Clinical Laboratory Science
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Laboratory Science is a multidisciplinary field that focuses on the analysis of bodily fluids, tissues, and other specimens to aid in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disease. This course explores the principles, methodologies, and technologies used in clinical laboratories, including hematology, clinical chemistry, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. Students will gain hands-on experience with laboratory techniques, learn about quality assurance and safety practices, and develop a deep understanding of the clinical correlations that guide patient care. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, problem-solving skills, and ethical responsibilities in the healthcare setting.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey and Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 12th Edition by Betty A. Forbes
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bacterium that has been moved from one genus (Pseudomonas) to another genus (Burkholderia) would be correctly noted as
A)Pseudomonas (Burkholderia).
B)Burkholderia (Pseudomonas).
C)Pseudomonas, formerly Burkholderia.
D)Burkholderia, formerly Pseudomonas.
Answer: B
Q2) Choose the binomial name that is correctly written.
A)Staphylococcus Aureus
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Staphylococcus aureus..
D)Staphylococcus aureus
Answer: C
Q3) Choose the binomial name that is correctly written.
A)Escherichia coli
B)Escherichia coli.
C)Escherichia coli..
D)Escherichia Coli
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics Metabolism and Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major difference between the cell walls of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria is that
A)the peptidoglycan layer in gram-positive bacteria is substantially thicker.
B)the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria contains mycolic acids.
C)gram-positive bacteria contain a cytoplasmic membrane.
D)gram-positive bacteria may have a polysaccharide capsule as a covering.
E)All of the above are correct.
Answer: A
Q2) Transformation is defined as
A)the change of the bacterial genotypes through the exchange of DNA from one cell to another.
B)an internal change in the original nucleotide sequence of a gene or genes within an organism's genome.
C)the process by which genetic elements such as plasmids and transposons excise from one genomic location and insert into another.
D)the uptake of free DNA from the environment and recombination with the recipient's homologous DNA.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Q1) Proper handwashing and hygiene by hospital staff is essential in preventing what type of infections?
A)Chronic infections
B)Latent infections
C)Acute infections
D)Nosocomial infections
Answer: D
Q2) A human infection that results from a microorganism that primarily infects animal populations is referred to as
A)an accidental infection.
B)a zoonotic infection.
C)a secondary infection.
D)a vector infection.
Answer: B
Q3) Infectious processes that develop quickly are referred to as
A)chronic infections.
B)latent infections.
C)acute infections.
D)nosocomial infections.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Q1) The agency that published guidelines known as Universal Precautions to reduce the risk of disease transmission in laboratories is
A)DHEC.
B)OSHA.
C)CDC.
D)EPA.
Q2) Working with biosafety Level 3 agents
A)requires USDA credentials and a postgraduate degree in microbiology or a related field.
B)requires laboratory design features that control air movement.
C)requires that personnel wear protective clothing and devices and enter a decontaminating chamber before leaving.
D)requires that workers have blood samples routinely tested to rule out infection or contamination.
Q3) Universal precautions include
A)use of barrier devices to prevent exposure to skin and mucous membranes.
B)hand washing.
C)avoiding injuries with sharp objects.
D)all of the above.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increased concentrations of CO (5% to 10%) and approximately 15% O is the environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
A)Aerobes
B)Anaerobes
C)Capnophiles
D)Microaerophiles
Q2) Accurate and rapid presumptive identification
A)can many times provide valuable information to clinicians in the early stages of disease.
B)can many times be accomplished by simple procedures in the laboratory.
C)can sometimes shorten hospitalization time and save money.
D)may save lives of infectious disease patients.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Selection of media to inoculate for any given specimen is usually based on
A)the characteristics of the organisms most likely to be involved in the disease process.
B)the likelihood and types of normal flora present at the site.
C)the most likely pathogens of the suspected disease.
D)All of the above are true.
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fluorochrome stain that can be used to detect mycobacteria is
A)calcofluor white.
B)acridine orange.
C)auramine.
D)immunofluorescence.
Q2) In the Kinyoun acid-fast staining method, ___________ replaces __________ in the primary stain solution.
A)increased phenol; heat
B)heat; increased phenol
C)mycolic acid; heat
D)carbolfuchsin; phenol
Q3) After which step in the Gram stain are gram-positive bacteria FIRST distinguished from gram-negative?
A)Crystal violet
B)Iodine mordant
C)Gram's decolorizer
D)Safranin
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Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Q1) A bacterial colony can be described as
A)sufficiently large numbers of a bacterium that can be observable with the unaided eye.
B)derived from a single bacterial cell.
C)belonging to the same genus and species.
D)having identical genetic and phenotypic characteristics.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Reduced O (5% to 10%) and increased CO (8% to 10%) is the environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
A)Aerobes
B)Anaerobes
C)Capnophiles
D)Microaerophiles
Q3) The role of the agar ingredient in culture medium is to
A)provide a nutritional base for bacterial metabolism.
B)solidify the medium and provide a stable culture surface.
C)sterilize the medium and prevent contamination.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Q1) Hybridization methods are based on
A)the ability of two nucleic acid strands that have complementary base sequences to specifically bond with each other and form a double-stranded molecule.
B)detecting phenotypic traits not detectable by conventional strategies.
C)the principles of complementary nucleic acid hybridization with those of nucleic acid replication that are applied repeatedly through numerous cycles.
D)determining the exact nucleotide sequence of a gene or gene fragment obtained from an organism.
Q2) Two nucleic acid strands (a probe and a target) that have complementary base sequences specifically bond with each other and form a double-stranded molecule.
A)Hybridization
B)Sequencing
C)Amplification (PCR)
D)Genotypic
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10
Chapter 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism
Detection
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Q1) A modification of the Ouchterlony method that speeds up migration of an antigen and antibody by applying an electrical current is referred to as
A)double immunodiffusion.
B)counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C)particle agglutination.
D)enzyme immunoassay.
Q2) Polyclonal antibodies are those that
A)react with many different types of antigens.
B)react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.
C)react with many different antigens of one specific organism.
D)can be produced from many different species of host organisms.
Q3) A test procedure that applies a specific fluorescent dye-antibody complex to a slide to which the patient specimen has been applied is referred to as
A)a solid-phase enzyme immunoassay.
B)a direct fluorescent antibody test.
C)an indirect fluorescent antibody test.
D)a radioimmunoassay.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) A method that uses an electrical current to speed up migration of an antigen and antibody is referred to as
A)double immunodiffusion.
B)counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C)particle agglutination.
D)enzyme immunoassay.
Q2) Antibodies that function by binding to and blocking surface receptors for host cells are called
A)opsonizing antibodies.
B)neutralizing antibodies.
C)complement-fixing antibodies.
D)chemotaxic antibodies.
Q3) Antibodies that function by attaching to the surface of pathogens and contributing to their destruction by the lytic action of complement are called A)opsonizing antibodies.
B)neutralizing antibodies.
C)complement-fixing antibodies.
D)chemotaxic antibodies.
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Chapter 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance
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Q1) Antimicrobial agents that usually kill target organisms are said to be
A)bactericidal.
B)antibiotic.
C)bacteriostatic.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Polymyxin B
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and RNA synthesis inhibition
Q3) Ciprofloxacin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and RNA synthesis inhibition
Q4) Tetracycline
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and RNA synthesis inhibition
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Chapter 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for
Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) Enterococcal high-level gentamicin resistance predicts resistance to A)vancomycin.
B)aminoglycosides.
C)cephalosporins.
D)amikacin.
Q2) The concentrations in a broth dilution test that separate the categories of susceptible, intermediate, and resistant are called A)minimum inhibitory concentrations.
B)tolerance limits.
C)breakpoints.
D)border concentrations.
Q3) Criteria for establishing a bacterial isolate as clinically significant include A)cultivation of the organism from a clinical specimen.
B)detection and/or the abundance of the organism on direct specimen Gram stain in the presence of white blood cells.
C)predominance of the organism in specimen cultures.
D)its antimicrobial susceptibility results.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) This virulent and important human pathogen can also be recovered from the nares, perineum, and other skin sites of healthy people, especially in the hospital setting.
A)Micrococcus luteus
B)Staphylococcus intermedius
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)All Micrococcaceae
Q2) The resident human flora staphylococcus that is more likely to cause infections in compromised hosts such as cancer patients is
A)Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Staphylococcus epidermidis.
D)Staphylococcus intermedius.
Q3) The species of Staphylococcus that is one of the most important human pathogens is
A)Staphylococcus luteus.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Staphylococcus mucilaginosus.
D)Staphylococcus intermedius.
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Chapter 14: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Not only normal flora of humans and animals, this genus of bacteria contains agents of important diseases such as rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis, and exudative pharyngitis.
A)Staphylococcus
B)Streptococcus
C)Enterococcus
D)Micrococcus
Q2) Optochin, PYR, bile solubility, esculin, and 6.5% NaCl are tests most likely performed on a/an
A)alpha-hemolytic streptococcus.
B)beta-hemolytic streptococcus.
C)nonhemolytic streptococcus.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) What morphologic feature is a major consideration in determining an identification scheme for streptococci?
A)Colony shape and color
B)Hemolytic pattern
C)Smell
D)Consistency
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Suspect spore-forming gram-positive bacilli that are hemolytic, motile, and penicillin-resistant and that produce a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar can be identified as
A)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B)Bacillus anthracis.
C)Bacillus cereus.
D)Corynebacterium jeikeium.
Q2) Suspect spore-forming gram-positive bacilli that are nonhemolytic, nonmotile, and penicillin-susceptible, and that produce a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar can be identified as
A)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B)Bacillus anthracis.
C)Bacillus cereus.
D)Corynebacterium jeikeium.
Q3) Induction of capsule formation by B.anthracis can be accomplished with A)5% sheep blood agar.
B)PLET agar.
C)bicarbonate agar.
D)urea agar.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 16: Listeria, Corynebacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A catalase-positive, gram-positive bacillus that is not acid-fast, does not branch, and does not form spores could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Mycobacterium
Q2) Primary inoculation to a Loeffler slant, overnight incubation, and subculture of any growth to cystine-tellurite blood agar is no longer recommended for recovery of
A)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B)Bacillus anthracis.
C)Bacillus cereus.
D)Corynebacterium jeikeium.
Q3) A bacterium described as being coryneform has which type of morphology?
A)Short rods with rounded ends arranged singly, in "palisades" of parallel cells
B)Short rods in pairs that remain connected after cell division to form V or L shapes
C)Bacilli that resemble and are often referred to as Chinese letters
D)All of the above are correct.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Erysipelothirix, Lactobacillus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A catalase-negative, non-spore-forming, gram-positive rod that is not acid-fast could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Erysipelothrix
Q2) Large numbers of large gram-positive bacilli are typical elements of a wet mount and Gram stain of vaginal secretions from a patient who has
A)bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis.
B)no apparent vaginal infection.
C)bacterial vaginosis caused by Lactobacillus sp.
D)gonorrhea
Q3) Erysipelothrix can be described as
A)catalase-negative
B)not acid-fast
C)not branching
D)non-spore-forming
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 18: Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia,
and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Nocardia spp.cause which of the following types of infections in immunocompetent individuals?
A)Urinary tract infections
B)Disseminated infections
C)Skin abscesses or cellulites
D)Invasive pulmonary infections
Q2) Partially acid-fast aerobic actinomycetes include
A)Nocardia.
B)Rhodococcus
C)Gordona
D)Tsukamurella
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Nocardia spp.cause which of the following types of infections in immunocompromised individuals?
A)Mycetoma
B)Lymphocutaneous infections
C)Skin abscesses or cellulites
D)Invasive pulmonary infections
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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) Acid slant, acid butt, no H S
A)Salmonella species
B)Escherichia coli
C)Proteus species
D)Pseudomonas species
Q2) Which of the following bacteria are etiologic agents of foodborne gastroenteritis in the United States?
A)Shigella species
B)Salmonella species
C)Yersinia enterocolitica
D)Escherichia coli
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) The swarming gram-negative bacillus that can be presumptively identified based on a positive indole test is
A)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
B)Proteus vulgaris.
C)Enterobacter aerogenes.
D)Escherichia coli.
E)Shigella sonnei.
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Chapter 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) Differentiation of S.maltophilia and Burkholderia cepacia is best accomplished by A)the oxidase test.
B)maltose and glucose medium.
C)tyrosine-enriched heart infusion agar.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) An organism that can be described as oxidase-negative, MacConkey agar-positive, glucose nonfermenter is likely
A)Escherichia.
B)Pseudomonas.
C)Acinetobacter.
D)Moraxella.
Q3) The primary drug of choice for infections caused by S.maltophilia is
A)a beta-lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside.
B)trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
C)ticarcillin/clavulanic acid.
D)chloramphenicol.
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Chapter 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Excluding Enterobacteriaceae, name the second most common gram-negative bacilli encountered in clinical specimens.
A)Pseudomonas
B)Burkholderia
C)Ralstonia
D)Vibrio
Q2) Of the species of Burkholderia, which is the one most commonly found in clinical specimens?
A)Burkholderia ralstonia
B)Burkholderia pseudomallei
C)Burkholderia mallei
D)Burkholderia cepacia
Q3) All Brevundimonas, Burkholderia, Ralstonia, Pseudomonas, and Acidovorax share which of the following characteristics?
A)Oxidase-positive
B)Utilize glucose oxidatively
C)Able to grow on MacConkey agar
D)None of the above are correct.
E)All of the above are correct.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar
Organisms
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Q1) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Psychrobacter immobilis.
A)Environmental only, not human flora
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q2) The most common type of infection caused by both Rhizobium radiobacter and Ochrobactrum anthropi is
A)peritonitis.
B)endocarditis.
C)meningitis.
D)bacteremia .
Q3) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Rhizobium radiobacter.
A)Environmental
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
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24
Chapter
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Q1) The natural habitat of Chryseobacterium sp.can best be described as
A)the mucous membranes of animals.
B)the gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)the natural environment.
D)the genitourinary tract of animals.
Q2) Among the yellow-pigmented, oxidase-positive, glucose oxidizers that are occasionally encountered in human specimens are
A)Chryseobacterium meningosepticum.
B)Flavobacterium meningosepticum.
C)Sphingobacterium spiritivorum.
D)Empedobacter brevis.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Chryseobacterium.
A)Environmental
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
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Page 25
Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Achromobacter, Alcaligenes, and Bordetella are all
A)MacConkey-positive.
B)oxidase-positive.
C)nonglucose utilizers.
D)All of the above are correct.
E)None of the above are correct.
Q2) The organism most frequently associated with various infections in humans is A)Bordetella.
B)Oligella.
C)Achromobacter.
D)Roseomonas.
Q3) True or False? The lack of validated in vitro susceptibility testing methods does not allow definitive treatment and testing guidelines to be given for B.parapertussis. A)True
B)False
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26
Chapter 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and
Chromobacterium Violaceum
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Q1) Aeromonas, Vibrio, and Plesiomonas are all
A)oxidase-negative, glucose-fermenting, gram-negative bacilli that grow on MacConkey agar.
B)oxidase-positive, glucose-oxidizing, gram-negative bacilli that grow on MacConkey agar.
C)oxidase-positive, glucose-fermenting, gram-negative bacilli that grow on MacConkey agar.
D)oxidase-positive, non-glucose-utilizing, gram-negative bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar.
Q2) Stool specimens suspected of containing which enteric pathogen should be collected and transported only in Cary-Blair medium because buffered glycerol saline is toxic for this bacterium?
A)Vibrio
B)Salmonella
C)Shigella
D)Plesiomonas
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Chapter 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Oxidase-positive, glucose-positive, (oxidatively) gram-negative bacilli that cannot grow on MacConkey agar include
A)Pseudomonas.
B)Vibrio.
C)Stenotrophomonas.
D)Sphingomonas.
Q2) Which statement best describes the habitats of Acidovorax, Sphingobacterium, and Sphingomonas?
A)The habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B)The habitats are unknown.
C)The habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D)The habitats are limited mostly to water sources.
Q3) A yellow-pigmented, gram-negative rod on blood agar but not MacConkey that is indole- and urease-negative, oxidase-positive, and positive on wet mount motility testing is most likely
A)Treponema.
B)Leptospira.
C)Borrelia.
D)Sphingomonas.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Moraxella
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Q1) Differentiation of Neisseria elongata subsp.glycolytica from other Moraxella species can best be done by testing for
A)the ability to utilize acetate.
B)the ability to liquefy serum.
C)glucose utilization tests.
D)growth on MacConkey agar.
Q2) The species of Moraxella that is most commonly associated with human infections, primarily of the respiratory tract, is
A)Moraxella catarrhalis.
B)Moraxella lacunata.
C)Moraxella canis.
D)Moraxella atlantae.
Q3) Differentiation of Moraxella lacunata from other Moraxella species can best be done by testing for
A)the ability to utilize acetate.
B)the ability to liquefy serum.
C)glucose utilization tests.
D)growth on MacConkey agar.
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29
Chapter 28: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli, which bacterial species can be recognized in culture by its bleachlike odor?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Eikenella corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by which characteristic?
A)Its pink pigmentation
B)Its grapelike odor
C)Its large spreading colony morphology
D)Its bleachlike odor
Q3) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar, which one is among the HACEK group of bacteria known to cause subacute bacterial endocarditis?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Although most other clinically relevant gram-negative bacilli are intrinsically resistant to penicillin, it is the drug of choice for infections involving
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis.
B)Eikenella corrodens.
C)Pasteurella multocida.
D)Weeksella virosa.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and is transmitted to humans during close animal contact, including bites?
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
B)Eikenella corrodens
C)Pasteurella multocida
D)Weeksella virosa
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 30: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium,
Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Kingella spp.can be distinguished from Neisseria spp.by
A)its negative test for catalase.
B)its positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)its positive test for catalase.
D)its negative test for oxidase.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Of the following organisms, which can be described as slow or poorly growing, are capnophiles, and will not grow on MacConkey agar?
A)Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
B)Kingella denitrificans
C)Cardiobacterium hominis
D)Capnocytophaga gingivalis
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans can be distinguished from Kingella spp by
A)its negative test for catalase.
B)its positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)its positive test for catalase.
D)its negative test for oxidase.
E)All of the above are correct.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Haemophilus
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Sample Questions
Q1) To increase the sensitivity of direct Gram stain examination of body fluid specimens, the specimens usually are
A)incubated for 18 to 24 hours before staining.
B)centrifuged before staining.
C)examined for at least 1 hour.
D)stained for an additional 5 minutes.
Q2) Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans can be distinguished from Haemophilus aphrophilus by
A)its negative test for catalase.
B)its positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)its positive test for catalase.
D)its negative test for oxidase.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Of the following media, which provides the NAD necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.?
A)5% sheep blood agar
B)Brain heart infusion agar
C)Chocolate agar
D)Nutrient agar
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 32: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Bacteremia, endocarditis, bacillary angiomatosis, cat-scratch disease, and peliosis hepatitis can all be caused by A)Afipia felis.
B)Rochalimaea quintana.
C)Bartonella clarridgeiae.
D)Bartonella henselae.
Q2) Trench fever, bacteremia, endocarditis, chronic lymphadenopathy, and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by A)Afipia felis.
B)Rochalimaea quintana.
C)Bartonella clarridgeiae.
D)Bartonella henselae.
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34
Chapter 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Q1) Organisms belonging to the genus Campylobacter are
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative curved bacilli.
D)gram-negative straight-sided bacilli.
Q2) Parenteral therapy can be defined as that which
A)must be approved and given by a parent under close supervision.
B)is not taken through the alimentary canal.
C)is taken orally.
D)is taken in the form of suppositories.
Q3) The majority of human infections with Campylobacter species are caused by A)direct contact with carriers of the bacterium.
B)contamination of food, milk, or water with animal feces.
C)multiplication of the organism in food products.
D)direct contact with persons infected with the bacterium.
Q4) Antimicrobial therapy for H.pylori infection consists of A)metronidazole.
B)bismuth.
C)tetracycline.
D)All of the above.
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Chapter 34: Legionella
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Q1) Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)faintly staining, thin gram-negative bacilli.
Q2) Specimens for culture recovery of Legionella should be inoculated to
A)BCYE (buffered charcoal yeast extract).
B)Regan-Lowe agar.
C)Löwenstein-Jensen.
D)blood and chocolate agars.
Q3) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s) is necessary?
A)L-cysteine
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 35: Brucella
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Q1) The serum agglutination test (SAT) detects antibodies to A)Brucella abortus.
B)B.melitensis.
C)B.suis.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Persons considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are
A)dairy farmers.
B)livestock handlers.
C)slaughterhouse employees.
D)veterinarians.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Facultative, intracellular parasitic bacteria are those which are
A)able to be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.
B)able to exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.
C)able to be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.
D)can only be cultured inside living organisms like mice.
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Chapter 36: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella
Parapertussis
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Q1) During the paroxysmal stage of pertussis, symptoms are
A)a runny nose and mild cough.
B)severe and violent coughing.
C)neutrocytosis and fever.
D)lymphadenitis.
Q2) Acceptable specimens for detection of Bordetella pertussis are A)throat swabs.
B)sputum.
C)nasopharyngeal aspirates.
D)anterior nose swab.
Q3) Pertussis (whooping cough) is an epidemic disease that is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by A)Brucella species.
B)Bordetella species.
C)Pasteurella species.
D)Francisella species.
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Chapter 37: Francisella
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Q1) One of the most common laboratory-acquired infections that is caused by a Biosafety Level 2 pathogen is caused by
A)Bordetella pertussis.
B)Francisella tularensis.
C)Pasteurella multocida.
D)Staphylococcus aureus.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) F.philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it
A)is oxidase-negative.
B)is hydrogen sulfide-positive.
C)does not hydrolyze gelatin.
D)does not grow in 6% sodium chloride.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Tularemia, characterized by glandular, ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, oropharyngeal, systemic, and pneumonic presentations is caused by
A)Brucella species.
B)Bordetella species.
C)Pasteurella species.
D)Francisella species.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) Sodoku, characterized by swollen lymph nodes, chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains, a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities, and a granulomatous lesion is caused by
A)Streptobacillus moniliformis.
B)Spirillum minus.
C)Bordetella species.
D)Pasteurella species.
Q2) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is caused by acquired S.minus is A)Sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)Monillic fever.
D)Monillic gastritis.
Q3) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is acquired by ingestion of the bacterium is
A)Sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)Monillic fever.
D)Monillic gastritis.
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Chapter 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) Which type of test has the advantage of being able to test for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae from the same specimen at the same time?
A)Culture
B)Molecular assays
C)Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
D)All of the above are true.
Q2) Organisms belonging to the genus Neisseria are
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-negative diplococci.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)gram-negative bacilli.
Q3) Moraxella catarrhalis can be described as a
A)gram-positive diplococcus.
B)gram-negative diplococcus.
C)gram-negative coccobacillus.
D)gram-negative bacillus.
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Chapter 40: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) Recapping a syringe and transporting the needle and syringe to the laboratory ensures the preservation of the anaerobic nature of this type of specimen and A) is the method of a. choice for transporting specimens for anaerobic culture.
B) is not acceptable for transporting specimens for anaerobic culture because of safety concerns involving needlestick injuries.
C) is rapidly replacing other methods of transporting specimens for anaerobic culture because of the effective preservation of the anaerobic nature of this type of specimen.
D) is the method of choice for transporting fluid and other aspirated specimens for anaerobic culture.
Q2) Tissue biopsy taken from a puncture wound
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
Q3) Urine via percutaneous aspiration
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
Q4) Percutaneous lung aspirate
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
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Chapter 41: Laboratory Considerations
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Q1) The most likely identification of an anaerobic gram-positive coccus that is resistant to metronidazole is
A)Streptococcus.
B)Peptostreptococcus.
C)Leptotrichia.
D)Peptococcus.
E)Finegoldia.
Q2) Nonpigmented Prevotella
A)Kanamycin, colistin, and vancomycin-resistant and grow in 20% bile
B)bile-sensitive, kanamycin-resistant, catalase-negative and indole-negative
C)fluoresce brick red or brown to black pigment
D)reduces nitrate and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture
E)sensitive to kanamycin and fluoresce a chartreuse color
Q3) The most likely identification of an anaerobic gram-positive bacillus that produces spores is
A)Bifidobacterium.
B)Eubacterium.
C)Eggerthella.
D)Clostridium.
E)Mobiluncus.
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Chapter 42: Mycobacteria
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Q1) A cell wall that contains N-glycolylmuramic acid and a very high lipid content is a characteristics that is found in which bacteria?
A)Fungi
B)Klebsiella
C)Mycobacterium
D)Enterobacteriaceae
Q2) The most commonly isolated mycobacterium in the United States is
A)M.tuberculosis.
B)M.bovis.
C)M.avium- intracellulare.
D)M.paratuberculosis.
Q3) In identification of mycobacterial isolates, the niacin test involves
A)the accumulation of niacin in the medium in which the organism is growing.
B)the metabolism of niacin to nicotinic acid by enzymatic action.
C)testing the isolate for susceptibility to niacin.
D)utilization of niacin in metabolic pathways to produce nicotinic acid.
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Chapter 43: Obligate Intracellular and Nonculturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) Diagnosis of C.trachomatis is done by which methodology?
A)Cytology
B)Culture
C)Direct detection of antigen or nucleic acid
D)Serologic testing
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The extracellular, metabolically inert, infective form of the Chlamydia is called the
A)reticulate body.
B)elementary body.
C)replicate body.
D)initial body.
Q3) The organisms in the genus Chlamydia can be described as
A)having a replicative form called the reticulate body.
B)having an intracellular infective form called the elementary body.
C)having an extracellular, metabolically inert, infective form.
D)All of the above are true.
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Chapter 44: Cell Wall-Deficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) Which of the following agents lacks a cell wall and is the smallest known free-living form?
A)Chlamydia
B)Mycoplasma
C)Rickettsia
D)Coxiella
Q2) Definitive identification of which of the following organisms is accomplished by hemadsorption techniques?
A)Chlamydia trachomatis
B)Mycoplasma hominis
C)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D)Ureaplasma urealyticum
Q3) Definitive identification of Mycoplasma pneumoniae is accomplished by which technique?
A)Hemadsorption of guinea pig erythrocytes
B)Traditional biochemical tests such as indole and oxidase
C)Direct detection methods such as PCR or ELISA
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 45: The Spirochetes
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Q1) A stage of venereal syphilis characterized by tissue destruction, central nervous disease, cardiovascular abnormalities, eye disease, and granuloma-like lesions is known as
A)primary syphilis.
B)secondary syphilis.
C)tertiary syphilis.
D)quaternary syphilis.
Q2) The most common vector-borne disease in North America and Europe transmitted by the bite of Ixodes ticks is caused by
A)Leptospira interrogans.
B)Borrelia burgdorferi.
C)Treponema carateum.
D)Rickettsia rickettsii.
Q3) Systemic symptoms such as fever, weight loss, malaise, and loss of appetite can be present along with a widespread rash can be seen in patients suffering from A)primary syphilis.
B)secondary syphilis.
C)tertiary syphilis.
D)terminal stage syphilis.
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic
Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Giardia lamblia
A)Feces
B)Blood smear
C)Vaginal secretions
D)CSF
E)Skin scraping
Q2) Entamoeba histolytica
A)Feces
B)Blood smear
C)Vaginal secretions
D)CSF
E)Skin scraping
Q3) Plasmodium falciparum
A)Feces
B)Blood smear
C)Vaginal secretions
D)CSF
E)Skin scraping
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Chapter 47: Laboratory Methods in Basic Mycology
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Q1) Arthroconidia are produced by A)hyphae fragmentation through the points of septation.
B)the rounding up and enlargement of the terminal cells of the hyphae in which there is a concentration of protoplasm and nutrient material.
C)the union of two matching types of Zygomycetes.
D)ascocarps that are multiplied by binary fission.
Q2) The process of reproduction in yeast that begins with a weakening and outpouching of the yeast cell wall and then formation of a cell wall septum between the mother and daughter yeast cells is called A)binary fission.
B)unisexual division.
C)budding.
D)outpouch germing.
Q3) The basic structural unit of the molds are tubelike projections known as A)mycelium.
B)hyphae.
C)germ tubes.
D)pseudohyphae.
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Chapter 48: Laboratory Methods in Basic Virology
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Q1) Concerning the two immunofluorescence methods of diagnosing viral infection, which statement is correct?
A)Direct immunofluorescence is generally more rapid and specific than indirect immunofluorescence.
B)Indirect immunofluorescence is best suited to situations in which large quantities of virus are suspected.
C)Signal amplification of the direct test decreases specificity by increasing nonspecific background fluorescence.
D)High-quality monoclonal antibodies improve the sensitivity and specificity of the direct test.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Lip and genital specimens are most likely collected for the detection of
A)varicella zoster virus.
B)herpes simplex virus.
C)cytomegalovirus.
D)rotavirus.
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Chapter 49: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) Disseminate
A)Condition wherein fungi are present in blood, occurring primarily in immunosuppressed patients and in those with serious or terminal illness
B)The action of bacteria being carried, usually to all organs of the host, where they may grow, invade normal tissue, and produce toxic products
C)A temporary, incidental presence of bacteria in the bloodstream
D)The situation in which organisms are released into the bloodstream at a noncontinuous rate
E)Infections that originate within the cardiovascular system
Q2) A factor that contributes to the initiation of bloodstream infections is A)immunosuppressive agents.
B)broad-spectrum antibiotics that suppress the normal flora.
C)invasive procedures.
D)prolonged survival of debilitated and seriously ill patients.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 50: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) One of the most common causes of bacterial pneumonia in school-age children (5 to 14 years of age) is
A)Haemophilus influenzae, type
B)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C)Streptococcus pyogenes.
D)type A influenza virus.
E)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Q2) The most common etiologic agent of community-acquired pneumonia in adults is A)Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
B)Chlamydophila pneumoniae.
C)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
Q3) Mycoplasma pneumoniae is detected as the most common agent of lower respiratory tract infections among
A)previously healthy patients 2 months of age to 5 years old.
B)adults younger than 30 years of age.
C)community-acquired pneumonia in adults.
D)children of school age.
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Chapter 51: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) Pharyngitis
A)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, and other viruses
B)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, Mycoplasma
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
Q2) Clinical specimens from suspected cases of epiglottitis should be plated at least to
A)sheep blood agar.
B)sheep blood agar and chocolate agar.
C)Regan-Lowe agar.
D)charcoal horse blood agar.
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Chapter 52: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central
Nervous
Systems
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Q1) Organisms may gain access to the central nervous system (CNS) by which route?
A)Hematogenous spread
B)Spread from infections at other sites, such as otitis media
C)Anatomic defects in central nervous system structures
D)Travel along nerves leading to the brain
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The middle layer of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is called
A)dura mater.
B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
Q3) An increase of lymphocytes and other mononuclear cells (pleocytosis) in the CSF and negative bacterial and fungal cultures is referred to as A)meningoencephalitis.
B)aseptic meningitis.
C)encephalitis.
D)pleocytosis.
E)meningitis.
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Chapter 53: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses
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Q1) Conjunctivitis in children
A) Haemophilus influenzae and S. pneumoniae
B) Bacteria, viruses, and occasionally lice
C) S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, and P. aeruginosa
D) Any bacterium, including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E) Chlamydia
F) Actinomyces or Propionibacterium
G) S. aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, and S. pneumoniae
Q2) What is the proper specimen for culture and identification of the agent of acute sinusitis?
A)Aspirated material that has been collected by puncture of the maxillary sinus
B)Drainage material found in the upper respiratory passages that has been collected with a swab
C)Coughed up sinus drainage collected in a sterile cup
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) The most common etiologic agents in acute otitis media in children include
A)Klebsiella pneumococci.
B)Haemophilus influenzae.
C)Streptococcus agalactiae.
D)Moraxella catarrhalis.
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Chapter 54: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) The resident microflora that can colonize the bladder and other structures of the urinary tract is
A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)yeasts.
C)Propionibacterium acnes.
D)All of the above are correct.
E)None of the above are correct.
Q2) Urethritis
A)Infection of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract
B)The isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection
C)Infection of the bladder
D)Dysuria, frequency, and urgency but yielding fewer organisms than 105 colony-forming units of bacteria per milliliter (CFU/mL) urine on culture
E)Inflammation of the kidney parenchyma, calices (cup-shaped division of the renal pelvis), and pelvis
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Chapter 55: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) The predominant organisms in vaginal secretions from normal prepubescent girls and postmenopausal women are
A)lactobacilli.
B)Streptococcus agalactiae.
C)Enterobacteriaceae.
D)staphylococci.
Q2) Nongonococcal urethritis
A)Anaerobic and polymicrobic infections originating from normal genital flora
B)Chlamydia trachomatis
C)Gardnerella, Prevotella spp., Porphyromonas spp., peptostreptococci, Mobiluncus spp.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E)N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis
F)Escherichia coli and other enterics
G)Mumps virus
Q3) An infection of the uterus and its contents during pregnancy is called
A)pelvic inflammatory disease.
B)bartholinitis.
C)cervicitis.
D)chorioamnionitis.
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) GN Broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and select for enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q2) Cultures for isolation of Campylobacter jejuni and Campylobacter coli should be
A)incubated in a capnophilic atmosphere at 42° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
B)incubated in a microaerophilic atmosphere at 35° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
C)incubated in regular room air at 35° C and examined at 48 and 72 hours.
D)incubated in a microaerophilic atmosphere at 42° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
Q3) Stool received for routine culture in most clinical laboratories in the United States should be examined for the presence of at least
A)Campylobacter, Salmonella, and Shigella spp.
B)Salmonella and Shigella spp.
C)Campylobacter and Vibrio.
D)Salmonella, Shigella, and Vibrio.
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Chapter 57: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections
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Q1) An abnormal passage between two organs or leading from an internal organ to the body surface is known as a A)fistula.
B)sinus tract.
C)necrotizing fascia. D)decubitus.
Q2) Meleney's ulcer
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)A slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)A chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
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Chapter
Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) Proper technique for processing clotted body fluids sent to the laboratory for fungal culture is
A)grinding them in a mortar and pestle or glass tissue grinder.
B)placing small amounts of whole material from the clot directly onto media.
C)centrifugation with glass beads.
D)filtration under pressure.
Q2) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis in adults younger than 30 years of age is
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Haemophilus influenzae.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
Q3) Most cases of peritonitis in patients on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis are caused by
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis and S.aureus.
B)Escherichia coli.
C)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
D)Streptococcus spp.
E)viral agents.
Page 60
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Chapter 59: Laboratory Physical Design, Management, and Organization
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Q1) Performance of a new molecular procedure alongside the methodology known as the "gold standard" is validating which characteristic?
A)Accuracy
B)Precision
C)Sensitivity
D)Specificity
Q2) The percentage of individuals with the particular disease for which the test is used in whom positive test results are found is called
A)accuracy.
B)precision.
C)sensitivity.
D)specificity.
Q3) Performance of a new procedure several times on the same sample and evaluating the range of test results would be validating which characteristic?
A)Accuracy
B)Precision
C)Sensitivity
D)Specificity
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Chapter 60: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Criteria that should be considered for rejection of specimens include
A)missing or inadequate information such as clinical diagnosis, current drug treatment, or other helpful facts.
B)illegible physician name.
C)improperly collected or stored specimen.
D)requests of multiple tests on one specimen.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Positive patient outcomes produced through quality management programs in the microbiology laboratory are
A)reduced hospitalization time.
B)reduced cost of stay.
C)reduced turn-around time for diagnosis of infection.
D)appropriate antimicrobial therapy.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Continuous quality assurance in the microbiology laboratory includes
A)monitoring personnel performance and providing education.
B)instrument maintenance and monitoring.
C)checking the performance of media, reagents, and other products.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 61: Infection Control
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Q1) A phenotypic technique that examines an organism's susceptibility to bacterial peptides (proteins) is called A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriocin typing.
E)bacteriophage typing.
Q2) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of serologic typing of bacterial or viral antigens, such as bacterial cell wall antigens of the organism of interest, is called A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriocin typing.
E)bacteriophage typing.
Q3) The classification of a surgical wound as "dirty" refers to A)the lack of cleanliness of the surgical instruments.
B)surgery wounds done in emergency settings where cleansing was not done.
C)a surgical wound that has become grossly infected.
D)the large number of contaminating organisms at the wound site.
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Chapter 62: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that
A)a covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.
B)a covert event is announced and an overt event is not announced.
C)an overt event is announced and a covert event is not announced.
D)an overt event is one that is carried out in the air.
Q2) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe
A)the act of using horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.
B)the act of using microorganisms to intentionally harm the civilian population.
C)the act of using microorganisms to wage war in peace time.
D)the act of using living beings to wage war in peace time.
Q3) The act of using microorganisms to intentionally harm the civilian population is referred to as
A)biosecurity.
B)biocrime.
C)microterrorism.
D)bactiterrorism.
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