Clinical Laboratory Science
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Clinical Laboratory Science is a dynamic and integral field in healthcare that focuses on the analysis of bodily fluids, tissues, and other specimens to aid in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases. This course provides students with comprehensive knowledge of laboratory techniques, instrumentation, and quality control measures essential for accurate clinical testing. Emphasis is placed on core disciplines such as clinical chemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. Students also develop critical thinking and problem-solving skills through laboratory practice, case studies, and interpretation of laboratory results, preparing them for professional roles within medical and research laboratories.
Recommended Textbook
Hematology in Practice 2nd Edition by Betty Ciesla
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19 Chapters
414 Verified Questions
414 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Hematology and Basic Laboratory Practice
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Standards and calibrators differ from control materials because:
A) An exact amount of analyte is present in a standard or calibrator
B) A variable amount of analyte is present depending on patient samples
C) Standards only need to be within a target range
D) Standards are run to the best estimate of the known value
Answer: A
Q2) Delta checks are used in the hematology laboratory to:
A) Compare past patient results to the current result
B) Verify control accuracy
C) Establish a target range
D) Establish reference ranges for a particular analyte
Answer: A
Q3) If the confidence interval for most laboratories is 95.5%, what is the acceptable range for hemoglobin if a hemoglobin control was run with a mean of 12.5 and a standard deviation of 1.0?
A) 9.5 to 12.5
B) 10.5 to 14.5
C) 11.5 to 15.5
D) 10.0 to 13.5
Answer: B
Page 3
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Chapter 2: From Hematopoiesis to the Complete Blood Count
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Erythropoietin is produced by the:
A) Kidneys
B) Liver
C) Spleen
D) Thymus gland
Answer: A
Q2) Which of these assays is the best test to assess the bone marrow's response to anemic stress?
A) Hemoglobin value
B) MCV value
C) Reticulocyte count
D) Hematocrit
Answer: C
Q3) Antibody-coated red cells that have their antibodies stripped away in the spleen usually reappear in the circulation as:
A) Spherocytes
B) Microcytes
C) Acanthocytes
D) Burr cells
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Red Blood Cell Production, Function, and
Relevant Red Blood Cell Morphology
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Red cell inclusions that are remnants of DNA are termed:
A) Cabot rings
B) Howell Jolly bodies
C) Heinz bodies
D) Pappenheimer bodies
Answer: B
Q2) The last nucleated stage of erythrocytic maturation is the:
A) Pronormoblast
B) Orthochromic normoblast
C) Polychromatophilic normoblast
D) Basophilic normoblast
Answer: B
Q3) Increased plasma cholesterol may lead to the development of which of these abnormal red cell morphologies?
A) Spherocytes
B) Target cells
C) Microcytes
D) Helmet cells
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Hemoglobin Function and Principles of Hemolysis
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fetal hemoglobin consists of which of the following chains?
A) \(\alpha\)2\(\beta\)2
B) \(\alpha\)2\(\gamma\)2
C) \(\alpha\)2\(\sigma\)2
D) \(\alpha\)2\(\varepsilon\)2
Q2) Oxygen delivery is the primary purpose of hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) 90% of in vivo hemolysis is intravascular.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following clinical conditions is a definitive sign of intravascular lysis?
A) Bilirubinemia
B) Decreased RBC count
C) Hemoglobinuria
D) Elevated LDH
Q5) Abnormal hemoglobins have a lower affinity for oxygen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: The Microcytic Anemias
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow are characteristics of which of the following disorders?
A) Chronic disease
B) Infection
C) Sideroblastic anemia
D) Inflammation
Q2) All of the following are symptoms of iron deficiency anemia except:
A) Pallor
B) Pica
C) Vertigo
D) Numbness
Q3) The alpha thalassemic condition that is incompatible with life is:
A) Hemoglobin H disease
B) Bart's hydrops fetalis
C) Alpha thalassemia trait
D) Silent carrier condition
Q4) In regards to the thalassemias, the deficit has nothing to do with iron.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: The Macrocytic Anemias
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intrinsic factor is secreted by the:
A) Parietal cells of the stomach
B) Ileum
C) Thyroid
D) Bone marrow
Q2) Evidence of ineffective erythropoiesis in the CBC of patients with megaloblastic anemia are:
A) Anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia
B) Anemia, thrombocytosis, leukopenia
C) Anemia, thrombophilia, leukocytosis
D) anemia, thrombocytosis, leukopenia
Q3) Which of the following terms describes the appearance of the erythropoietic precursors in the megaloblastic process?
A) Ordered arrangement of chromatin
B) Asynchrony
C) Eccentric nucleus
D) Pale cytoplasm
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8
Chapter 7: Normochromic Anemias: Biochemical,
Membrane, and Miscellaneous Red Blood Cell Disorders
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cells circled below show an eccentric "puddling" of their hemoglobin contents.This is most closely associated with:
A) Stomatocytosis
B) Xerocytosis
C) G6PD deficiency
D) Pyruvate kinase deficiency
Q2) Spherocytes do not function well in the splenic environment because the:
A) Osmotic environment of the spherocyte is impaired
B) Immunologic function of the spleen is impaired
C) Reservoir function is impaired
D) Filtration function of the spleen is compromised
Q3) An anemia that manifests as decreased marrow cellularity, pancytopenia, and a reticulocytopenia is appropriately termed:
A) Megaloblastic anemia
B) Aplastic anemia
C) Sideroblastic anemia
D) Iron deficiency anemia
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Page 9
Chapter 8: The Normochromic Anemias Caused by
Hemoglobinopathies
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hemoglobin variant that is seen frequently in the Southeast Asian population, and migrates with Hgb C at pH 8.6, is:
A) Bart's
B) F
C) E
D) H
Q2) Patients with sickle cell anemia generally have a hemoglobin value between:
A) 2 and 4 g/dL
B) 6 and 8 g/dL
C) 8 and 10 g/dL
D) 10 and 12 g/dL
Q3) The hemolytic anemias are generally classified morphologically as:
A) Macrocytic, normochromic
B) Normochromic, normocytic
C) Microcytic, hypochromic
D) Microcytic, normochromic
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Chapter 9: Leukopoiesis and Leukopoietic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spleen harbors approximately ___ of the white blood cell population
A) one-fourth
B) one-half
C) one-third
D) three-fourths
Q2) All of the following are features of the lymphatic system except:
A) Stimulation of the kidney by EPO
B) Blood filtration
C) Antibody generation
D) Lymphopoiesis
Q3) The N:C ratio in a myeloblast is:
A) 2:1
B) 4:1
C) 3:1
D) 5:1
Q4) There are ___ maturation stages in the neutrophil.
A) five
B) four
C) three
D) six
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Chapter 10: Abnormalities of White Blood Cells:
Quantitative, Qualitative, and the Lipid Storage Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an unusual complication that may occur in infectious mononucleosis?
A) Splenic infarctions
B) Dactylitis
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) Giant platelets
Q2) Dohle bodies consist of:
A) DNA
B) Primary granules
C) Ribosomes RNA
D) Lipid deposits
Q3) All of the following are mechanisms by which neutropenia is usually produced except:
A) Decreased production by the bone marrow
B) Impaired release from the bone marrow to the blood
C) Increased destruction
D) Bacterial infection
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Acute Leukemias
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pure erythroid leukemia is defined as:
A) Erythroid precursors greater than 30%, myeloblasts less than 20%
B) Erythroid precursors greater than 50%, myeloblasts less than 40%
C) Erythroid precursors less than 50%
D) Erythroid precursors greater than 80%
Q2) The monoclonal marker that is often positive in T-ALL is:
A) CD1
B) CD7
C) CD10
D) CD41
Q3) The t(15:17)(q22;q12) is associated with which of the following leukemias?
A) Acute promyelocytic leukemia
B) Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
C) Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D) Acute myelocytic leukemia
Q4) Low-risk ALL pediatric clinical trials require the WBC count to be less than:
A) 20 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) 50 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) 60 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
D) 75 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
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Chapter 12: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myocardial infarctions, transient ischemic attacks, and deep vein thrombosis are likely to be complications of:
A) Chronic myelocytic leukemia
B) Acute myelocytic leukemia
C) Polycythemia vera
D) Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia
Q2) A term describing a peripheral blood finding of leukocytosis with a shift to the left accompanied by occasional nucleated red cells and platelet abnormalities is:
A) Dysplasia
B) Leukoerythroblastic
C) Megaloblastoid
D) Leukemoid
Q3) Pancytosis is a prominent feature of which of the following disorders?
A) Chronic myelocytic leukemia
B) Idiopathic myelofibrosis
C) Polycythemia vera
D) Essential thrombocythemia
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Chapter 13: Lymphoproliferative Disorders and Related
Plasma Cell Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most characteristic change seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with multiple myeloma is the presence of:
A) Microcytic hypochromic cells
B) Intracellular inclusion bodies
C) Rouleaux
D) Agglutination
Q2) The TRAP stain is useful in the diagnosis of:
A) CLL
B) PLL
C) Hairy cell leukemia
D) Hodgkin's lymphoma
Q3) A peripheral blood picture dominated by cells that appear convoluted with an ovoid nucleus and clefting would most likely be seen in:
A) Sézary syndrome
B) Burkitt's lymphoma
C) CLL
D) Infectious mononucleosis
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refractory anemia is an anemia that:
A) Has more than 5% blasts in the peripheral blood
B) Is resistant to treatment
C) Will usually demonstrate a hypoplastic bone marrow
D) Demonstrates a 17g deletion routinely
Q2) One of the key white cell features in MDS is:
A) Hypersegmented neutrophils
B) Auer rods
C) Dohle bodies
D) Pseudo Pelger-Huët
Q3) The cell at the tip of the pointer is:
A) A basophil
B) A malignant cell
C) A degenerating neutrophil
D) Not a cell; it's an artifact
Q4) The blast count in most individuals with MDS is:
A) Less than 10%
B) Less than 40%
C) Less than 5%
D) Less than 20%
16
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Chapter 15: Overview of Hemostasis and Platelet Physiology
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor is measured by both the PT and the aPTT?
A) Factor VIII
B) Factor IX
C) Factor V
D) Factor XIII
Q2) Factor V
A)Stabile factor
B)Labile factor
C)Thromboplastin
D)Calcium
E)Anti-hemophiliac factor
F)Fibrinogen
G)Prothrombin
Q3) Platelet aggregation is dependent on the presence of:
A) Calcium ions
B) Sodium citrate
C) Magnesium
D) Potassium
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17
Chapter 16: Quantitative and Qualitative Platelet Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are platelet adhesion disorders?
A) von Willebrand's disease and Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
B) von Willebrand's disease and Bernard-Soulier
C) Glanzmann's thrombasthenia and Bernard-Soulier
D) Glanzmann's thrombasthenia and congenital fibrinogenemia
Q2) A platelet release defect in which there is a severe lack of alpha granules in platelets is known as:
A) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
B) Chediak-Higashi syndrome
C) Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
D) Gray platelet syndrome
Q3) The autoantibody generated in ITP is directed against:
A) vWF
B) Collagen
C) GP IIb/IIIa, GP Ib/IX
D) Fibrinopeptides A and B
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18
Chapter 17: Defects of Plasma Clotting Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Factor assays measure the percentage of activity of a given factor by mixing the patient's plasma with:
A) Normal plasma
B) Adsorbed plasma
C) Factor-deficient plasma
D) Factor-specific plasma
Q2) Christmas disease is another name for:
A) Hemophilia A
B) Hemophilia B
C) von Willebrand's disease
D) Factor VII deficiency
Q3) Factor XI deficiency is also known as:
A) Christmas disease
B) Hemophilia A
C) Hemophilia C
D) Fitzgerald factor deficiency
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19
Chapter 18: Fibrinogen, Thrombin, and the Fibrinolytic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of fibrin degradation is called ______and is controlled by the enzyme
A) fibrination, plasmin
B) fibrinolysis, plasmin
C) fibrination, protease
D) fibrinolysis, protease
Q2) All of the following are functions of thrombin except:
A) Initiating the platelet release reaction
B) Simulating platelets to product PGI<sub>2</sub>
C) Activating factors V and VIII
D) Activating thromboplastin
Q3) Obstetrical complications like retained placenta or abruptio placenta are leading causes of:
A) Thrombosis
B) DIC
C) ITP
D) TTP
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements describe factor V Leiden except:
A) It is a cause of activated protein C resistance.
B) It is associated with thrombocytopenia.
C) It is associated with increased risk of thrombosis.
D) Is an inherited disorder.
Q2) Coumadin acts in such a way that it:
A) Alters the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent factors
B) Reduces the circulating level of factors III and V
C) Reduces the circulating level of factor I
D) Cleaves carboxyreductase to generate glutamic acid
Q3) Arterial thrombosis is associated with:
A) Slow blood flow
B) Impairment of the fibrinolytic system
C) Atherosclerosis
D) A deficiency of physiologic inhibitors
Q4) Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) usually:
A) Occurs as a result of protein C deficiency
B) Will show an increase in platelets
C) Occurs 5 to 14 days after heparin therapy
D) Occurs only in males
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