Clinical Laboratory Science
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Laboratory Science is an interdisciplinary field focused on the analysis of bodily fluids, tissues, and cells to aid in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disease. This course covers the fundamental principles and techniques of laboratory testing in areas such as hematology, microbiology, immunology, clinical chemistry, and molecular diagnostics. Students will learn about specimen collection and processing, data interpretation, laboratory safety, quality control, and the ethical considerations essential to the profession. Emphasis is placed on developing practical skills and critical thinking necessary for the accurate and reliable performance of laboratory tests within a healthcare setting.
Recommended Textbook
Hematology in Practice 2nd Edition by Betty Ciesla
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19 Chapters
414 Verified Questions
414 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Hematology and Basic Laboratory Practice
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Safety training is part of new employee training in health care and includes:
A) Biological hazards
B) Chemical hazards
C) Environmental hazards
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) What is the most useful corrective action for the microscope when fine details cannot be visualized in immature cells?
A) Open up diaphragm for maximum light.
B) Wipe off lenses with lens cleaner.
C) Get a new slide.
D) Move to a lower power.
Answer: A
Q3) Accuracy is a measurement of the true value of an analyte.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: From Hematopoiesis to the Complete Blood Count
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) T cells are responsible for humoral immunity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of these assays is the best test to assess the bone marrow's response to anemic stress?
A) Hemoglobin value
B) MCV value
C) Reticulocyte count
D) Hematocrit
Answer: C
Q3) A patient with the following values-RBC = 4.01 \(\times\) 10<sup>12</sup>/L, Hgb = 12.5 g/dL, and Hct = 37.2%-will most likely have which of the following RBC indices?
A) MCV = 92.8 fL, MCH = 31.2 pg, MCHC = 33.6%
B) MCV = 92.8 fL, MCH = 33.6 pg, MCHC = 31.2%
C) MCV = 107.8 fL, MCH = 32.1 pg, MCHC = 33.6%
D) MCV = 132.2 fL, MCH = 32.1 pg, MCHC = 33.5%
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Red Blood Cell Production, Function, and
Relevant Red Blood Cell Morphology
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The basic pathophysiology of the thalassemic conditions is a/an:
A) Decreased or absent globin chain synthesis
B) Absence of iron absorption
C) Failure to incorporate iron into the pronormoblast
D) Side effect of iron overload
Answer: A
Q2) The last nucleated stage of erythrocytic maturation is the:
A) Pronormoblast
B) Orthochromic normoblast
C) Polychromatophilic normoblast
D) Basophilic normoblast
Answer: B
Q3) Identify the cell at the end of the pointer.
A) Spherocyte
B) Schistocyte
C) Acanthocyte
D) Normocyte
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Hemoglobin Function and Principles of Hemolysis
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following abnormal hemoglobins will result in a cyanotic condition?
A) Sulfhemoglobin
B) Cyanmethemoglobin
C) Hemoglobin F
D) Hemoglobin M
Q2) Fetal hemoglobin consists of which of the following chains?
A) \(\alpha\)2\(\beta\)2
B) \(\alpha\)2\(\gamma\)2
C) \(\alpha\)2\(\sigma\)2
D) \(\alpha\)2\(\varepsilon\)2
Q3) Oxygen delivery is the primary purpose of hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Intrinsic red cell defects that can lead to hemolysis include:
A) Environmental effects
B) Inherited deficiencies
C) A shift in pH
D) A decrease in G6PD
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Chapter 5: The Microcytic Anemias
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow are characteristics of which of the following disorders?
A) Chronic disease
B) Infection
C) Sideroblastic anemia
D) Inflammation
Q2) The first stage of iron deficiency anemia is termed:
A) Microcytic hypochromic anemia
B) Iron depletion
C) Iron deficiency
D) Iron overload
Q3) One of the gravest clinical problems for individuals with thalassemia major is:
A) Chronic anemia
B) Iron overload
C) Therapeutic phlebotomy
D) Collapsed veins
Q4) In regards to the thalassemias, the deficit has nothing to do with iron.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: The Macrocytic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence of ineffective erythropoiesis in the CBC of patients with megaloblastic anemia are:
A) Anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia
B) Anemia, thrombocytosis, leukopenia
C) Anemia, thrombophilia, leukocytosis
D) anemia, thrombocytosis, leukopenia
Q2) A macrocytosis that is not megaloblastic in origin can be seen in all of the following except:
A) Chemotherapy
B) Postsplenectomy
C) Hypoglycemic patients
D) Reticulocytosis
Q3) Which of the following terms describes the appearance of the erythropoietic precursors in the megaloblastic process?
A) Ordered arrangement of chromatin
B) Asynchrony
C) Eccentric nucleus
D) Pale cytoplasm
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8
Chapter 7: Normochromic Anemias: Biochemical,
Membrane, and Miscellaneous Red Blood Cell Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Red cells that are rigid, provide resistance to malaria, and spoon shaped are termed:
A) Burr cells from kidney disease
B) Spherocytes from hereditary spherocytes
C) Ovalocytes from Southeast Asian ovalocytosis
D) Sickle cells from sickle cell disease
Q2) Which of the following is most closely associated with G6PD deficiency?
A) Continuous intravascular hemolysis occurs.
B) G6PD is a sex linked inherited disease.
C) Splenectomy is commonly done to control symptoms.
D) The majority of the erythrocytes in these individuals are microcytic.
Q3) Spherocytes may enter the circulation via a variety of mechanisms.To distinguish the CBC of a patient with hereditary spherocytosis from the CBC of a patient with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, one could use the:
A) MCHC
B) Hematocrit
C) MCH
D) MCV
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Page 9
Chapter 8: The Normochromic Anemias Caused by
Hemoglobinopathies
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Sample Questions
Q1) In hemoglobin C disease, the majority of the red cells appear as:
A) Target cells
B) Spherocytes
C) Elliptocytes
D) "Bars of gold"
Q2) When the bone marrow temporarily ceases to produce cells in a sickle cell patient, a(n) _____crisis has occurred.
A) aplastic
B) hemolytic
C) vaso-occlusive
D) cardiac
Q3) The hemoglobin variant that is seen frequently in the Southeast Asian population, and migrates with Hgb C at pH 8.6, is:
A) Bart's
B) F
C) E
D) H
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Leukopoiesis and Leukopoietic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The absolute WBC count refers to the percentage of a particular cell counted from the 100 WBC differential.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An adult has a total white count of 4.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L.The differential count is as follows:
Segmented neutrophils 25%
Lymphocytes 65%
Bands 5%
Monocytes 5%
If the normal values for absolute lymphocyte count are 1.2 to 3.4 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L, which of the following is true?
A) The absolute number of lymphocytes is low.
B) There is an absolute lymphocytosis.
C) There is a relative lymphocytosis.
D) There is an absolute and a relative lymphocytosis.
Q3) The primary function of lymphocytes is immunologic.
A)True
B)False
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Abnormalities of White Blood Cells:
Quantitative, Qualitative, and the Lipid Storage Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pelger-Huët anomaly is characterized mainly by:
A) Neutrophils with gray-green granules
B) Lipid depositions in the cytoplasm
C) Giant platelets
D) Hyposegmentation of the nucleus in the neutrophils
Q2) All of the following are mechanisms by which neutropenia is usually produced except:
A) Decreased production by the bone marrow
B) Impaired release from the bone marrow to the blood
C) Increased destruction
D) Bacterial infection
Q3) Which of the following is an unusual complication that may occur in infectious mononucleosis?
A) Splenic infarctions
B) Dactylitis
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) Giant platelets
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Acute Leukemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) The leukemia with a predominance of WBC cells positive for CD41 is:
A) AMML
B) AML
C) AMonoL
D) AMegL
Q2) The cells pictured above are most consistent for:
A) Acute myeloid leukemia
B) Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
C) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
D) Acute erythroid leukemia
Q3) Greater than __of bone marrow cells must be identified as lymphoblasts to meet the WHO definition of ALL.
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 25%
D) 30%
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Chapter 12: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the pathophysiology of the myeloproliferative disorders?
A) Fibroid infiltration of major organs
B) Neoplastic transformation of multipotential stem cells
C) Widespread deterioration of cellular function
D) Splenic sequestration of normal blood cells
Q2) The LAP stain is helpful in distinguishing:
A) A leukemoid reaction from CGL
B) CML from CLL
C) CML from AML
D) CML from ALL
Q3) Tyrosine kinase is an important mediator in leukocyte metabolic pathways because it suppresses:
A) Opsonization
B) Phagocytosis
C) Leukoerythroblastosis
D) Apoptosis
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14
Chapter 13: Lymphoproliferative Disorders and Related
Plasma Cell Disorders
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The CD markers associated with CLL include all of the following except:
A) CD 4
B) CD 15
C) CD 19
D) CD 20
Q2) A significant feature of hairy cell leukemia not seen is other acute leukemias is:
A) Panmyelosis
B) Pancytosis
C) Pancytopenia
D) Panhyperplasia
Q3) All of the following are related to the pathophysiology of multiple myeloma except:
A) Acceleration of plasma cells in the bone marrow
B) Increased levels of tyrosine kinase activity
C) Activation of osteoclasts
D) Production of an abnormal monoclonal protein
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Chapter 14: The Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are associated with the development of the MDSs except:
A) Alkylating therapy
B) Benzene exposure
C) Alcoholism
D) Radiation
Q2) Which of the following chromosome disorders in MDS has a poor predictive influence?
A) Chromosome 7 disorder
B) Trisomy 12
C) Trisomy 13
D) 17q deletion
Q3) The cell at the tip of the pointer is:
A) A basophil
B) A malignant cell
C) A degenerating neutrophil
D) Not a cell; it's an artifact
Q4) A large percentage of the MDSs end in an acute leukemia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Overview of Hemostasis and Platelet Physiology
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following ratios of anticoagulant to blood is acceptable for most coagulation procedures?
A) 1:4
B) 5:1
C) 1:9
D) 9:1
Q2) The anticoagulant known as heparin:
A) Inhibits PF3 activity
B) Inhibits thrombin activity
C) Degrades antithrombin activity
D) Chelates calcium
Q3) Identify the cell at the tip of the pointer (bone marrow smear).
A) Myeloblast
B) Megakaryocyte
C) Nucleated red cell
D) Reed Sternberg cell
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Chapter 16: Quantitative and Qualitative Platelet Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, which of the following statements is the most accurate?
A) It is associated with E. coli O157:H7.
B) It is associated with fever, renal failure, and neurological complications.
C) The organ most affected is the kidney.
D) More males are affected than females
Q2) Which the following test results is normal in a patient with classic von Willebrand's disease?
A) Bleeding time
B) Activated partial thromboplastin time
C) Platelet count
D) Factor VIII and vWF levels
Q3) The presence of thrombocytopenia and giant platelets on the peripheral smear of a patient is characteristic of:
A) Classic von Willebrand's disease
B) Hemophilia A
C) Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
D) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
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18
Chapter 17: Defects of Plasma Clotting Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Factor XI deficiency is also known as:
A) Christmas disease
B) Hemophilia A
C) Hemophilia C
D) Fitzgerald factor deficiency
Q2) Factor assays measure the percentage of activity of a given factor by mixing the patient's plasma with:
A) Normal plasma
B) Adsorbed plasma
C) Factor-deficient plasma
D) Factor-specific plasma
Q3) A prolonged aPTT is corrected with factor VIII-deficient plasma but not with factor IX-deficient plasma.What factor is deficient?
A) IX
B) XIII
C) V
D) X
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19
Chapter 18: Fibrinogen, Thrombin, and the Fibrinolytic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An excess of which of the following is indicative of the breakdown of fibrin products within the circulating blood?
A) D-dimers
B) Alpha-2-antiplasmin
C) Protein C
D) Plasmin
Q2) The process of fibrin degradation is called ______and is controlled by the enzyme
A) fibrination, plasmin
B) fibrinolysis, plasmin
C) fibrination, protease
D) fibrinolysis, protease
Q3) The D-dimer test measures:
A) Fibrinogen deposition
B) Fibrinogen degradation
C) Fibrin degradation
D) Fibrin deposition
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heparin therapy is monitored best by performing routine:
A) PT/INRs
B) anti-factor Xa
C) Fibrinogen levels
D) Bleeding time tests
Q2) Which of the following PT results would most likely be seen in a patient who is on Coumadin and is stable?
A) Approximately 26 seconds
B) Approximately 13 seconds
C) Approximately 40 seconds
D) Approximately 60 seconds
Q3) All of the following are naturally occurring thrombin inhibitors except:
A) AT
B) Prothrombin cofactor II
C) Protein C
D) Plasmin
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