Clinical Microbiology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Clinical Microbiology is a course that explores the principles and practices of diagnosing, treating, and preventing infectious diseases caused by microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Students will learn about the clinical significance of various pathogens, laboratory techniques for identification and antimicrobial susceptibility testing, and the epidemiology of infectious diseases. Emphasis is placed on understanding host-pathogen interactions, mechanisms of microbial pathogenicity, and current strategies for infection control in healthcare settings. The course also covers emerging infectious threats and the role of clinical microbiology laboratories in patient care and public health responses.
Recommended Textbook
Linne Ringsruds Clinical Laboratory Science 7th Edition by Mary Louise Turgeon
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17 Chapters
529 Verified Questions
529 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Fundamentals of the Clinical Laboratory
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which certifying agency or agencies have been granted deemed status to act on behalf of the federal government in matters of laboratory accreditation?
A) Commission on Office Laboratory Accreditation (COLA)
B) College of American Pathologists (CAP)
C) The Joint Commission (TJC)
D) Both b and c
Answer: D
Q2) Situational ethics is a system of judging acts:
A) by strict principles.
B) by categorical principles.
C) within a context.
D) by legal principles.
Answer: C
Q3) The role of the CEO of a health care organization is to:
A) implement policy and daily activities.
B) set policy and guide the organization.
C) manage financial affairs of the organization.
D) manage the hospital information system.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Safety in the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rubber-stoppered test tubes should be opened slowly with a gauze square over the stopper.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The definition of a biohazard is:
A) chemicals that can burn the skin severely.
B) flammable substances.
C) potentially infectious materials or agents.
D) explosive liquids.
Answer: C
Q3) A carcinogen:
A) is any substance that can cause the development of cancerous growth in living tissue.
B) is related to the spread of viral diseases.
C) cannot be used in the laboratory.
D) is both a and b.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Quality Assessment and Quality Control in the Clinical Laboratory
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a violation of Westgard rules occurs,the correct action is:
A) accept the results if only a warning is violated.
B) reject the results when a mandatory rule is violated.
C) increase the retesting range if either a warning or a mandatory rule is violated.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Q2) Nonanalytical factors in quality assessment include:
A) qualified personnel.
B) established laboratory policies.
C) quality control charts.
D) both a and b.
Answer: D
Q3) An example of a preanalytical error is:
A) specimen obtained from a wrong patient.
B) lack of frequent preventive maintenance.
C) reporting of laboratory results by phone.
D) poorly trained phlebotomists.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Phlebotomy: Collecting and Processing Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood for the screening of newborns is for certain conditions such as:
A) phenylketonuria.
B) hypothyroidism.
C) galactosemia.
D) all of the above.
Q2) For a patient to be in a fasting state,he or she must abstain from food and liquids other than water for ____ hours.
A) 2 to 4
B) 4 to 8
C) 8 to 12
D) 12 to 24
Q3) The most common cause of an abnormal appearance of a collected blood specimen is:
A) hemolysis.
B) icterus (jaundice).
C) lipemia.
D) excess anticoagulant.
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6
Chapter 5: The Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) The magnifying powers of the usual microscope objectives are:
A) 5×, 10×, 20×.
B) 10×, 20×, 40×.
C) 10×, 40×, 80×.
D) 10×, 40×, 100×.
Q2) Oil needs to be removed from the:
A) ocular.
B) 10× objective.
C) 40× objective.
D) 100× objective.
Q3) An artificial neural network:
A) simulates the action of a robot.
B) simulates human brain processing of information.
C) simulates automated instruments.
D) follows strict algorithms.
Q4) The definition of the microscopic working distance is the distance from the:
A) bottom of the objective to the material being studied.
B) ocular to the bottom of the objective.
C) ocular to the material being studied.
D) top of the objective to the material being studied.
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Chapter 6: Systems of Measurement, laboratory
Equipment, and Reagents
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the standard unit for the measurement of length in the metric system?
A) Meter
B) Gram
C) Liter
D) Feet
Q2) The labels on bottles should include:
A) the name and concentration of the reagent.
B) the date on which the reagent was prepared.
C) the initials of the person who made the reagent.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Each new lot or batch of reagent should be tested with ____ with the existing reagent.
A) controls
B) standards
C) calibrators
D) all of the above
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Chapter 7: Laboratory Mathematics and Solution Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The more digits that are used in laboratory assay results,the more precise the answer is.
A)True
B)False
Q2) blank solution
A)a solution prepared from a stock solution and usually stored in the refrigerator
B)one that contains a known, exact amount of the substance being measured
C)one that contains reagents used in the procedure but not the substance to be measured
Q3) In rounding off numbers:
A) when the digit next to the last one to be retained is less than 5, the last digit should be left unchanged.
B) when the digit next to the last one to be retained is greater than 5, the last digit is increased by 1.
C) if the additional digit is 5, the last digit reported is changed to the nearest even number.
D) follow all of the above.
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Chapter 8: Basic and New Techniques in the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) A popular at-home application of reflectance spectrophotometry in point-of-care testing (POCT)is:
A) blood volume estimation.
B) drug monitoring.
C) glucose monitoring.
D) pH determination.
Q2) Quality control tests for spectrophotometers consist of checking wavelength accuracy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The term light is used to describe:
A) radiant energy with wavelengths visible to the human eye.
B) wavelengths bordering on those visible to the human eye.
C) all forms of radiant energy.
D) both a and b.
Q4) A reaction format used in noncompetitive immunochemical assays includes:
A) sandwich assays.
B) two-site assays.
C) excess reagent assays.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 9: Delivery of Laboratory Testing From Point of
Care to Total Automation
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Sample Questions
Q1) If urine is used for pregnancy testing,it should be:
A) first morning.
B) random.
C) 24-hour.
D) sterile.
Q2) False-positive fecal occult blood results can be caused by ingestion of:
A) red meat.
B) horseradish.
C) apples and oranges.
D) both a and b.
Q3) Computer hardware for an LIS system includes:
A) central processing unit (CPU).
B) random access memory (RAM).
C) an operating system.
D) both a and b.
Q4) Leukocytes can be differentiated by:
A) automated three-part differential.
B) automated five-cell differential.
C) digital imaging.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 10: Introduction to Clinical Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anticoagulant of choice for glucose testing when analysis is not performed promptly is:
A) EDTA.
B) sodium fluoride.
C) lithium heparin.
D) sodium citrate.
Q2) Which of the following is the least utilized role of a tumor marker?
A) Cancer screening
B) Cancer diagnosis
C) Monitoring of patients for a recurrence of cancer
D) Determination of the extent of tumor burden
Q3) Hypoglycemia is not a consequence of:
A) insulinoma.
B) islet cell hyperplasia.
C) insulin resistance.
D) glycogen storage disease.
Q4) Free T is ____ and thyroid stimulating hormone is ____ in hypothyroidism.
A) increased; decreased
B) decreased; increased
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Chapter 11: Principles and Practice of Clinical Hematology
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80 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oxyhemoglobin contains ____ molecule(s)per hemoglobin molecule.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8
Q2) A hematocrit and PCV are the same measurement.However,the hematocrit is expressed in percentage (%)but the PCV is expressed as: A) g/dL.
B) L/L.
C) ×10<sup>12</sup>/L.
D) ×10<sup>9</sup>/L.
Q3) neutrophils
A)0.5
B)59
C)3
D)4-6
E)34
Q4) Platelets act as plugs around the opening of a wound.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Introduction to Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A function or activity of platelets is to form an aggregate plug or platelet mass that can physically slow down or stop blood loss.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A prothrombin time assay should be conducted within ____ hours after specimen collection.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 24
Q3) A function or activity of platelets is to help activate and be a participant in plasma coagulation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) fibrinogen group
A)factors II, VII, IX, and X
B)factors XI and XII, prekallikrein (Fletcher factor), and HMWK (Fitzgerald factor)
C)factors I, V, VIII, and XIII
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Chapter 13: Renal Physiology and Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specimens for bilirubin testing must be:
A) absolutely fresh.
B) less than 2 hours old.
C) less than 8 hours old.
D) less than 24 hours old.
Q2) in the reaction to detect blood in the urine,microbial peroxidase activity associated with urinary tract infection can produce
A)false positive
B)false negative
Q3) Reagent strips for glucose detection use):
A) an enzyme, glucose oxidase.
B) a chemical, hydrogen peroxide.
C) a chemical, copper sulfate.
D) both a and b.
Q4) a blue color forms for the protein reaction,if the urine is exposed to the reagent strip for too long
A)false positive
B)false negative
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Chapter 14: Examination of Body Fluids and Miscellaneous Specimens
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of specimen that is most critical to deliver immediately to the laboratory for examination is ____ fluid.
A) cerebrospinal
B) synovial
C) pericardial
D) peritoneal
Q2) If CSF has a xanthochromic appearance,it can indicate bleeding:
A) within 30 minutes to 1 hour.
B) within 1 to 2 hours.
C) between 12 hours and 2 to 4 weeks.
D) within the past month.
Q3) Normally,____% or more of sperm are motile.
A) 15
B) 25
C) 50
D) 100
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Chapter 15: Introduction to Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is one cause of bacterial vaginosis and is best diagnosed by the presence of microscopic "clue cells"?
A) Gardnerella vaginalis
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Trichomonas vaginalis
Q2) The lowest concentration of an antimicrobial agent that will visibly inhibit the growth of the organism being tested is called:
A) bacteriostatic.
B) bactericidal.
C) minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC).
D) minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC).
Q3) Chocolate agar contains all of the following except:
A) antibiotics.
B) X factor.
C) V factor.
D) lysed blood.
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17
Chapter 16: Immunology and Serology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Humoral-mediated immunity is associated with:
A) T lymphocytes.
B) B lymphocytes.
C) neutrophils.
D) monocytes.
Q2) A typical antibody response takes about ____ to develop sufficiently.
A) 24 hours
B) 72 hours
C) 1 week
D) 2 weeks
Q3) In testing for rheumatoid factor,lipemic or hemolyzed specimens can cause ____ results.
A) false-positive
B) false-negative
C) no effect on the test
D) both false positive and false negative
Q4) Factors that influence an individual's defense against disease include status of general health.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Immunohematology and Transfusion Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anti-A and anti-B belong to the ____ subclass of antibodies.
A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgA
D) IgD
Q2) The presence of A,B,and H antigenic material in body secretions is regulated by:
A) precursor of A and B RBC antigens.
B) H gene.
C) Se gene.
D) A and B genes.
Q3) Transfusion reactions that are the most life threatening are:
A) hemolytic.
B) febrile.
C) nonimmune.
D) iron-overload.
Q4) The anticoagulant of choice for a unit of donor blood is: A) dextrose.
B) citrate.
C) inorganic phosphate buffer.
D) heparin.
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