
Q3) What is congenital syphilis and what are the physiological consequences? Can this condition be avoided?
Q4) Answer true or false to the following statement: Menstruation can alter the composition of vaginal flora.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain why antiviral drugs are ineffective for the eradication of HSV-2.
Q6) Describe the virulence factors associated with uropathogenic Escherichia coli.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following does not cause chronic meningitis?
A)Rabies virus
B)Toxoplasma gondii
C)Cryptococcus neoformans
D)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E)Treponema pallidum
Q2) Which of the following causes primary amebic meningoencephalitis?
A)Prions
B)Trypanosomes
C)Cryptococcus neoformans
D)Naegleria spp.
E)Giardia duodenalis
Q3) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Infant botulism: honey
B)Acute CNS infection: Epstein-Barr virus
C)Tetanus: lockjaw
D)DTaP vaccine: poliomyelitis
E)Viral meningitis: enterovirus
Q4) Describe the three forms of botulism.
Q5) How do the effects on the nervous system differ between botulism and tetanus?
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Infections of the Blood and Lymph
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Q1) Explain why members of Rickettsia are considered to have characteristics of both bacteria and viruses.Which diseases are caused by pathogenic Rickettsiae?
Q2) Identify the causative agent and the three types of tularemia.Compare and contrast the pathology associated with each type of tularemia.
Q3) Compare the Ebola and Marburg infections.A vaccine is available for A)Ebola
B)Marburg
C)Both Ebola and Marburg
D)Neither Ebola or Marburg
Q4) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
A)The causative agent multiplies in the endothelial cells of small blood vessels
B)Calf muscle tenderness
C)Treated with sulfonamides
D)Rash caused by thrombocytosis
E)Mortality reduced from 25% to 5-7% with treatment
Q5) What are the most common complications of infectious endocarditis? Identify the four most common bacterial sources of infectious endocarditis.
Q6) Describe the life cycle of Trypanosoma cruzi.
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Chapter 26: Infections of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Dermatophytosis of the feet (athlete's feet)is also known as
A)Tinea cruris
B)Cutaneous candidiasis
C)Cutaneous leishmaniasis
D)Tinea pedis
E)Pediculosis
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Human-to-human transfer of tinea requires close contact because dermatophytes are very infective and have very high virulence.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Of the following conditions,which poses the most serious threat to an infected individual?
A)Erysipelas
B)Cutaneous anthrax
C)Folliculitis
D)Impetigo
E)Nodular cystic acne
Q4) Describe five mechanisms by which the skin provides an important first line of defense to the host.
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