Clinical Laboratory Science
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Clinical Laboratory Science is an interdisciplinary field focused on the analysis of biological samples to aid in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disease. This course covers the principles and techniques used in areas such as clinical chemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. Students learn to operate laboratory equipment, interpret clinical data, ensure quality control, and adhere to safety and ethical guidelines. Emphasis is placed on the critical role of laboratory professionals in healthcare teams and the impact of laboratory results on patient care and public health.
Recommended Textbook
Nesters Microbiology A Human Perspective 9th Edition by Denise G. Anderson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Humans and the Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digestive tract microbiome plays no role in maintaining a person's health.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Bacteria are useful to study because
A) they produce protein in a simpler manner than more complex organisms.
B) they have the same fundamental metabolic and genetic properties as higher organisms.
C) they produce energy in a simpler manner than more complex organisms.
D) they are resistant to all known antibiotics.
E) they produce peptidoglycan in a simpler manner than more complex organisms.
Answer: B
Q3) An organism is categorized in a domain according to its cell size.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Viruses simultaneously contain DNA, RNA, and protein.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) What determines the chemical and physical properties of an atom of an element?
A) Atomic number
B) Neutrons
C) Atomic weight
D) Electrons
E) Atomic size
Answer: A
Q2) Which is NOT True of lipids?
A) They are a major structural element of all cell membranes.
B) They control the movement of molecules into and out of a cell.
C) They separate a cell from its environment.
D) Examples include steroids and phospholipids.
E) They are a homogeneous group of molecules.
Answer: E
Q3) Unsaturated fats have lower melting points than saturated fats.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: Microscopy and Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) A research laboratory is investigating environmental factors that would inhibit the growth of Archaea. One question they have is whether adding the antibiotic penicillin would be effective in controlling their growth. What do you think the outcome would be if they tried this?
A) The penicillin wouldn't affect the Archaea because it prevents cross-linking of peptidoglycan and Archaea don't have this compound in their cell walls.
B) The penicillin will inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis and thus cell wall formation in the Archaea, killing them.
C) The penicillin will slow down the growth of the Archaea by damaging the cell wall, but they will still be able to grow somewhat.
D) The penicillin will enhance the growth of the Archaea by providing a rich nutrient source.
E) The penicillin will inhibit cell division in the Archaea, forcing them to form endospores. Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Dynamics of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physician sends a stool sample to your lab, and wants to know if there are lactose fermenting microbes in the sample. How might you determine if these microbes are present or not from this mixed-microbe specimen?
A) Streak the sample for isolation on Thayer-Martin agar (which contains lactose and particular antibiotics for selectivity).
B) Streak the sample for isolation on a blood agar plate (which contains lactose and red blood cells that enrich the culture for iron).
C) Streak the sample for isolation on a MacConkey agar plate (which contains lactose and a pH indicator that turns pink when acid byproducts are present).
D) Either Thayer-Martin agar or blood agar would work, as long as the plates are incubated in an anaerobic chamber.
E) None of the answer choices would work-there's no way to reliably determine this feature from the specimen given.
Q2) In microbiology, growth usually refers to an increase in size of the bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pasteurization results in the sterilization of food products.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A common application of dry heat in the microbiology laboratory is to
A) prepare specimens for study.
B) sterilize media.
C) sterilize plastics.
D) sterilize the inoculating loop.
E) sterilize Petri dishes.
Q3) Hand washing with plain soap is very effective in controlling spread of microorganisms because
A) plain soap is bacteriostatic and inhibits bacterial growth.
B) it is very effective at the mechanical removal of microorganisms.
C) all soaps are virucidal and kill all viruses.
D) plain soap is bactericidal and kills all bacteria.
E) all soaps are bacteriostatic and kill endospores.
Q4) Upon heat treatment, bacteria die at a constant proportion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Microbial Metabolism: Fueling Cell Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Please select the False statement regarding the central metabolic pathways.
A) Glycolysis oxidizes glucose to pyruvate, yielding some ATP and NADH, and six different precursor metabolites.
B) The pentose phosphate pathway oxidizes glucose, producing two different precursor metabolites and NADPH for biosynthesis.
C) The transition step and TCA cycle complete the oxidation of glucose, yielding ATP, reducing power, and three different precursor metabolites.
D) The transition step and TCA cycle are repeated four times to yield ATP, reducing power, and three different precursor metabolites.
E) Two molecules of acetyl-CoA are generated for each glucose molecule that enters glycolysis, so the breakdown of one molecule of glucose causes the TCA cycle to turn twice.
Q2) In the electron transport system
A) NADH and FADH both donate electrons at the same location.
B) NADH donates electrons "upstream" of where FADH donates electrons.
C) NAD donates electrons at the head of the chain.
D) NADP donates electrons in the middle of the chain.
E) NADP removes electrons in the middle of the chain.
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Chapter 7: The Blueprint of Life, from DNA to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is INCORRECT?
A) Transcription is the conversion of DNA into RNA.
B) Replication is the process of duplicating a DNA molecule.
C) Binary fission is the process of bacterial cell division.
D) Transcription is the process of copying mRNA from DNA.
E) Translation is the process of synthesizing protein using information in mRNA.
Q2) Ribozymes are non-protein molecules with catalytic activity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The E-site
A) is found on the RNA polymerase enzyme.
B) is responsible for the release of the tRNA.
C) is found on the 35S polysome.
D) is the aminoacyl site on the ribosome.
E) is another name for anticodon.
Q4) The anticodon determines which amino acid is linked to its tRNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutations are likely to persist after SOS repair, but not after light-induced or excision repair.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Transposons may leave a cell by incorporating themselves into a plasmid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is NOT True about mismatch repair?
A) It uses an endonuclease.
B) It requires DNA polymerase and DNA ligase.
C) It uses methylation of the DNA to differentiate between strands.
D) It removes both strands in the mismatch area.
E) It fixes errors missed by the proofreading of DNA polymerase.
Q4) Among the easiest of the mutations to isolate are those which
A) involve polyploid chromosomes AND allow populations to be measured.
B) involve antibiotic resistance AND allow populations to be measured.
C) allow populations to be measured AND use an indirect method for measurement.
D) involve haploid chromosomes AND involve antibiotic resistance.
E) use an indirect method for measurement AND involve antibiotic resistance.
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Chapter 9: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) can be used to perform DNA sequencing reactions. In this case, are two primers (a forward and a reverse) necessary?
A) Yes-you can't perform PCR without two specific primers to amplify the region in question in the DNA.
B) No-dideoxynucleotide sequencing depends on different length fragments being formed and then separated based on size. This can take place with only a specific forward OR a specific reverse primer.
C) No-you actually need a primer pair for each round of DNA amplification ... so you'll need many, many primer pairs, depending how many rounds you plan to do.
D) Yes-and it will be important to make sure that the primer pairs are made with dideoxynucleotides that are labeled with fluorescent dyes. Otherwise, you won't be able to detect the fragments that are made in the PCR process.
E) Yes-if you only have one primer, you will only be able to determine the dideoxynucleotide sequence of RNA, which is a single-stranded molecule.
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Chapter 10: Identifying and Classifying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on DNA hybridization, humans and chimpanzees are the same species.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Gram-positive encapsulated diplococci found in sputum are likely
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D) Neisseria gonorrhea.
E) Bacillus cereus.
Q3) Nucleic acid techniques have great power as diagnostic tools because they may be A) used to differentiate species.
B) quick and easy to perform.
C) used to enhance the growth of bacteria.
D) used to inhibit the growth of certain bacteria.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q4) Despite the fact that you are certain that your patient has gonorrhea based on the Gram stain results, it is essential to confirm your diagnosis by 16S rRNA sequencing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: The Diversity of Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are obligate intracellular parasites?
A) Chlamydia and Rickettsia
B) E. coli and Pseudomonas
C) Mycoplasma and E. coli
D) Treponema and Chlamydia
E) Rickettsia, Chlamydia and Pseudomonas
Q2) Sulfuric acid is
A) involved in bioleaching AND produced by Lactobacillus.
B) produced by unicellular sulfur-oxidizers AND is a result of reduction of metal sulfides.
C) involved in bioleaching AND produced by unicellular sulfur-oxidizers.
D) a result of reduction of metal sulfides AND involved in bioleaching.
E) is a result of reduction of metal sulfides AND is produced by Lactobacillus.
Q3) Organisms that typically produce colonies with a fried egg appearance are the A) Mycobacteria.
B) Mycoplasmas.
C) Actinomyces.
D) Chlamydia.
E) Escherichia.
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Chapter 12: The Eukaryotic Members of the Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Algae have a vascular system very similar to that found in plants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dimorphic fungi
A) may grow as mycelia or yeast AND are mushrooms.
B) may grow as mycelia or yeast AND are often associated with disease in humans.
C) are often associated with disease in humans AND are mushrooms.
D) are strictly hyphae AND are often associated with disease in humans.
E) are strictly yeasts AND are often associated with disease in humans.
Q3) Phthirus pubis
A) transmit bacterial disease.
B) cause "crabs."
C) infect the blood.
D) are transmitted by mosquitoes.
E) are biological vectors.
Q4) Fungus grows well on fruits and many vegetables due to their alkaline pH.
A)True
B)False
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14
Chapter 13: Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is True of lysogenized cells?
A) They are immune to any further infection by any virus.
B) They are immune to infection by the same virus.
C) They may have new properties AND they respond to infection with the SOS response.
D) They respond to infection with the SOS response.
E) They are immune to infection by the same virus AND may have new properties.
Q2) The common species name of the virus is frequently based on the
A) presence or absence of a nuclear membrane.
B) type of nucleic acid it contains.
C) disease the virus causes.
D) geographic area it is found.
E) shape of the viral nucleocapsid.
Q3) What are two ways that phage can replicate without directly lysing their host cell?
A) Conjugation and lysogeny
B) Lysogeny and transduction
C) Extrusion and transformation
D) Extrusion and lysogeny
E) Extrusion and lysis
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Chapter 14: The Innate Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient questions why he has developed a granuloma. You explain to him that granulomas
A) are formed to recruit macrophages and neutrophils to an area of persistent inflammation such as that observed with a tattoo.
B) result from activation of complement proteins; once complement C3 is activated, it causes a cascade of activation of C4 - C25. These activated proteins concentrate to form the granuloma.
C) are immune cells that are normally synthesized to fight virus infections. In your patient's case, these cells were formed in response to ink particles.
D) are proteins that recognize compounds unique to microbes or tissue damage; in your patient's case, these are made as a result to the tissue damage caused by the tattoo.
E) are formed as an attempt by the body to wall off and contain persistent antigens - in his case, the red tattoo ink (red ink contains mercury compounds).
Q2) Pattern recognition is involved in innate immunity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) T cells are responsible for directly manufacturing antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is/are a(n) antigen-presenting cell(s)?
A) Macrophages
B) Dendritic cells
C) B cells
D) Macrophages, dendritic cells, AND B cells
E) Macrophages AND dendritic cells
Q3) The cells that actually secrete antibodies are
A) natural killer cells.
B) phagocytes.
C) plasma cells.
D) T cells.
E) naive B cells.
Q4) T cell receptors are identical to antibodies.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Host-Microbe Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Please select the correct definition of balanced pathogenicity.
A) A host-parasite relationship in which the parasite persists in the host, causing maximal harm. The pathogen becomes more virulent while the host becomes increasingly susceptible.
B) A generated balance in the microbiome that may be caused by taking antimicrobial medications. It generally helps the host maintain optimal health.
C) A mechanism that allows bacteria to transfer gene products directly into host cells, inducing changes such as altering the cell's cytoskeleton structure.
D) A situation in which an abnormally high number of TH cells (effector helper T cells) are stimulated, causing a massive release of cytokines (a "cytokine storm").
E) A host-parasite relationship in which the parasite persists in the host while causing minimal harm. The pathogen becomes less virulent while the host becomes less susceptible.
Q2) Only Gram-positive bacteria produce exotoxins.
A)True
B)False
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18
Chapter 17: Immunological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following is/are B cells involved?
A) Asthma, hemolytic disease of the newborn, AND allergic contact dermatitis
B) Hives, transplanted organ rejection, AND transfusion reactions
C) Systemic anaphylaxis, hives, AND graft-versus-host reactions
D) Anaphylactic shock, hemolytic disease of the newborn, AND glomerulonephritis
E) Hives, transfusion reactions, disseminated intravascular coagulation, AND allergic contact dermatitis
Q2) A transfusion reaction primarily involves
A) leukocytes.
B) erythrocytes.
C) phagocytes.
D) platelets.
E) IgE.
Q3) A lack of T cells makes one more vulnerable to intracellular parasites.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Anti-A and anti-B antibodies are natural antibodies and are present at birth.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Applications of Immune Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The scientist who made variolation safer and more effective was
A) Pasteur.
B) Jenner.
C) Metchnikoff.
D) Fleming.
E) Ehrlich.
Q2) All of the following are True about attenuated agents EXCEPT
A) they only induce immunity after several doses.
B) they may cause disease in immunocompromised individuals.
C) they multiply in the body.
D) they may revert or mutate to disease-causing strains.
E) they cause a strong cell-mediated immune response.
Q3) All of the following are True about the term vaccination EXCEPT it
A) is a general term that would include the process of variolation.
B) was coined by Jenner.
C) was coined by Pasteur and comes from the Latin for cow, variola.
D) comes from the Latin for cow, vacca.
E) was coined by Jenner and comes from the Latin for cow, vacca.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an infectious disease cannot spread in a population because it lacks a significant number of susceptible hosts, the phenomenon is referred to as
A) protected population.
B) active immunity.
C) passive immunity.
D) herd immunity.
E) protective immunity.
Q2) The member of the hospital staff who surveys the types and numbers of nosocomial infections is called the
A) head nurse.
B) infection control practitioner.
C) staff control.
D) attending physician.
E) external epidemiologist.
Q3) Nosocomial infections are those acquired at a hospital.
A)True
B)False
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antimicrobials that kill microorganisms have the suffix
A) -cidal.
B) -static.
C) -anti.
D) -genic.
E) -acto.
Q2) The situation in which the effect of two antimcrobials given together is more effective than the effect of either medication given individually is referred to as
A) synergism.
B) antagonism.
C) nihilism.
D) symbiosis.
E) dysbiosis.
Q3) Which of the following would you prescribe to treat a person with M. pneumoniae?
A) A -lactam antibiotic such as penicillin
B) A glycopeptide antibiotic such as vancomycin
C) Bacitracin
D) A macrolide such as erythromycin
E) Bacitracin OR penicillin
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Respiratory System Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The destructive nature of tuberculosis can be characterized as a(n)
A) endotoxin pyrogenic response.
B) delayed-type cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction.
C) immune complex reaction.
D) inflammatory response.
E) inflammatory pyogenic response.
Q2) The conjuctivae
A) have few resident bacteria.
B) are often covered with bacteria.
C) are populated with S. aureus.
D) are populated with S. pyogenes.
E) are protected by IgE.
Q3) The cause of strep throat is
A) Staphylococcus aureus.
B) Streptococcus pyogenes-beta-hemolytic, group A.
C) Staphylococcus pyogenes-alpha-hemolytic, group B.
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
E) Staphylococcus aureus-beta-hemolytic, group A.
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Chapter 22: Skin Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The preferred habitat of S. aureus is the
A) nasal chamber.
B) throat.
C) urethra.
D) bladder.
E) meninges.
Q2) Chickenpox and measles are both acquired by the respiratory route.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Warts are caused by
A) papillomaviruses.
B) parvovirus.
C) adenoviruses.
D) herpes virus.
E) coronavirus.
Q4) Humans are the only reservoir for varicella-zoster virus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Wound Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) An abscess is a collection of pus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Choose the one False statement about Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
A) It is widespread in nature, commonly found in plants.
B) Some strains can grow in nutrient-poor environments, including distilled water.
C) It secretes pigments that together produce a green color.
D) Under certain circumstances, it can grow anaerobically.
E) It is a Gram-positive, spore-forming encapsulated rod.
Q3) Streptobacillus moniliformis is unusual in that it
A) forms spores.
B) forms L-forms.
C) is anaerobic.
D) has a cell wall.
E) is unicellular.
Q4) All staphylococci are coagulase positive.
A)True
B)False
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25
Chapter 24: Digestive System Infections
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Q1) Viral gastroenteritis in infants and children is most commonly caused by A) herpes.
B) hepatitis B.
C) rotavirus.
D) norovirus.
E) influenza virus.
Q2) Mumps is a good candidate for elimination from the population due to A) the existence of an effective vaccine.
B) a human-only reservoir.
C) the absence of a latent state.
D) a single serotype.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) You tell your patient that her CDI is caused by a bacterium belonging to the genus Clostridium. Which of the following is True of all Clostridia?
A) They are Gram-positive, rod-shaped, endospore-forming obligate anaerobes.
B) They are encapsulated, flagellated, toxin-producing aerobes.
C) They are Gram-negative, rod-shaped, endospore-forming obligate aerobes.
D) They are flagellated and always cause significant inflammation.
E) Clostridial infections only occur if a state of dysbiosis exists in the host.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Blood and Lymphatic Infections
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Q1) Yops, proteins produced by Yersinia pestis,
A) interfere with phagocytosis.
B) activate plasminogen activator.
C) destroy C3b and C5a.
D) promote apoptosis.
E) control a type III secretion system.
Q2) What is the significance of immune complex formation in infective endocarditis?
A) They can be deposited in tissues and organs, causing damage.
B) They lead to the formation of biofilms that are difficult to eliminate.
C) They cause disseminated intravascular coagulation.
D) They result in the enzymatic destruction of neutrophils and macrophages.
E) They lead to the development of autoimmunity.
Q3) The production of heterophile antibody is associated with A) tularemia.
B) brucellosis.
C) plague.
D) infectious mononucleosis.
E) sepsis.
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Chapter 26: Nervous System Infections
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Q1) Which of these statements concerning the causative agent of listeriosis is True?
A) It can cause meningitis during the first month of life.
B) It is usually transmitted by the respiratory route.
C) It is uncommon in natural waters and vegetation.
D) It is a Gram-negative thermophile.
E) Most strains of L. monocytogenes are resistant to penicillin.
Q2) An infection of the membranes covering the brain is called A) encephalitis.
B) meningitis.
C) arachnitis.
D) ventriculitis.
E) duramitis.
Q3) The central nervous system (CNS) may become infected through the A) bloodstream.
B) nerves.
C) extensions from bone.
D) ventricles.
E) bloodstream, nerves, AND extensions from bone.
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Chapter 27: Genitourinary Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following applies to gonorrhea?
A) The causative agent is a slow-growing, bottle-shaped, Gram-positive bacterium.
B) The causative agent is a human-specific pathogen that survives poorly in the environment.
C) A trivalent vaccine protects people from the most virulent strains of N. gonorrhoeae.
D) Recovery from gonorrhea confers lifelong resistance to the causative agent.
E) The causative agent uses a capsule to attach to squamous epithelium and ciliated cells.
Q2) Treponema pallidum is similar in shape to
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Leptospira interrogans.
D) herpes virus.
E) Mycoplasma genitalium.
Q3) There is no long-lasting immunity to gonorrhea and a person may contract gonorrhea repeatedly.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Microbial Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An early contributor to the understanding of nitrogen fixation was A) Hooke.
B) Pasteur.
C) Winogradsky.
D) Beijerinck.
E) Lister.
Q2) Fungi are able to handle acidic environments much better than bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The practice of cells turning on the production of some enzymes and turning off others in response to a changing environment is called A) compromise.
B) adaptation.
C) metabolism.
D) nutritional metabolism.
E) quorum sensing.
Q4) A mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between roots and fungi.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Environmental Microbiology: Treatment of Water, Wastes,
and Polluted Habitats
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15207
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following plays some role in sewage treatment?
A) Activated sludge
B) Trickling filter
C) Septic tank
D) Lagooning
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Bioremediation
A) is the use of biological agents to degrade/detoxify pollutants AND may involve biostimulation or bioaugmentation.
B) is the use of biological agents to degrade/detoxify pollutants AND has as its goal the elimination of pathogens.
C) may involve biostimulation or bioaugmentation AND has as its goal the elimination of pathogens.
D) produces xenobiotics AND is the use of biological agents to degrade/detoxify pollutants.
E) has as its goal the elimination of pathogens AND produces xenobiotics.
Q3) The conversion of organic to inorganic matter is called co-metabolism.
A)True
B)False
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Food Microbiology
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71 Verified Questions
71 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15208
Sample Questions
Q1) Why is ham is a common vehicle for S. aureus food poisoning?
A) S. aureus is part of the normal microbiota of cows, so is a frequent cause of S. aureus food poisoning.
B) Staphylococci are adapted to salty conditions and thrive with little competition on cured meats such as ham.
C) Staphylococci are able to act synergistically with the normal microbiota of pigs, creating toxins that result in food poisoning.
D) Ham is a particularly moist meat, so encourages the growth of the staphylococci, which can only survive on foods with a high aw.
E) Ham is an untreated raw meat. As such, it is prone to contamination by the staphylococci that thrive on meat, resulting in food poisoning.
Q2) Please select the statement that does NOT apply to botulism.
A) The causative agent is Clostridium botulinum.
B) Clostridium endospores can germinate in food with an acidic pH.
C) Vegetative Clostridium cells release botulinum toxin, a potent neurotoxin.
D) The causative agent is an obligate anaerobe.
E) Boiling home-canned foods for 10 minutes will destroy any botulinum toxin present.
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