Clinical Laboratory Science
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Laboratory Science is an interdisciplinary course that introduces students to the theoretical principles and practical applications of laboratory testing in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disease. The course covers key areas such as hematology, clinical chemistry, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics, emphasizing the role of laboratory professionals in supporting patient care through accurate and timely analysis of biological samples. Students gain proficiency in standard laboratory techniques, quality assurance, and the interpretation of test results, along with an understanding of laboratory safety, ethics, and regulatory requirements.
Recommended Textbook
Hematology in Practice 2nd Edition by Betty Ciesla
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
19 Chapters
414 Verified Questions
414 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3886 Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Hematology and Basic Laboratory Practice
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77408
Sample Questions
Q1) Proper mixing of samples and timely delivery of samples to the laboratory are both examples of:
A) Delta checks
B) Postanalytic variables
C) Preanalytic variables
D) Reflex testing
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is the definition of a reference interval?
A) A solution of a known amount of analyte
B) Materials analyzed concurrently with unknown samples
C) Values established for a particular analyte, given a method, instrument, or patient population
D) Validation techniques on flagged samples
Answer: C
Q3) Standards and calibrators differ from control materials because:
A) An exact amount of analyte is present in a standard or calibrator
B) A variable amount of analyte is present depending on patient samples
C) Standards only need to be within a target range
D) Standards are run to the best estimate of the known value
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: From Hematopoiesis to the Complete Blood Count
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77407
Sample Questions
Q1) Opsonizing antibodies produced by the spleen serve to:
A) Strip the capsule from bacterial pathogens
B) Recycle erythrocyte byproducts
C) Aid in extramedullary hematopoiesis
D) Fight viral infection
Answer: A
Q2) A patient's hemoglobin is 12.3 g/dL.On the peripheral smear, the red cells appear normochromic, normocytic.The hematocrit value that correlates with these data is:
A) 34%
B) 37%
C) 40%
D) 43%
Answer: B
Q3) Bone marrow aspiration is usually required in conditions of:
A) Anemia
B) Hypoxia
C) Leukemia
D) Hepatosplenomegaly
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: Red Blood Cell Production, Function, and
Relevant Red Blood Cell Morphology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77406
Sample Questions
Q1) Most hypochromic cells will have an MCHC that is:
A) Greater than 36%
B) Less than 30%
C) Greater than 27%
D) Less than 27%
Answer: B
Q2) The anucleate mature red blood cell has no ability to produce protein.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The last nucleated stage of erythrocytic maturation is the:
A) Pronormoblast
B) Orthochromic normoblast
C) Polychromatophilic normoblast
D) Basophilic normoblast
Answer: B
Q4) The higher the N:C ratio, the more mature the cell.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Hemoglobin Function and Principles of Hemolysis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77405
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following clinical conditions is a definitive sign of intravascular lysis?
A) Bilirubinemia
B) Decreased RBC count
C) Hemoglobinuria
D) Elevated LDH
Q2) Hemoglobin begins to be synthesized at the polychromatophilic stage of red cell development.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Abnormal hemoglobins have a lower affinity for oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following abnormal hemoglobins will result in a cyanotic condition?
A) Sulfhemoglobin
B) Cyanmethemoglobin
C) Hemoglobin F
D) Hemoglobin M
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: The Microcytic Anemias
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77404
Sample Questions
Q1) The alpha thalassemias result from:
A) Gene deletion
B) Defective alpha genes
C) Iron overload
D) Excessive production of alpha chains
Q2) What is the presumptive clinical condition?
A) Pernicious anemia
B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
C) Iron deficiency trait
D) Thalassemia trait
Q3) A 15-year-old Lebanese boy was sent to the laboratory for an evaluation of anemia and had the following lab results:
A) WBC = 7.5 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) RBC = 5.9 \(\times\) 10<sup>12</sup>/L
C) Hgb = 11.6 g/dL
D) Hct = 36%
Q4) In regards to the thalassemias, the deficit has nothing to do with iron.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: The Macrocytic Anemias
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77403
Sample Questions
Q1) One of the most common pathophysiologies that contribute to folic acid deficiency is:
A) Tropical sprue
B) Intrinsic factor deficiency
C) IDA
D) Infection with Diphyllobothrium latum
Q2) Which of the following terms describes the appearance of the erythropoietic precursors in the megaloblastic process?
A) Ordered arrangement of chromatin
B) Asynchrony
C) Eccentric nucleus
D) Pale cytoplasm
Q3) A bone marrow aspiration/examination is not necessary for patients with megaloblastic anemia.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
8
Chapter 7: Normochromic Anemias: Biochemical,
Membrane, and Miscellaneous Red Blood Cell Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77402
Sample Questions
Q1) The inclusions pictured below are seen with supravital staining only.These inclusions are most likely:
A) Heinz bodies
B) Howell-Jolly bodies
C) Pappenheimer bodies
D) Due to stain contamination
Q2) Individuals with Fanconi's anemia characteristically will have:
A) Intravascular hemolysis
B) Increased Hgb F
C) Ringed sideroblastics
D) Thrombocytosis
Q3) In hereditary spherocytosis, the reticulocyte count will typically be:
A) Less than 0.5%
B) 0.5% to 1.5%
C) 3% to 10%
D) Greater than 10%
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
9
Chapter 8: The Normochromic Anemias Caused by
Hemoglobinopathies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77401
Sample Questions
Q1) In sickle cell anemia, _____is substituted for glutamine.
A) valine
B) lysine
C) adenine
D) leucine
Q2) In hemoglobin C disease, is substituted for glutamic acid.
A) valine
B) adenine
C) lysine
D) leucine
Q3) A blood smear from a patient with sickle cell crisis shows 80 nucleated red cells per 100 leukocytes.The total leukocyte count is 18 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L.The corrected white cell count is:
A) 17,200
B) 9,000
C) 10,000
D) 13,400
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 10
Chapter 9: Leukopoiesis and Leukopoietic Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77400
Sample Questions
Q1) In automated hematology, what is the definition of the delta check?
A) Spinning the sample for hematocrit value
B) Comparison to previous value
C) Flagging criteria
D) Performing a manual platelet count
Q2) There are ___ maturation stages in the neutrophil.
A) five
B) four
C) three
D) six
Q3) Lymphocyte concentrations in peripheral blood are greatest during what age interval?
A) Immediately after birth
B) Older adult (40 to 70 years)
C) Young adult (16 to 40 years)
D) Young child (1 to 4 years)
Q4) The absolute WBC count refers to the percentage of a particular cell counted from the 100 WBC differential.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 10: Abnormalities of White Blood Cells:
Quantitative, Qualitative, and the Lipid Storage Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77399
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are lipid storage syndromes/diseases except:
A) Gaucher's disease
B) Tay-Sachs disease
C) Chediak-Higashi syndrome
D) Niemann-Pick disease
Q2) Pelger-Huët anomaly is characterized mainly by:
A) Neutrophils with gray-green granules
B) Lipid depositions in the cytoplasm
C) Giant platelets
D) Hyposegmentation of the nucleus in the neutrophils
Q3) Infectious mononucleosis is caused by the EBV virus, which infects B lymphocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Toxic granulation in neutrophils is a direct result of:
A) Cytokine production
B) Enhanced lysosome enzyme production
C) Toxic granulation
D) Ehrlichia infection
Page 12
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 11: Acute Leukemias
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77398
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents with generalized lymphadenopathy and a WBC of 100 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L.This hematologic picture would most likely be seen in:
A) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B) Acute lymphocytic leukemia
C) Burkitt's lymphoma
D) Hairy cell leukemia
Q2) Pure erythroid leukemia is defined as:
A) Erythroid precursors greater than 30%, myeloblasts less than 20%
B) Erythroid precursors greater than 50%, myeloblasts less than 40%
C) Erythroid precursors less than 50%
D) Erythroid precursors greater than 80%
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of Auer rods?
A) Composed of fused primary granules
B) Predominantly seen in ALL
C) Predominantly seen in HCL
D) Composed of specific granules
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77397
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are causes of secondary erythrocytosis except:
A) Hypertension
B) Alcohol
C) Sleep apnea
D) Smoking
Q2) Plethora is a condition associated with:
A) Polycythemia vera
B) CML
C) Leukemoid reaction
D) Myelofibrosis
Q3) The JAK2 chromosomal mutation is associated with:
A) Polycythemia vera
B) CML
C) Leukemoid reaction
D) Myelofibrosis
Q4) What is the pathophysiology of the myeloproliferative disorders?
A) Fibroid infiltration of major organs
B) Neoplastic transformation of multipotential stem cells
C) Widespread deterioration of cellular function
D) Splenic sequestration of normal blood cells
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Lymphoproliferative Disorders and Related
Plasma Cell Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77396
Sample Questions
Q1) A significant feature of hairy cell leukemia not seen is other acute leukemias is:
A) Panmyelosis
B) Pancytosis
C) Pancytopenia
D) Panhyperplasia
Q2) The most characteristic change seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with multiple myeloma is the presence of:
A) Microcytic hypochromic cells
B) Intracellular inclusion bodies
C) Rouleaux
D) Agglutination
Q3) Hypogammaglobulinemia is a significant feature in half of patients with CLL.This complication can lead to:
A) Refractory anemia
B) Essential thrombocytosis
C) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
D) Pernicious anemia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 15
Chapter 14: The Myelodysplastic Syndromes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77395
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are associated with the development of the MDSs except:
A) Alkylating therapy
B) Benzene exposure
C) Alcoholism
D) Radiation
Q2) The FAB classification of the MDSs include CML.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Refractory anemia is an anemia that:
A) Has more than 5% blasts in the peripheral blood
B) Is resistant to treatment
C) Will usually demonstrate a hypoplastic bone marrow
D) Demonstrates a 17g deletion routinely
Q4) All of the following are dysplastic changes of platelets frequently seen in MDS except:
A) Abnormal granulation
B) Micromega karyocytes
C) Giant platelets
D) Platelet satellitism
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Overview of Hemostasis and Platelet Physiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77394
Sample Questions
Q1) Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI):
A) Prevents activation of factor X by VIIa
B) Activates the common pathway
C) Inhibits fibrinolysis
D) Inhibits the kallikrein proteins
Q2) The prothrombin group of factors consists of factors:
A) I, V, VIII, and XIII
B) XI, XII, prekallikrein, and HMWK
C) II, VII, IX, and X
D) III, VIII, IX, and X
Q3) Factor III
A)Stabile factor
B)Labile factor
C)Thromboplastin
D)Calcium
E)Anti-hemophiliac factor
F)Fibrinogen
G)Prothrombin
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
17
Chapter 16: Quantitative and Qualitative Platelet Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77393
Sample Questions
Q1) The correct anticoagulant-to-blood ratio for coagulation samples is:
A) 4:1
B) 9:1
C) 1:9
D) 1:4
Q2) The presence of thrombocytopenia and giant platelets on the peripheral smear of a patient is characteristic of:
A) Classic von Willebrand's disease
B) Hemophilia A
C) Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
D) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
Q3) In thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, which of the following statements is the most accurate?
A) It is associated with E. coli O157:H7.
B) It is associated with fever, renal failure, and neurological complications.
C) The organ most affected is the kidney.
D) More males are affected than females
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
18
Chapter 17: Defects of Plasma Clotting Factors
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77392
Sample Questions
Q1) A prolonged aPTT is corrected with factor VIII-deficient plasma but not with factor IX-deficient plasma.What factor is deficient?
A) IX
B) XIII
C) V
D) X
Q2) Which result will be within reference range in a patient with dysfibrinogenemia?
A) Thrombin time
B) Activated partial thromboplastin time
C) Immunologic fibrinogen level
D) Protein electrophoresis
Q3) Which of the following is the most prevalent inherited bleeding disorder?
A) von Willebrand disease
B) Hemophilia A
C) Factor VII deficiency
D) Factor XII deficiency
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 18: Fibrinogen, Thrombin, and the Fibrinolytic System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77391
Sample Questions
Q1) The best component to use for patients with afibrinogenemia is:
A) Whole blood
B) Fresh frozen plasma
C) Tissue plasminogen activator
D) Factor XIII
Q2) An excess of which of the following is indicative of the breakdown of fibrin products within the circulating blood?
A) D-dimers
B) Alpha-2-antiplasmin
C) Protein C
D) Plasmin
Q3) The reference range for a thrombin time is:
A) 20 to 40 seconds
B) 100 to 120 seconds
C) 40 to 60 seconds
D) 11 to 15 seconds
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 19: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77390
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common tests used to detect Lupus anticoagulants include all of the following except:
A) aPTT
B) Kaolin clotting time
C) PT/INR
D) Dilute Russell viper venom test
Q2) Heparin:
A) Inhibits PF3
B) Inhibits thrombin
C) Degrades antithrombin
D) Complexes with protein C
Q3) Coumadin acts in such a way that it:
A) Alters the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent factors
B) Reduces the circulating level of factors III and V
C) Reduces the circulating level of factor I
D) Cleaves carboxyreductase to generate glutamic acid
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21