Clinical Laboratory Science
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Clinical Laboratory Science is a multidisciplinary field focused on the study, analysis, and interpretation of biological specimens in a laboratory setting to support the diagnosis, treatment, and monitoring of diseases. This course provides students with foundational knowledge in areas such as clinical chemistry, hematology, immunology, microbiology, and molecular diagnostics. Emphasis is placed on laboratory techniques, quality control, safety protocols, and ethical considerations in patient care. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and hands-on laboratory experience, students develop the critical skills needed to accurately perform tests, troubleshoot laboratory issues, and collaborate effectively with healthcare professionals.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Laboratory Blood Banking and Transfusion Medicine Practices 1st Edition by Gretchen Johns
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21 Chapters
420 Verified Questions
420 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Immune Process: the Origin and Interaction
Between Antigens and Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true about affinity?
A)Is the sum of all attractive forces between antigens and antibodies
B)Refers to the binding of one or more antigen-binding sites on an antibody to more than one antigenic determinant on a single carrier
C)Refers to the initial force of attraction between one binding site on an antibody molecule and a single epitope of the corresponding antigen
D)Results in increased stability of a reaction
Answer: C
Q2) Adequate time is needed for antigen-antibody reactions to reach equilibrium.The amount of time needed for equilibrium to be reached
A)Is about 30 minutes
B)Is about 60 minutes
C)Is about 90 minutes
D)Varies with each procedure
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Immunogenetics: the Origin of Antigens
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA is defined as
A)Deoxyribonucleic acid
B)Deoxyribonucleic alkali
C)Digoxin neural assessment
D)Diploid nucleotide analysis
Answer: A
Q2) What is the abbreviation for the amino acid glutamine?
A)Gln
B)Glu
C)Gly
D)Gtm
Answer: A
Q3) The site of the gene on the chromosome is the A)allele
B)codon
C)locus
D)null
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Blood Bank Applications of Antigenantibody
Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The antihuman globulin technique is used to detect which isotype of antibody?
A)IgD
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Answer: C
Q2) ______ is the first immunoglobulin class produced in a primary immune response.
A)IgD
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following does not activate complement?
A)IgG1
B)IgG2
C)IgG3
D)IgG4
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Abo and Hh Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many nucleotide differences are there between the A and B genes?
A)3
B)4
C)6
D)7
Q2) Mixed field reaction is commonly seen in the forward ABO test if a group _________ patient has received an emergency transfusion of group ____ cells.
A)A,A
B)A,B
C)A,O
D)O,O
Q3) The red blood cells of the Bombay phenotype appear to be group ____ in routine ABO testing.
A)A
B)B
C)AB
D)O
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Chapter 5: Rh, Rhag, and Lw Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Ce antigen is present when C and e are found in the ____ position.
A)cis
B)co-dominant
C)null
D)trans
Q2) All of the following are frequently encountered Rh antibodies in the transfusion service except
A)Anti-D
B)Anti-c
C)Anti-ce
D)Anti-E
Q3) The C/c antigens arise from a single amino acid difference at position
A)10³
B)215
C)226
D)302
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Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems
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Q1) The full expression of Lewis antigens is not reached until around ___ years of age.
A)3
B)5
C)7
D)9
Q2) How many antigens are in the Kidd system?
A)3
B)9
C)12
D)19
Q3) Detection of anti-i has been associated with
A)hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn
B)infectious mononucleosis
C)paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
D)sickle cell anemia
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Chapter 7: Pretransfusion and Compatibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should be performed if the current antibody screen is positive and/or the patient has a history of clinically significant antibodies?
A)Computer-assisted crossmatch (CAC)
B)Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)crossmatch
C)Immediate spin (IS)crossmatch
D)Indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)crossmatch
Q2) All of the following should be included in a visual inspection of a platelet unit except A)Check for unusual particulate matter
B)Check for hemolysis
C)Check for visible clots
D)Check for Le kage
Q3) In facilities that use the electronic crossmatch,the C:T (crossmatched:transfused)ratio should approach
A)1:1
B)3:1
C)5:1
D)10:1
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Chapter 8: Identification of Unexpected Antibodies
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Q1) Rabbit erythrocyte stroma removes ____ and antibodies in the P blood group system.
A)Anti-A
B)Anti-B
C)Anti-Le
D)Anti-Le
Q2) The chance of finding a ____ antibody screening cell is very small.
A)dCe/dCe
B)C/e/E/e
C)cis-AB
D)DCe/dce
Q3) Which method is preferred for removing autoantibodies?
A)Autologous absorption
B)Allogenic absorption
C)Cutaneous absorption
D)Pathologic absorption
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Chapter 9: Donor Selection, Phlebotomy, and Required Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The AABB Standards require a donor's systolic pressure to be less than or equal to
A)160 mm Hg
B)170 mm Hg
C)180 mm Hg
D)190 mm Hg
Q2) A potential donor who has had sexual contact with someone who has used a clotting factor concentrate manufactured from human plasma should be deferred for how many months?
A)6
B)12
C)18
D)24
Q3) During the informed consent process,a donor must be made aware of which of the following?
A)Hemoglobin or hematocrit result
B)Foreseeable risks of donation
C)Potential benefits to the recipient
D)Transmissible disease testing methods
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Chapter 10: Blood Products: Preparation, Storage, and Shipment of
Blood Components
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Sample Questions
Q1) A high-yield apheresis platelet collection can be divided into more than one platelet apheresis component,as long as each component contains a minimum of how many platelets?
A)1 × 1010
B)1 × 1011
C)3 × 1010
D)3 × 1011
Q2) In which country is the platelet-rich plasma method mostly widely used?
A)Brazil
B)Canada
C)United Kingdom
D)United States
Q3) A single component of platelet-rich plasma produced from whole blood will contain a minimum of 5.5 × 1010 platelets and a total volume of _______ mL.
A)20-30
B)30-40
C)40-70
D)50-80
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Chapter 11: Component Therapy and Massive Transfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following do hematopoietic progenitor cell (HPC)donors routinely receive prior to donation?
A)Desmopressin
B)G-CSF
C)Recombinant EPO
D)Recombinant TPO
Q2) Which of the following is the first treatment step in responding to massive blood loss?
A)Establish an intravenous access
B)Infuse colloid solutions
C)Improve oxygen delivery
D)Restore circulating systemic volume
Q3) Which of the following is not a benefit to using fresh frozen plasma?
A)Helps prevent bleeding due to coagulopathy
B)Improves hemostasis
C)Provides all coagulation factors
D)Provides functional platelets
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Chapter 12: Adverse Reactions to Transfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately how many milligrams of iron does a single red blood cell unit contain?
A)50
B)150
C)200
D)250
Q2) All of the following statements are true about transfusion-related immunomodulation (TRIM)except
A)Cause remains unproven.
B)First recognized in liver transplant recipients.
C)Possible deleterious effects include increased recurrence of cancer.
D)Refers to immune suppression following transfusion of allogeneic blood products.
Q3) According to the 2005 UK SHOT data,the risk of a patient receiving an incorrect blood component is 1 in ____ blood components transfused.
A)100
B)5,000
C)15,000
D)100,000
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Transfusion-Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leukoreduction can reduce the risk of which transfusion-associated virus?
A)CMV (cytomegalovirus)
B)HBV (hepatitis B virus)
C)HCV (hepatitis C virus)
D)HIV (human immunodeficiency virus)
Q2) All the following are methods by which human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)can be transmitted except A)Fecal/oral
B)Parenteral
C)Sexual contact
D)Transfusion
Q3) All of the following transfusion-transmitted infections are also considered to be sexually transmitted diseases except A)Hepatitis C
B)Human immunodeficiency virus
C)Syphilis
D)Toxoplasmosis
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Chapter 14: Perinatal and Neonatal Transfusion Issues
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Q1) All of the following are pregnancy-related indications for Rh-immune globulin injection except
A)Antepartum after abdominal trauma
B)Perinatal after termination of pregnancy
C)Postpartum when fetal death occurred
D)Postpartum when baby is Rh(D)negative
Q2) Which term refers to delivery of a live infant?
A)Gravid
B)Gravida
C)Para
D)Peri
Q3) How does phototherapy reduce the blood bilirubin level?
A)Conjugates bilirubin in the liver to a form that can be excreted in the urine
B)Conjugates bilirubin in the skin to a form that can be excreted in the bile
C)Converts unconjugated bilirubin in the skin to a form that can be excreted by the lungs
D)Converts unconjugated bilirubin in the skin to a form that can be excreted in the urine
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16
Chapter 15: Autoimmune and Drug-Induced Immune
Hemolytic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following can be symptoms of anemia except
A)Brachycardia
B)Fatigue
C)Pallor
D)Tachycardia
Q2) Which of the following is the least common autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
A)DAT-negative autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B)Drug-induced immune hemolytic anemia (DIIHA)
C)Mixed autoimmune hemolytic anemia (MAIHA)
D)Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA)
Q3) Which term refers to the destruction of autologous red blood cells during a hemolytic transfusion reaction that is destroying allogeneic cells?
A)Hemagglutination
B)Hemostasis
C)Hemoglobinuria
D)Hyperhemolysis
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17
Chapter 16: Platelet Refractory Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most common causative agent of drug-induced immune thrombocytopenia today?
A)Amphotericin B
B)Cephalexin
C)Heparin
D)Quinine
Q2) Which condition is not considered prothrombotic?
A)Graft versus host disease (GVHD)
B)Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
C)Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)
D)Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP)
Q3) What is an identical human leukocyte antigen (HLA)match called?
A)A
B)BU
C)C
D)D
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Chapter 17: Transfusion Support of Selected Patient
Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most common inherited disease in people of African ethnicity?
A)Hemophilia A
B)Hemophilia B
C)Sickle cell disease
D)von WilLe rand's disease
Q2) Which of the following is an oral iron chelator?
A)Deferasirox
B)Deferoxamine
C)Dexamethasone
D)Dimercaprol
Q3) Donor and patient red blood cells are typically matched for which antigens when a patient with sickle cell disease is going to be transfused?
A)C,c,E,e
B)C,E,K
C)E,K,S
D)M,N,S
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19
Chapter 18: Human Histocompatibility
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Sample Questions
Q1) The SSO (sequence-specific oligonucleotide)probe hybridization method
A)begins with amplification of the target DNA
B)determines the nucleotide sequence of the entire exon
C)employs primer pairs that are specific for unique sequences within an exon
D)uses two rounds of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Q2) Which type of transplant is frequently used to treat genetic and acquired dysfunction of the bone marrow?
A)Bone
B)B lymphocyte cell
C)Hematopoeitic progenitor cell
D)Liver
Q3) Which of the following is the correct term used for "multiple genes expressed in an individual that produce similar products"?
A)Polymorphic
B)Polygenic
C)Polymerase
D)Pseudogene
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Chapter 19: Methods in Parentage Testing
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Q1) All of the following statements are true regarding short tandem repeat (STR)except
A)Loci are repeated sequences from 2 to 25 base pairs
B)Loci typically occur in noncoding introns
C)Typing tests avoid some of the issues seen with other techniques for DNA testing
D)Typing tests are the principle technology used by parentage testing laboratories
Q2) Mendel's laws of genetics requires ________ of the alleles in the child's sample to be traceable to each parent.
A)one-half
B)one-third
C)one-quarter
D)one-sixth
Q3) Once single tandem repeat (STR)loci have been amplified,what is used to separate alleles by size?
A)Electrophoresis
B)Fluorescent emissions
C)Lasers
D)Reagents
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21
Chapter 20: Transfusion Safety and Regulatory Issues
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Q1) Under which class of medical devices would reagents for diagnostic tests for HIV,HCV,and HBV fall?
A)Class I
B)Class II
C)Class III
D)Class IV
Q2) In North America,the three organizations currently most recognized for accrediting to ISO 15189 standards are all of the following except
A)A2LA
B)AABB
C)CAP
D)OLA
Q3) In what year was the first test used to screen blood donors for HIV licensed?
A)1976
B)1981
C)1985
D)1990
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Chapter 21: Quality Assurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which agency is responsible for regulating transfusion services in the United States?
A)AABB
B)CAP
C)FDA
D)JCAHO
Q2) Regarding record retention,which statement is not true?
A)Facilities must comply with all regulatory retention requirements.
B)Many records are stored electronically.
C)There must be a method for backing up all critical data.
D)Transfusion records must be stored for at least 7 years.
Q3) Which of the following explains document control?
A)A system that standardizes facility documents
B)Activities used to create a controlled environment for processes and procedures
C)Documented evidence that provides a high degree of assurance that a specific process will consistently produce a product meeting predetermined specifications
D)Standardization of an analytic instrument
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