Clinical Laboratory Science Exam Practice
Tests
Course Introduction
Clinical Laboratory Science is an interdisciplinary field focused on the analysis of biological samples to aid in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disease. This course explores fundamental concepts and techniques in areas such as clinical chemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. Students will gain practical laboratory skills, learn to interpret test results, understand quality control procedures, and appreciate the critical role of clinical laboratory professionals as part of the healthcare team. The course also emphasizes safety, ethical considerations, and the integration of new technologies and methodologies in clinical laboratory practice.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Diagnostics Fundamentals Methods and Clinical Applications 2nd Edition by Lela Buckingham
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16 Chapters
448 Verified Questions
448 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) In sexual recombination, new combinations of genes are created by which of the following processes?
A) Transduction
B) Crossing over
C) Conjugation
D) Transformation
Answer: B
Q2) Which DNA sequence is complementary to 5'GATTCTCAAAGGACT3'?
A) 5'GATTCTCAAAGGACT3'
B) 3'GATTCTCAAAGGACT5'
C) 3'CTAAGAGTTTCCTGA5'
D) 5'CTAAGAGTTTCCTGA3'
Answer: C
Q3) Recombination between a plasmid and the cell chromosome will result in:
A) Rapid degradation of the chromosome
B) Death of the cell
C) Immediate cellular replication
D) Stable integration of plasmid genes into the chromosome
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) When gene expression is regulated by mechanisms other than the interaction of cis elements and trans factors, the regulation is called:
A) Induction
B) Epigenetics
C) Attenuation
D) Combinatorial control
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is involved in termination of transcription in eukaryotes?
A) RNA polymerase
B) Sigma
C) Rho
D) PolyA signal
Answer: D
Q3) Thalassemias arise from changes in what part of the beta-globin gene?
A) 3' untranslated region
B) PolyA tail
C) Splice recognition site
D) Ribosome binding site
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protein structure characterized by the combination of different proteins that all together are required for protein function is which level of protein structure?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
Answer: D
Q2) ER stress stops protein synthesis in response to what?
A) Unfolded proteins
B) Cell division
C) Amino acids
D) Degraded RNA
Answer: A
Q3) What chemical group is found at the end of peptide chains?
A) Carboxyl
B) Hydroxyl
C) Phosphate
D) Amine
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Nucleic Acid Extraction Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is used to optimize yield of nucleic acid by precipitation or column purification?
A) Carrier molecules
B) Detergent
C) Tris buffer
D) Isotonic saline
Q2) Which of the following will yield the best DNA preparation?
A) Fixed tissue
B) Hemolyzed blood
C) Fresh blood
D) Stool
Q3) In organic isolation of RNA procedures, guanidinium isothiocyanate is added to:
A) Degrade DNA
B) Denature all proteins
C) Inhibit RNAses
D) Separate RNA from DNA
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Chapter 5: Resolution and Detection of Nucleic Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) What concentration of agarose should be used for optimal separation of DNA fragments of 100, 250, and 350 bp in length?
A) 0.5%
B) 0.7%
C) 2.0%
D) 12.0%
Q2) Nucleic acids migrate toward which pole in electrophoresis?
A) Cathode
B) Anode
Q3) A molecular biologist is to separate and analyze a mixture of nucleic acids that are about 100,000 bp in size. Which of the following methods will yield the best results?
A) Capillary electrophoresis
B) Rotating gel electrophoresis
C) Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
D) Traditional agarose gel electrophoresis
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Chapter 6: Analysis and Characterization of Nucleic Acids and Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Southern blot procedure has been performed, but the molecular weight markers are the only bands seen on the gel. Apparently, the probe did not bind to its target on the membrane. How might the stringency be adjusted so that the probe will bind?
A) Decrease the incubation temperature.
B) Decrease the salt concentration.
C) Increase the formamide concentration.
D) Increase the incubation temperature.
Q2) What determines the specificity in terms of the gene or region that is detected in the Southern blot?
A) Nitrocellulose membranes
B) Agarose gel
C) Restriction enzymes
D) Labeled probe
Q3) What was the great advantage to molecular analysis offered by Southern blot?
A) Ability to analyze specific regions of DNA without cloning them
B) A rapid method to eliminate DNA contaminants
C) A more efficient buffer system
D) Ability to analyze nanogram amounts of DNA
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Chapter 7: Nucleic Acid Amplification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Real-time PCR differs from standard PCR in which way?
A) Standard PCR is faster.
B) Real-time PCR is less sensitive.
C) Real-time PCR is quantitative.
D) Standard PCR is more specific.
Q2) The specificity of the PCR reaction is determined by which of the following components?
A) Mg<sup>2+</sup> concentration
B) Deoxynucleotides
C) DNA polymerase
D) Primers
Q3) TaqMan, molecular beacons, and scorpion-type primers are all used in which of the following procedures?
A) Branched DNA assays
B) Quantitative PCR
C) Transcription-mediated amplification
D) Multiplex PCR
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Chapter 8: Chromosomal Structure and Chromosomal Mutations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the proper order for the four phases of the cell cycle?
A) G1, S, M, G2
B) G1, S, G2, M
C) G2, S, M, G1
D) M, S, G1, G2
Q2) Which of the following types of chromatin are open and actively involved in gene expression (transcription)?
A) Heterochromatin
B) Homochromatin
C) Euchromatin
D) Interchromatin
Q3) Chromosomes are divided into different parts, and locations are denoted by numbers corresponding to the different parts in which of the following orders?
A) Sub-band, band, chromosome, region
B) Region, band, sub-band, chromosome
C) Band, chromosome, region, sub-band
D) Chromosome, region, band, sub-band
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Gene Mutations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A reference segment of DNA has the following sequence: GCTCACCATGG. Insertion of AG occurs between positions 7 and 8 in a particular genetic disease. How is this mutation denoted by accepted nomenclature?
A) 7C>AG
B) 7_8insAG
C) 8delAinsAG
D) 7_8delAG
Q2) A reference segment of DNA has the following sequence: GCTCACCATGG. The fourth nucleotide is changed to an A in a particular genetic disease. How would this mutation be denoted?
A) 4C>A
B) 8A>C
C) 4delC
D) C4A
Q3) Mass spectrometry detects what type or particles?
A) Uncharged
B) Ions
C) Very large proteins
D) Hydrophobic
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Chapter 10: DNA Sequencing
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Sanger sequencing method, which of the following when incorporated into the growing strand are used to determine the identity of the base at a particular position in a piece of DNA?
A) ribonucleotides
B) deoxyribonucleotides
C) dideoxyribonucleotides
D) amino acids
Q2) An analysis that takes place in silico is happening in which of the following places?
A) Computer
B) Laboratory
C) Biological organism
D) Tissue
Q3) Sequencing ladders resolved by gel electrophoresis are read in which of the following directions?
A) Top to bottom
B) Bottom to top
C) Across lanes
D) Diagonally
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Chapter 11: DNA Polymorphisms and Human Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are Y alleles inherited?
A) As recombined combinations on two chromosomes
B) As a diploid genotype
C) As a haplotype on one chromosome
D) Maternally
Q2) An individual who has two populations of cells that were derived from two different zygotes is called a:
A) Chimera
B) Mosaic
C) Clone
D) Mutant
Q3) Which of the following is used as a marker of gender?
A) D8S1179
B) Amelogenin
C) TPOX
D) Penta D
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Chapter 12: Detection and Identification of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following targets are used to type molds?
A) ITS
B) 16s RNA
C) ERIC
D) REP
Q2) What is a convenient way to concentrate organisms present in cerebrospinal fluid or urine samples before testing?
A) Heat the specimen to evaporate fluid.
B) Centrifuge the specimen.
C) Freeze and thaw the specimen.
D) Use as large volume as possible in the assay.
Q3) DNA is isolated from a test organism and cut with restriction enzymes. The fragments are ligated to adapters that are complementary to primers that are added to perform two rounds of PCR. The PCR products are separated by gel electrophoresis and analyzed. Which of the following methods was described?
A) Restriction fragment length polymorphism
B) Amplified fragment length polymorphism
C) Pulsed field gel electrophoresis
D) Arbitrarily primed PCR
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Molecular Detection of Inherited Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Seventeen members of an extended family have a gene mutation. Only two of them have the associated phenotype. What is the term for this observation?
A) Complete penetrance
B) Mosaicism
C) Autosomal dominant inheritance
D) Incomplete penetrance
Q2) Missense mutations in cell growth regulator proteins can result in which of the following diseases?
A) Familial hypercholesteremia
B) Muscular dystrophy
C) Neurofibromatosis
D) Phenylketonuria
Q3) A deceased family member is indicated in a pedigree by which of the following?
A) Triangle
B) Shaded symbol
C) Slash through the symbol
D) X across the symbol
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Chapter 14: Molecular Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following targets is tissue specific but not necessarily tumor specific?
A) PML/RARA
B) EWS/FLI-1
C) EGFR
D) BCR/ABL
Q2) Malignant tissue originating in one organ (primary) site is isolated from a different organ. How would this malignancy be described?
A) Benign
B) Necrotic
C) Metastatic
D) Apoptotic
Q3) Specific translocations involving the EWS gene at 22q12 are useful for diagnosis of what types of tumors?
A) Lymphoma
B) PNET/Ewing's sarcoma
C) Adenocarcinoma
D) Adenoma
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Chapter 15: Dna-Based Tissue Typing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are used in crossmatching for organ transplant?
A) Donor serum and recipient lymphocytes
B) Recipient serum and donor lymphocytes
C) Donor serum and recipient serum
D) Donor lymphocytes and recipient lymphocytes
Q2) An HLA haplotype is inherited from:
A) Only the mother
B) Only the father
C) Both the mother and the father
D) Neither the mother nor the father
Q3) What are private epitopes?
A) Molecules that bind to many different antibodies
B) Molecules only found on one individual
C) Molecules that bind to one specific HLA antibody type
D) Molecules that do not bind to any known HLA antibody
Q4) HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C are in what MHC region?
A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
D) Cytokine gene
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Chapter 16: Quality Assurance and Quality Control in the Molecular Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) An unlabeled bottle of clear liquid is found on a shelf. A sign on the shelf says, "Tris-EDTA Buffer, pH 8.0." What is the proper course of action?
A) Use the liquid as Tris-EDTA.
B) Taste the liquid to make sure it isn't saline.
C) Dispose of the liquid.
D) Measure the pH. If it is 8.0, proceed to use the liquid as Tris-EDTA.
Q2) Which of the following organizations provides oversight and governs the use the radioactive materials in the clinical laboratory?
A) National Fire Protection Association
B) Nuclear Regulatory Commission
C) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments
D) American Society for Clinical Laboratory Science
Q3) Which of the following controls can distinguish between a true negative in a nucleic acid amplification assay from a false negative in which amplification failed in the specimen?
A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Sensitivity
D) Amplification
Page 18
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