Clinical Medical Assisting Test Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Medical Assisting provides students with comprehensive knowledge and practical skills necessary to function as a vital member of a healthcare team in a medical office or clinic setting. The course covers fundamental concepts such as medical terminology, patient assessment, vital signs measurement, assisting with physical examinations, basic laboratory procedures, and administration of medications. Students will also learn about infection control, patient care ethics, documentation, and effective communication with patients and healthcare professionals. Hands-on training and simulated clinical experiences prepare students to support physicians, ensure patient comfort, and maintain the smooth operation of healthcare facilities.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Human Diseases and Conditions 6th Edition by Margaret Schell Frazier
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15 Chapters
681 Verified Questions
681 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1272 Page 2
Chapter 1: Mechanisms of Disease, Diagnosis, and Treatment
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25093
Sample Questions
Q1) In the process of deciding or confirming the identification of a disease, the results of diagnostic studies are integrated with the medical history and physical examination findings.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Recognizing the aspects of the cultural diversity of patients includes
A) language, religious beliefs, views about health issues, and life experiences.
B) dietary preferences.
C) death rituals and other traditions.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Q3) The holistic concept of medical care focuses on
A) the needs of the whole person: spiritual, cognitive, social, physical, and emotional.
B) narrowly defining physical pathologic changes.
C) discounting the needs of a patient as a whole to expedite healing.
D) all of the above.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Developmental, Congenital, and Childhood
Diseases and Disorders
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25094
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cyanotic congenital heart defect that is actually a combination of four defects is called
A) ventricular septal defect (VSD).
B) PDA.
C) tetralogy of Fallot.
D) transposition of the great arteries.
Answer: C
Q2) In hydrocephalus, a large amount of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) accumulates in the skull, causing increased intracranial pressure.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The diagnostic investigation of a congenital heart defect may include A) physical examination and patient history.
B) radiographic studies of the chest and blood tests.
C) heart catheterization and electrocardiogram (ECG).
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Immunologic Diseases and Conditions
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25095
Sample Questions
Q1) The systemic disease that usually begins with joint inflammation and edema of the synovial membranes surrounding the joint is
A) SLE.
B) scleroderma.
C) RA.
D) Sjögren's syndrome.
Answer: C
Q2) The five immunoglobulins are
A) IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE.
B) variations of the T-cells in the blood.
C) measured by home testing.
D) the cause of opportunistic infections.
Answer: A
Q3) Immunodeficiency diseases that affect only males include
A) X-linked agammaglobulinemia.
B) Wiskott-Aldrich's syndrome.
C) both of the above.
D) neither of the above.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Diseases and Conditions of the Endocrine System
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25096
Sample Questions
Q1) Polyuria, polyphagia, polydipsia, weight loss, and fatigue are the principal signs and symptoms of
A) hypoglycemia.
B) diabetes insipidus.
C) diabetes mellitus.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Diabetes that has its onset during pregnancy is called
A) type 1, insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus.
B) gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM).
C) type 2, non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM).
D) nonspecific diabetes.
Q3) Damage to the pituitary gland, which causes hypopituitarism, can result from A) radiation.
B) surgical removal.
C) ischemia.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Severe, prolonged hypoglycemia can cause irreversible brain damage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Diseases and Disorders of the Eye and Ear
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25097
Sample Questions
Q1) A cholesteatoma and mastoiditis can both be the result of a neglected otitis media.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Conjunctivitis can be caused by
A) a deterioration of the lens.
B) infection, irritation, allergies, or chemicals.
C) hemorrhage behind the retina.
D) a drooping of the upper eyelid.
Q3) The only treatment that cures otosclerosis is a surgical procedure called stapedectomy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements is true about chronic open-angle glaucoma?
A) It is caused by a decrease in intraocular pressure (IOP).
B) It produces symptoms at the onset.
C) It rarely progresses.
D) It is the most treatable cause of blindness.
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Chapter 6: Diseases and Conditions of the Integumentary System
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25098
Sample Questions
Q1) Warts, a cutaneous manifestation of human papillomavirus (HPV) infection, are
A) localized hyperplastic areas of the stratum corneum layer of the epidermis.
B) inflammatory reactions of the hair follicles.
C) spread by touch or contact with the skin shed from a wart.
D) also termed vitiligo.
Q2) _____ is a common contagious superficial skin infection caused by either Streptococcus or Staphylococcus aureus.
A) Psoriasis
B) Atopic dermatitis (eczema)
C) Impetigo
D) Seborrheic dermatitis
Q3) Folliculitis is an inflammation of
A) hair follicles.
B) sebaceous glands.
C) fissure.
D) comedo.
Q4) Itch mites and lice spread easily from one person to another by close physical contact.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Diseases and Conditions of the Musculoskeletal System
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25099
Sample Questions
Q1) A vitamin D deficiency can cause the abnormal metabolic bone disease called A) osteoporosis.
B) osteogenesis imperfecta.
C) osteomalacia.
D) osteoclasis.
Q2) Which of the following is true about bursitis?
A) Bursitis is curable.
B) Bursitis usually involves the joint.
C) The prognosis for bursitis is guarded with treatment.
D) The patient is advised to apply heat to bursitis.
Q3) Inflammation of the joints caused by excessive uric acid levels in the blood and joints is
A) myositis.
B) bursitis.
C) fibrositis.
D) gouty arthritis.
Q4) Muscles are classified as either voluntary or involuntary.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Diseases and Conditions of the Digestive System
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25100
Sample Questions
Q1) The most serious complications of bulimia and anorexia nervosa include A) loss of weight.
B) denial and anger.
C) electrolyte imbalance and cardiac irregularities.
D) a morbid fear of being fat.
Q2) Hypervitaminosis is toxicity from any vitamin, but especially the fat-soluble vitamins
A and D.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Signs and symptoms of malnutrition can result from
A) eating too much or too little.
B) a malabsorption syndrome.
C) a case involving severe burns or other severe trauma.
D) all of the above.
Q4) The management of peptic ulcers may necessitate
A) rest, changes in diet, adjustments of lifestyle, and drug therapy.
B) the use of an ulcerogenic drug and surgical intervention.
C) increased physical activity.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 9: Diseases and Conditions of the Respiratory System
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25101
Sample Questions
Q1) _____ refers to obstructive diseases of the lungs, including chronic bronchitis, bronchiectasis, asthma, emphysema, and pneumoconiosis.
A) IRDS
B) COPD
C) Infectious mononucleosis
D) ARDS
Q2) Pontiac fever is a milder form of Legionellosis; neither form is contagious.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The common cold is a group of minor illnesses caused by A) fungi.
B) bacteria.
C) almost 200 viruses or from Mycoplasma.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Growths that form from distended mucous membranes protruding into the nasal cavity are called
A) adenoid hypertrophy.
B) lymphadenopathy.
C) nasal polyps.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 10: Diseases and Conditions of the Circulatory System
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25102
Sample Questions
Q1) Causes of cardiac arrest include respiratory arrest, MI, trauma, electrocution, hemorrhage, and drug overdose.
A)True
B)False
Q2) CAD results from deposits of fat-containing substances called plaque in the lumen (opening) of the coronary arteries resulting in atherosclerosis and subsequent narrowing of the lumen of the arteries.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The condition in which a reduction in the quantity of either red blood cells (RBCs) or hemoglobin (Hgb) exists is
A) anemia.
B) thrombocytopenia.
C) leukemia.
D) agranulocytosis.
Q4) Patients with MVP experience severe crushing chest pain and syncope.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 11: Diseases and Conditions of the Urinary System
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25103
Sample Questions
Q1) Proper function of the urinary system is frequently evaluated by A) physical examination alone.
B) the patient's history alone.
C) urinalysis (UA) and blood tests.
D) how much liquid the patient is drinking daily.
Q2) Lithotripsy is a procedure used to examine the urinary tract.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most common symptom of a bladder tumor is gross, intermittent, painless hematuria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Acute glomerulonephritis usually follows
A) infection by group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus.
B) kidney trauma.
C) excessive calcium in the blood.
D) all of the above.
Q5) Polycystic disease is inherited.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Diseases and Conditions of the Reproductive System
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25104
Sample Questions
Q1) Invasive cervical cancer
A) has no identifiable risk factors.
B) is often considered a preventable disease.
C) is most commonly diagnosed before the age of 35.
D) is none of the above.
Q2) Which statement is not true about diseases of the breast?
A) Changes in the breast tissue such as lumps or nipple crusting are not concern for investigation.
B) Men do experience diseases of the breast.
C) Diseases of the breast range from mild to fatal.
D) The vast majority of breast diseases are diagnosed through abnormal mammogram findings.
Q3) The absence of menstrual periods, whether temporary or permanent, is called dysmenorrhea.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The best prevention of epididymitis is the early treatment of urinary tract infections.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Neurologic Diseases and Conditions
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25105
Sample Questions
Q1) Nerves that transmit impulses toward the brain and spinal cord are
A) afferent.
B) efferent.
C) motor.
D) receptor.
Q2) Paralysis of the lower half of the body as a result of damage in the lower portion of the spinal cord is called
A) paraplegia.
B) quadriplegia.
C) hemiparesis.
D) Bell's palsy.
Q3) ALS causes symptoms of
A) pill-rolling and shuffling of feet.
B) progressive destruction of motor neurons, resulting in muscle atrophy.
C) dancelike movements and a decline in mental function.
D) paralysis.
Q4) Narrowing of intervertebral spaces on imaging studies may indicate degeneration of an intervertebral disk.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Mental Disorders
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25106
Sample Questions
Q1) Learning disabilities are no indication of intelligence level.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The anxiety disorder that results from an external event of an overwhelming painful nature is called
A) pain disorder.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
C) hypochondriasis.
D) apnea.
Q3) Excessive use of alcohol is frequently associated with A) anxiety.
B) impotence.
C) amnesia.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Pervasive development disorders (PDDs) include autistic disorder, Rett's syndrome, and Asperger's syndrome.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Disorders and Conditions Resulting From Trauma
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25107
Sample Questions
Q1) In shaken infant syndrome, there is no outward indication of physical trauma most of the time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An easy way to remove a FB from the nose of a child is to
A) grasp it with tweezers.
B) irrigate
C) have child blow his/her nose.
D) shine a light in nares.
Q3) Compression of the brachial plexus nerves may also be called A) tendinitis.
B) thoracic outlet syndrome.
C) tennis elbow.
D) trigger finger.
Q4) A burn that involves destruction of the skin and underlying tissue is termed A) superficial.
B) partial thickness.
C) full thickness.
D) radiation.
Page 17
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