Clinical Medical Assisting Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Clinical Medical Assisting is an in-depth course designed to prepare students for essential roles in healthcare settings by providing them with foundational knowledge and practical skills required to support physicians and other healthcare professionals. The curriculum covers vital clinical procedures such as taking patient histories, measuring vital signs, performing EKGs, assisting with physical examinations and minor surgeries, sterilizing instruments, and administering medications. Emphasis is placed on patient communication, ethical practice, infection control, and the proper use of medical equipment. Through lectures, interactive labs, and real-world simulations, students gain the competencies necessary to deliver compassionate and efficient clinical care as medical assistants in ambulatory and outpatient care environments.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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51 Chapters
4027 Verified Questions
4027 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/257
Page 2
Chapter 1: Competency-Based Education and the Medical
Assistant Student
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4196
Sample Questions
Q1) Match abstract perceivers with all the appropriate applications. (Select all that apply.)
A) Watch, observe, and reflect
B) Learn by doing
C) Prefer learning things that have personal meaning
D) Need time to think about it
E) Use a step-by-step approach to learning
F) Analyze new material
Answer: A, D, E, F
Q2) The first step to reaching a solution to a problem or conflict is to identify the ______________________.
Answer: problem and central issue
The cause of the conflict must be identified before solutions can be researched.
Q3) Which of the following mind maps would display the cause and effect of events?
A) Spider map
B) Fishbone map
C) Chain-of-events map
D) Cycle map
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Medical Assistant and the Healthcare Team
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4197
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following agencies, founded in 1939, is a nationally recognized certification agency for multiple allied health professionals?
A) NHA
B) AMT
C) AAMA
D) CAAHEP
Answer: B
Q2) Match the DHHS agency with its role(s) in medical assisting. (Select all that apply.)
A) Establishing regulations to protect individuals in the workplace
B) Clearinghouse for information and statistics associated with healthcare
C) Child services, including immunizations
D) Supports and conducts biomedical research
E) Establishes regulations that affect all healthcare facilities
F) Provides funding for research projects
G) Development of the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
H) Oversight of Medicare and Medicaid programs
Answer: C, H
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4
Chapter 3: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which quality in a medical assistant is most likely to promote positive relations in the medical office?
A) Businesslike behavior
B) Consistently high grades during medical assisting training
C) Attractiveness
D) Sincere interest in patients' welfare
Answer: D
Q2) Participation in a recognized __________________ shows that medical assistants take their career seriously.
Answer: professional organization
Medical assistants who participate in professional organizations demonstrate that they take their careers seriously.
Q3) Habits formed during a medical assistant's training program will continue into the externship and employment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: TRUE
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communications
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4199
Sample Questions
Q1) The principal reason for requesting feedback when communicating with patients is to determine whether they
A) have a vision problem.
B) are cooperative.
C) understand what is being said.
D) are mentally alert.
Q2) A standard mental picture that is held in common by members of a group and that represents an oversimplified opinion, prejudiced attitude, or uncritical judgment is called A) language.
B) perception.
C) a stereotype.
D) a multicultural issue.
Q3) In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the fourth level relates to which of the following?
A) Social needs for love
B) Self-actualization
C) Safety
D) Self-esteem
E) Physical well-being
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6
Chapter 5: Medicine and Law
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4200
Sample Questions
Q1) The person bringing a case or legal action to court is the A) judge.
B) defendant.
C) plaintiff.
D) bailiff.
Q2) Match Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) with the appropriate definition or example. (Select all that apply.)
A) Information should be shared with patients when they are admitted to facilities.
B) Hold insurance companies accountable
C) Architectural standards for new and altered health care facilities
D) Primary purpose was to limit the administrative costs of healthcare.
E) Title I (insurance Reform)
F) Restricts use of annual limits and bans lifetime limits on healthcare benefits
G) Prevents insurance companies from cancelling coverage based on genetic information
H) Intended to eliminate discrimination against individuals with disabilities
Q3) The person giving a deposition is called the __________.
Q4) In a(n) __________ case, guilt must be proven beyond a reasonable doubt.
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4201
Sample Questions
Q1) The criteria to consider when allocating health resources include all of the following except
A) urgency of need.
B) amount of resources required for successful treatment.
C) potential for change in the quality of life.
D) social worth of the individual.
Q2) Refraining from the act of causing harm or committing evil is called
A) nonmaleficence.
B) beneficence.
C) duty.
D) fidelity.
Q3) Which of the following best describes the example of organ donation and distribution of scarce or costly medications?
A) Ethical distress
B) Ethical dilemma
C) Dilemma of justice
D) Locus of authority
Q4) The medical assistant will not have to discuss ethical issues with patients.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Technology and Written Communication in the Medical Office
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4202
Sample Questions
Q1) What are used to help prevent access to private networks?
A) Network systems
B) Virus detectors
C) Scanners
D) Firewalls
Q2) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A) Reaproach
B) Reproach
Q3) A kilobyte is approximately 2,410 bits.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Business letters are usually __________ spaced.
A) single
B) one and a half
C) double
D) one and a quarter
Q5) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A) Disseminated
B) Desseminated
Q6) Generally, a business letter is __________ spaced. Page 9
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Page 10
Chapter 8: Telephone Techniques
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4203
Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant should never give patients an estimate of what the cost of their visit will be, even on the initial visit.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some managed care organizations require a physician __________ before a patient may see a specialist.
Q3) When placing callers on hold, how often should you check back to make sure the caller still wants to remain on hold?
A) No longer than 1 minute
B) Every 2 minutes
C) Until time is available to talk
D) It is not necessary to check back; patients will hold until you return to the call
Q4) Complaints about fees must always be directed to the office manager.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most physicians do not expect the medical assistant to screen calls.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 9: Scheduling Appointments and Patient Processing
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4204
Sample Questions
Q1) Which types of outpatient procedures might be scheduled by the physician's office?
A) MRIs
B) CT scans
C) Blood work
D) All of the above
Q2) Medical assistants are not allowed to take the patient's personal and family histories.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Competency as a result of training or practice is called ____________.
Q4) Every patient has the right to expect courteous treatment in a physician's office.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All patients should leave the medical facility feeling that they were treated with
Q6) A space of time between events is called a(n) ____________.
Q7) A parent normally accompanies a child in the exam room unless the parent is suspected of _________________.
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Chapter 10: Daily Operations in the Ambulatory Care
Setting
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many state laws mandate that termination letters be sent by which of the following services?
A) First-Class Mail
B) Priority Mail
C) Certified Mail
D) Certified Mail with Return Receipt
Q2) The medical assistant should check to make sure all patients have left the facility before locking up and leaving for the day.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An ordered item that has not been delivered when promised or demanded but will be supplied at a later date is said to be
A) backordered.
B) front-ordered.
C) on hold.
D) circumvented.
Q4) A(n) _____________ is a list of items ordered and items shipped.
Q5) Thieves usually approach a physician's office to steal money or ____________.
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Chapter 11: The Health Record
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128 Verified Questions
128 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4206
Sample Questions
Q1) The physical medical record belongs to the A) patient.
B) physician or provider.
C) insurance company.
D) All of the above
Q2) Which statement is not accurate about correcting charting errors?
A) Insert the correction above or immediately after the error.
B) Draw two clear lines through the error.
C) In the margin, initial and date the error correction.
D) Do not hide charting errors.
Q3) In a paper record, which of the following is never an acceptable method of correction to a handwritten entry?
A) Draw a line through the error.
B) Erase or use a correction fluid.
C) Insert the correction above the error.
D) Write initials or signature below the correction and date.
E) All of the above are acceptable.
Q4) When a patient is transferred from one facility to another, __________ of care ensures that no lapses in treatment occur and that transitions are smooth.
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Chapter 12: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Burns are coded to the site by __________.
Q2) Which of the following letters in the ICD-10-CM is reserved by the World Health Organization to assign new diseases with uncertain etiology?
A) U
B) X
C) Y
D) Z
Q3) The signs and symptoms of a disease are its __________.
Q4) The __________ table describes malignancies.
Q5) The code HIV indicates which of the following?
A) The HIV virus is present
B) The manifestation of and/or symptoms that occur as a result of HIV infection
C) Probable case of HIV
D) Suspected case of HIV
Q6) The medical assistant should never code a patient as having __________ unless it is clearly documented as confirmed in the medical record.
Q7) Main terms appear in bold type.
A)True
B)False
15
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Chapter 13: Basics of Procedural Coding
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68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4208
Sample Questions
Q1) New patient office visit, expanded problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making
A) 99201
B) 99202
C) 99203
D) 99204
Q2) __________ are procedures or treatments named for a person.
Q3) An eponym will be used in which of the following CPT divisions?
A) Alphabetic index
B) Tabular list
C) Category subsection
D) Both A and B
Q4) Which of the following codes can be used to help measure performance and outcomes?
A) Category I codes
B) Category II codes
C) Category III codes
D) Both A and B
Q5) __________ and management codes are used for physician's office visits.
Q6) A(n) __________ patient has seen the physician within the past 3 years.
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Chapter 14: Basics of Health Insurance
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4209
Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant should always verify which of the following prior to the patient's appointment?
A) Eligibility
B) Benefits and exclusions
C) Effective date of insurance
D) All of the above
Q2) A policy that covers a number of people under a single master contract issued to the employer or to an association with which they are affiliated and that is not self-funded is usually called
A) group policy.
B) individual policy.
C) a government plan.
D) a self-insured plan.
Q3) Medigap polices cover which of the following?
A) Difference between major medical reimbursement and patient financial responsibilities
B) Difference between Medicare reimbursement and patient financial responsibilities
C) Any services not covered under Medicare
D) Any services not covered under Major medical
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Page 17
Chapter 15: Medical Billing and Reimbursement
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4210
Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant should __________ the front and back of the patient's insurance card.
Q2) The insurance claim should always be proofread.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Claims that are done by direct billing first go to a clearinghouse.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Federal Tax ID number (Box 25) for the provider filing the claim can be presented as
A) Social Security Number (SSN).
B) Employer Identification Number (EIN).
C) National Provider Identification (NPI).
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q5) Which of the following is a common reason why insurance claims are rejected?
A) When a procedure listed is not an insurance benefit
B) Lack of insurance coverage on date of service
C) Not obtaining preauthorization for the service
D) Claim was sent to the wrong insurance plan
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Chapter 16: Patient Accounts, Collections, and Practice Management
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4211
Sample Questions
Q1) If not handled properly, which of the following can decrease what is owed to the provider erroneously?
A) Payments and adjustments
B) Credit balances and refunds
C) Charges
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following account aging categories requires a final demand letter before the account is turned over to a collection agency?
A) 30-60 days
B) 60-90 days
C) 90-120 days
D) Over 120 days
Q3) The purpose of the trial balance is to disclose any discrepancies between the journal and the ledger.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Accounts __________ are debts incurred but not yet paid.
Page 19
Q5) Amounts owed to the physician are accounts _____________.
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Chapter 17: Banking Services and Procedures
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4212
Sample Questions
Q1) What is required for a check to be negotiable?
A) Be written and signed by the drawer
B) Contain a promise or order to pay a sum of money
C) Be payable on demand
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q2) Banking by mail is never done now that the use of the Internet is so prevalent.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following types of accounts requires a minimum balance and draws interest at the highest rates?
A) Checking account
B) Savings account
C) Money market savings account
D) All of the above
Q4) Today's checks include $56, $73, $89, $23, $20, and $82. What is the total in checks for the daily deposit?
Q5) A patient writes a check in the amount of $56 toward her account of $569. What is her balance after the payment?
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Chapter 18: Supervision and Human Resources Management
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4213
Sample Questions
Q1) The process of inciting a person to some action or behavior is called A) reprimand.
B) motivation.
C) circumvention.
D) appraisal.
Q2) The types of staff meetings include informational, problem solving, _______________, and work sessions.
Q3) Which of the following prohibits inquiries into an applicant's race, color, gender, religion, and national origin?
A) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
B) Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972
C) 1975 Amendment to the Equal Employment Opportunity Act
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q4) Which of the following is a traditional probationary period for a new employee?
A) 30 to 45 days
B) 60 to 90 days
C) 6 months
D) 1 year
Q5) The ________ is the Employee's Withholding Allowance Certificate.
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Chapter 19: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4214
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first step in developing a plan?
A) Research
B) Planning the concept
C) Assessment
D) Evaluation
Q2) Match the Patient-Centered Care PCMH Domain with the appropriate descriptors. (Select all that apply.)
A) Partnering with patients and families
B) Sharing quality data and improvement activities
C) Efficient care transitions
D) Oriented towards the whole person
E) Team-based approach
F) Clinical decision-support tools
G) Across all elements of the health care system
Q3) A word or graphic on a page that takes the viewer to another page or another website is called a
A) hyperlink.
B) hypertext.
C) uniform resource locator.
D) cookie.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Infection Control
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78 Verified Questions
78 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4215
Sample Questions
Q1) Alcohol hand rubs, when used properly, are as effective at reducing the incidence of nosocomial infections.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Relapse is the disappearance of the clinical symptoms of disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sam Anderson, a 28-year-old patient, calls the office and asks Rosa how he would be able to tell if his wound is getting infected. Based on your understanding of the inflammatory response, how should Rosa answer this question? Include in your answer the four classic symptoms of inflammation.
Q4) A palliative treatment is designed to cure a particular disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An antiseptic is an agent that can be used on the skin to inhibit the growth of microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Fungal infections are also called __________ infections.
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Patient Assessment
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4216
Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the legal and ethical issues associated with the medical record.
Q2) The most effective distance between a patient and the medical assistant conducting an interview is approximately 2 to 3 feet.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following includes childhood diseases?
A) Family history
B) Past history
C) Social history
D) Database
E) ROS
Q4) During patient assessment, which of the following is an example of a subjective finding?
A) Difficulty breathing
B) Temperature
C) Blood pressure and pulse
D) Palpable mass
Q5) A sign is a patient-reported indication of disease.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Patient Education
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68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4217
Sample Questions
Q1) A useful approach to dealing with a patient's perceived barriers to healthy living may be referral to a community resource for patient support.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The medical assistant just completed a short teaching intervention with Mr. Ignatio and his wife about diabetic foot care. Summarize the details that should be included in the documentation entry.
Q3) A holistic model for patient education means designing a patient teaching plan that focuses on the patient's disease without concern for the patient's ability to pay for care.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's model of grief is helpful for families, because everyone experiencing grief goes through the process in the same way.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Essential factors in __________ management for the ambulatory care setting include conducting adequate patient education and follow-up.
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25
Chapter 23: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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131 Verified Questions
131 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nutrient has 9 kcal/g?
A) Carbohydrates
B) Protein
C) Fat
D) Water
Q2) Vitamins or nutrients that can be created by the body are called __________.
Q3) Hydrogenation of margarine results in the formation of trans fats.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Death rates are significantly higher for patients with a BMI of 19 to 22.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A diet high in omega-3 fatty acids is recommended for patients with a history of blood clot formation.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Vegans must eat a combination of complete proteins to meet their nutritional needs.
A)True
B)False
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Vital Signs
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108 Verified Questions
108 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following instances contraindicate the use of a tympanic measurement system?
A) Patient complaining of pain in both ears
B) History of impacted cerumen
C) Stuffy nose
D) Both A and B
Q2) The medical term for fainting is __________.
Q3) Parents should be aware that the axillary temperature may be as much as one degree less than the child's actual core temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What would be considered a normal pulse for an average-sized 37-year-old patient in good health?
A) 50 to 60 beats per minute
B) 60 to 70 beats per minute
C) 50 to 70 beats per minute
D) 60 to 80 beats per minute
Q5) The volume of the pulse refers to the length of time between each beat.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Assisting with the Primary Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transillumination is used to evaluate the sinus cavities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the medical assistant's responsibility when preparing the patient for a physical examination?
A) Make sure all informed consent forms have been signed.
B) Write prescriptions for patients in need of refills.
C) Check the patient's eye with an ophthalmoscope.
D) Perform a fecal occult blood test.
Q3) A(n) __________ is composed of two or more types of tissues that form together to perform a particular function.
Q4) Oxygen is carried throughout the bloodstream attached to red blood cells. A)True
B)False
Q5) The technique of __________ involves using touch during the physical examination of a patient, for example, to determine the size and consistency of a tumor.
Q6) Platelets are specialized blood cells that help combat infections.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Principles of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications would be prescribed for a patient who has been diagnosed with a wound infection?
A) Micronase
B) Keflex
C) Propulsid
D) Lasix
E) Inderal
Q2) Where are most oral medications absorbed?
A) Small intestine
B) Liver
C) Directly into the bloodstream
D) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following drugs is classified as an antihypertensive?
A) Haldol
B) Coumadin
C) Lanoxin
D) Lopid
E) Dyazide
Q4) Drugs used to increase urinary output and to reduce blood pressure are
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Chapter 27: Pharmacology Math
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is one way of expressing a fraction or division problem; it shows the relationship of the numerator to the denominator.
Q2) Convert the following fractions into decimals, rounding the last digit as needed
a. 3/4 = ________.
b. 2/3 = ________.
c. 9/12 = _______.
d. 10/12 = _______.
Q3) Which of the following is a household measure?
A) Gram
B) Grain
C) Drop
D) cc
Q4) For children, to calculate the total daily dose of the medication the medical assistant must multiply the child's weight in grams by the amount of drug stated on the label that should be administered per kg per day.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The fraction 3/4 is an example of a(n) __________ fraction.
Q6) The top number in a fraction is the __________.
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Chapter 28: Administering Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a medication is administered in a physician's office, the best method of identifying the patient is to
A) check the patient's identification bracelet.
B) call the patient by name.
C) ask the patient to state his or her name.
D) B and C
Q2) While giving an intramuscular injection, the medical assistant inadvertently aspirates blood into the syringe. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A) Change the needle angle.
B) Continue the injection.
C) Continue to aspirate.
D) Insert the needle deeper.
E) Withdraw the needle completely.
Q3) Which of the following are semisolid medications containing bases such as petrolatum and lanolin?
A) Liniments
B) Ointments
C) Lotions
D) Sprays
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Chapter 29: Safety and Emergency Practices
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124 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4224
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with burns must receive a tetanus shot if more than 10 years have passed since the last immunization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Debbie discovers a 40-year-old patient collapsed in the office hallway. What is the best location for checking the patient's pulse?
A) Radial artery
B) Carotid artery
C) Brachial artery
D) Femoral artery
Q3) Explain the steps that should be taken to maintain a safe work environment.
Q4) Emergency preparedness plans are designed to coordinate care provided by which of the following agencies?
A) EMS
B) Fire departments
C) Law enforcement agencies
D) National Guard
E) All of the above
Q5) The condition in which blood is present in the urine is called __________.
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Chapter 30: Assisting in Ophthalmology and Otolaryngology
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4225
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures is/are located in the retina?
A) Rods and cones
B) Optic nerve
C) Optic disc
D) Fovea centralis
E) All of the above
Q2) Match the astigmatism eye disorder with the appropriate description, when it occurs, and the correction. (Select all that apply.)
A) Cornea or lens is shaped like a football
B) Can be corrected with refractive surgery or a convex corrective lens
C) Occurs when light rays entering the eye focus in front of the retina
D) Occurs when the eyeball is too short from the anterior to the posterior wall
E) Can be corrected with glasses, contacts, or surgery
F) Occurs when light enters the eye and focuses behind the retina
G) Eyeball is elongated from the anterior to the posterior wall
H) Occurs when the light rays entering the eye are focused irregularly
Q3) A miotic medication causes the pupil to constrict.
A)True
B)False
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Q4) In ______________, heat is used to reshape the cornea in patients over age 40.
Chapter 31: Assisting in Dermatology
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4226
Sample Questions
Q1) Charlie Feaver, age 3, was seen in the office today for superficial and partial-thickness burns on his chest and diaper area. He pulled a pot of hot soup off the stove, and it splattered down the front of his body. What information should you reinforce with Charlie's parents about the care of his burns?
Q2) Patients with metastases have distant spread of a cancerous tumor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Full-thickness thermal injury is also referred to as
A) first degree burn.
B) second degree burn.
C) third degree burn.
D) superficial burn.
Q4) Streptococcal impetigo, if left untreated, may result in glomerulonephritis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Zostavax is recommended for which of the following patients?
A) Infants 12 to 18 months old
B) Older adults who have never had shingles
C) All adults over age 60, regardless of whether they have had shingles
D) Any age group that has not had chickenpox
Page 34
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Chapter 32: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4227
Sample Questions
Q1) Colon cancer can be visualized during a(n)
A) EGD.
B) colonoscopy.
C) barium enema.
D) CT scan.
Q2) Mr. Simon Garfield recently was diagnosed with cancer of the GI tract. Cancer can develop in any of the gastrointestinal organs. Identify four of the primary causes or contributing factors in the development of GI system cancers.
Q3) Endemic disease is widespread in a particular geographic area.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cirrhosis of the liver may be caused by excessive fat deposits in liver tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Advanced cirrhosis of the liver can lead to portal hypertension.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Any disorder or enlargement of the lymph nodes is called __________.
Q7) Regional ileitis is also known as __________.
Q8) The gallbladder is located in the __________ of the abdomen.
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Chapter 33: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4228
Sample Questions
Q1) In a(n) __________ procedure, an electric current or laser is used to destroy cancer cells in the lining of the bladder.
Q2) ED medications are contraindicated in patients with a history of MI or CVA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________________________ causes genital warts.
Q4) Which of the following diagnostic studies is performed on a patient with symptoms of urinary tract obstruction?
A) Arteriography
B) Arthroscopy
C) Cholangiography
D) Myelography
E) Pyelography
Q5) Lasix can be used to help control urinary incontinence.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Polycystic kidney disease is a genetic disorder that occurs only in male children. A)True B)False
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Chapter 34: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4229
Sample Questions
Q1) Mammography uses sonograms to create an image of the breast.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Stage ______ is the stage of labor in which the placenta is delivered.
A) I
B) II
C) III
Q3) Pregnancy is confirmed when the hormone __________ is found in the urine.
Q4) Bleeding between menses is called
A) metrorrhagia.
B) menorrhagia.
C) amenorrhea.
D) dysmenorrhea.
Q5) An ectopic pregnancy occurs in the inferior uterine wall.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Condoms cannot be used if either partner is allergic to vinyl.
A)True
B)False
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Q7) A woman is considered _____________ if she has had two or more pregnancies.
Chapter 35: Assisting in Pediatrics
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4230
Sample Questions
Q1) Overweight and obese children may have sleep apnea.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The medical assistant is not responsible for reporting child abuse to appropriate authorities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Infants with diarrhea should be weighed with the diaper on to prevent transmission of potentially infectious material.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe how to manage the following patient scenarios.
a. A crying 8-month-old being seen today for possible otitis media
b. A 4-year-old who requires vision screening
c. An 8-year-old who needs a booster shot
d. A 16-year-old female patient who is scheduled for her first Gardasil injection
Q5) A varicella infection in pregnant women may cause stillbirth or birth defects.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4231
Sample Questions
Q1) A painful sports injury may be treated with a TENS unit.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient prescribed prednisone repeatedly for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis may be at risk for developing osteoporosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A diet rich in calcium and vitamin K is important for musculoskeletal health.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which type of fracture is common in young children?
A) Stress
B) Greenstick
C) Transverse
D) Comminuted
Q5) Turning the palm of the hand in a posterior position is called
A) extension.
B) dorsiflexion.
C) pronation.
D) abduction.
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4232
Sample Questions
Q1) MS is diagnosed most frequently in the southern U.S. states, and adolescent females are affected most often.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A primary symptom of meningitis is a stiff neck.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The parasympathetic nervous system slows the heart rate, constricts the bronchioles, and increases digestive system function.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The mother of a 10-year-old boy calls the office, concerned about her son. He fell a little while ago and hit his head. She wants to know what signs she should look for to determine whether he has a head injury. Summarize four immediate signs that might occur. She also wants to know what she should look out for in the next few days. Include in your explanation four possible signs and symptoms that may occur a few days after a head injury. Should the child be seen by the physician?
Q5) The _____________ is the largest and uppermost section of the brain.
Q6) The __________________ closely regulates what substances enter the brain tissue.
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Endocrinology
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4233
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an acute complication of diabetes mellitus?
A) Diabetic ketoacidosis
B) Diabetic retinopathy
C) Diabetic neuropathy
D) Infection
E) All of the above
Q2) A patient diagnosed with _______________ has a deficiency of all the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary; therefore, the symptoms reflect systemic inactivity of all of the glands stimulated by the anterior pituitary hormones.
Q3) Another term for __________ is somatotropic hormone, which stimulates tissue growth at the epiphyseal plates in children before puberty.
Q4) __________ goiters occur because of lack of iodine in the diet in specific geographic locations.
Q5) Symlin is an injectable drug that may be prescribed to patients with diabetes type 2 to prevent a rapid increase in blood glucose levels after eating.
A)True
B)False
Q6) __________ results in fruity-smelling breath.
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4234
Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient is diagnosed with viral pneumonia, the WBC count will not be normal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Clubbing of the fingers in a patient with emphysema is caused by
A) chronic tissue hypoxia.
B) low blood glucose levels.
C) complications from medications.
D) congestive heart failure.
Q3) Which respiratory action is initiated by a signal from the medulla oblongata?
A) Expiration
B) Inspiration
C) Ventilation
D) Exhalation
Q4) The correct position for a spirometry test is
A) semi-Fowler's position on the exam table.
B) upright with the chin tucked into the chest.
C) upright with the chin slightly elevated and the neck extended.
D) standing.
Q5) Inflammation of the membranes surrounding the lungs is called __________.
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Cardiology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4235
Sample Questions
Q1) A symptom of chronic peripheral vascular disease is __________.
Q2) A bruit may be palpated over the site of an abdominal aneurysm.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most distal part of the electrical system of the heart is the Purkinje fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What procedure is described as a chemical injected into the vein to cause irritation and scarring inside the vein, closing it off?
A) Sclerotherapy
B) Endovenous ablation therapy
C) Vein stripping and ligation
D) Endoscopic vein surgery
Q5) Which statement is true about a Doppler study?
A) It requires IV injection of a dye.
B) It picks up the speed of RBCs as they travel through the vessel.
C) It must be performed in a hospital.
D) All of the above are true.
Q6) Patients with __________ must pay particular attention to a sudden weight gain.
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients suffering from __________ experience periodic jerking of the legs during sleep.
Q2) Aging changes in the lungs include a decrease in the ability of lung tissue to move freely with inspiration and expiration because of changes in __________ fibers.
Q3) Which of the following changes in the aging patient are directly related to the individual's activity level?
A) Height
B) Weight
C) Muscular
D) Skeletal
Q4) Grace Glasgow, an 86-year-old patient, has a combination of presbyopia and macular degeneration. How can the medical assistant help Miss Glasgow around the office?
Q5) The medical assistant may perform a(n) __________ to assess a patient's ability to write, calculate, and recall facts.
Q6) __________ is the severe loss of intellectual ability.
Q7) Memantine (Namenda) is frequently used to treat __________.
Q8) A medication that can be prescribed to treat osteoporosis is __________.
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Chapter 42: Principles of Electrocardiography
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4237
Sample Questions
Q1) The P wave shows the beginning of cardiac depolarization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patients should not hold their breath during the brief seconds necessary to record an ECG.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Summarize the immediate treatment of an MI. Explain why certain medications are administered.
Q4) Tachycardia is defined as
A) a faster than normal heart rate.
B) a condition in which the patient has difficulty breathing when lying down.
C) dizzy spells.
D) a condition in which the heartbeat is irregular.
Q5) The __________ is a combination of all of the electric events that occur in the heart during a single heartbeat.
Q6) The precordial, or chest, leads are __________ and are designated V<sub>1</sub>, V<sub>2</sub>, V<sub>3</sub>, V<sub>4</sub>, V<sub>5</sub>, and V<sub>6</sub>.
Q7) ECG paper has horizontal and vertical lines at __________ intervals.
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Chapter 43: Assisting with Diagnostic Imaging
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4238
Sample Questions
Q1) Diverticulosis may be diagnosed with which procedure?
A) UGI
B) LGI
C) Abdominal sonography
D) MRI with iodine dye
Q2) __________ is a procedure in which a catheter is used to open or widen a blood vessel.
Q3) What medical term means "toward or nearest the trunk of the body"?
A) Proximal
B) Distal
C) Superficial
D) Deep
Q4) You have a patient scheduled for an MRI. What should you include in the patient education?
A) It cannot be done if the patient is allergic to iodine.
B) The MRI uses advanced radiation technology to provide the physician with a multiple view of the area.
C) A very loud tapping noise is heard throughout the procedure.
D) The patient does not have to enter the machine, unlike with a CT scan.
Q5) AP stands for __________.
46
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Chapter 44: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4239
Sample Questions
Q1) The bottom diamond (white) of the national fire protection association identification system indicates which of the following?
A) Flammability
B) Health hazard
C) Special hazard information
D) Reactivity or stability hazard
Q2) Laboratory tests performed in a physician's office are most likely to be categorized as
A) waived.
B) moderate complexity.
C) high complexity.
D) A and B
Q3) The microscopic analysis of cells is the science of __________.
Q4) Immersion oil prevents refraction of the light and improves the resolution of the magnified image.
A)True
B)False
Q5) For a quantitative test, the result is expressed numerically.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4240
Sample Questions
Q1) Urine suspected of having high levels of which substance should be stored in a dark place before testing?
A) Sugar
B) Red blood cells
C) Bacteria
D) Bilirubin
Q2) ____________ casts are not uncommon in the urine of athletes.
Q3) Polyuria is common in which of the following clinical situations?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Dehydration
C) Renal failure
D) Urinary tract infections
Q4) Which of the following urine specimens are used in diabetes screening and for home diabetes testing programs?
A) Random specimens
B) First morning specimens
C) 2-hour postprandial urine specimens
D) 24-hour urine specimens
Q5) ___________ may be the first indication of diabetes mellitus.
Q6) The sugar most commonly found in urine is __________.
48
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Blood Collection
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86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4241
Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) ___________ is applied to the skin 30 to 60 seconds before the blood draw to prevent infection at the puncture site.
Q2) Which of the following collection containers is used to test neonates for certain metabolic disorders?
A) Reagent strip
B) Capillary tubes
C) Microcontainers
D) Guthrie card
Q3) Which of the following Vacutainer tubes is routinely used for hematology testing?
A) Lavender topped
B) Red topped
C) Green topped
D) Light blue topped
Q4) A tourniquet should never be used when a venous blood sample is to be drawn from the hand.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the information required on the laboratory requisition.
Q6) The typical site for a capillary puncture in an adult is the __________ finger.
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Chapter 47: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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81 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In performance of a microhematocrit
A) whole coagulated blood must be used.
B) the capillary tube must be completely filled and sealed on one end.
C) the open end of the capillary tube should be sealed with clay before centrifuging.
D) the capillary tubes should be centrifuged in a labeled, sealed Vacutainer tube.
Q2) Increases in the WBC count that are not related to disease are seen in pregnant women and individuals facing extreme stress.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Using capillary blood from a finger, the Cholestech LDX analyzer is capable of measuring which of the following?
A) HDL, LDL, and VLDL
B) TC/HDL ratio
C) Glucose
D) All of the above
Q4) The smallest of the formed elements in the peripheral blood is a cell fragment that assists with clotting; it is known as a(n) ___________________.
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Negative rapid strep test results must be confirmed with a throat culture, because the rapid strep test is highly specific but not highly sensitive.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which color indicates gram-positive bacteria?
A) Pink
B) Purple
C) Blue
D) Green
Q3) Specimens should be collected during the acute phase of an illness and 24 hours after antibiotics are prescribed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Malaria is diagnosed from a stained blood sample that is examined under the microscope for the protozoal parasite.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The goal of maintaining the quality of a specimen is to make sure it remains
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Chapter 49: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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63 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4244
Sample Questions
Q1) Match the Mayo scissors with the appropriate description and/or function. (Select all that apply.)
A) 4 to 5 inches long
B) Most frequently used length is 5 inches
C) Usual length is 4 inches
D) 5 to 6 inches long
E) Blade has beak or hook
F) Curved or straight blade tips
G) Used to cut and dissect fascia and muscle
H) Can be used as suture scissors
Q2) A(n) __________ is a metal rod with a smooth, rounded tip that is placed into a hollow instrument to reduce injury to body tissues during insertion of the instrument.
Q3) A localized collection of pus that causes tissue destruction is called a(n)
Q4) The recommended method for cleaning sharp instruments is to
A) use an ultrasonic cleaner.
B) wear appropriate PPE.
C) use the proper concentration of disinfectant.
D) rinse instruments with sterile water before sterilizing.
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Chapter 50: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting with Surgical Procedures
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bandage materials is superior for covering round narrow surfaces such as fingers or toes?
A) Plain roller gauze
B) Wrinkled crepe-type roller bandage
C) Elastic bandage
D) Seamless tubular gauze bandage
E) All of the above
Q2) If correctly done, autoclaving destroys even __________, the dormant form of bacteria.
Q3) Which of the following methods is the most current absolute indication that the proper sterilization time, temperature, and steam have been maintained?
A) Autoclave tape
B) Spore strip indicators
C) Rapid-readout biological indicators
D) Both B and C
E) All of the above
Q4) Techniques for medical asepsis create a sterile environment.
A)True
B)False
53
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Chapter 51: Career Development and Life Skills
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4246
Sample Questions
Q1) The Internet is one of the most important tools the medical assistant can use to find out about job opportunities and information on healthcare facilities in the area.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The cover letter
A) is always optional.
B) should only be sent when an interview has been arranged. C) should always be sent along with a résumé. D) should be approximately two pages long.
Q3) The requirements for a specific job should be compared with the __________ listed on the medical assistant's résumé.
Q4) A return offer made by a person who has rejected an offer or job is called a(n) __________.
Q5) __________ each résumé to get better results during the job search.
Q6) Transferable skills, such as the ability to communicate effectively, can be taken from one job to another.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Medical assistants must evaluate their own __________ and weaknesses.
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