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Clinical Laboratory Science is a multidisciplinary field focused on the analysis of bodily fluids and tissues to aid in the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of diseases. This course covers the theoretical foundations and practical techniques used in modern diagnostic laboratories, including hematology, microbiology, immunology, clinical chemistry, and molecular diagnostics. Students learn to operate laboratory equipment, follow stringent quality control procedures, and interpret laboratory results, developing the analytical and critical thinking skills necessary for effective collaboration with healthcare professionals. Emphasis is also placed on laboratory safety, ethical considerations, and emerging advancements in clinical diagnostics.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Terminology for Health Professions 7 th Edition by Ann Ehrlich
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Q1) tonsillitis
A)before birth
B)inflammation of the tonsils
C)joint pain
D)mature red blood cell
E)surgical removal of the appendix
Answer: B
Q2) A combining vowel is not required when two word roots are joined together.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) syndrome
A)abnormal stomach condition
B)above the ribs
C)pertaining to the heart
D)signs and symptoms that occur together
E)temporary disappearance of symptoms
Answer: D
Q4) The death of bone tissue is known as ____________________ (oste/o means bone).
Answer: osteonecrosis
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Q1) The study of how traits are transferred from parents to their children and the role of genes in health and disease is known as ____________________.
Answer: genetics
Q2) The surgical removal of a gland is known as a/an ____________________.
Answer: adenectomy
Q3) The term retroperitoneal means located behind the peritoneum.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The distal end of the humerus (the bone of the upper arm)is located near the shoulder.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) The enlargement in the bulk of an organ that is not due to tumor formation is known as ____________________.
Answer: hypertrophy
Q6) A/An ____________________ is a deviation from what is regarded as normal. Answer: anomaly
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Q1) Which condition is a congenital defect in which the spinal canal fails to close around the spinal cord?
A) hallux valgus
B) spina bifida
C) spondylolisthesis
D) talipes
Answer: B
Q2) The phalanges are the bones of the fingers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Ankylosing spondylitis is a form of arthritis that affects children.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The tissue that makes up the flexible tip of the nose is known as ____________________.
Answer: cartilage
Q5) The lower portion of the sternum is known as the ____________________ process.
Answer: xiphoid
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Q1) Heel spurs are hardened deposits in the plantar fascia that can be one of the causes of plantar fasciitis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ____ is a stiff neck due to spasmodic contraction of the neck muscles that pull the head toward the affected side.
A) contracture
B) intermittent claudication
C) myasthenia gravis
D) spasmodic torticollis
Q3) The circular movement of a limb at the far end is known as ____________________.
Q4) external
A)deeper location
B)largest muscle
C)near the surface
D)toward the midline
E)toward the side
Q5) A rotator cuff injury affects the knee.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A/An ____________________,which is a characteristic of atherosclerosis,is a deposit of plaque on or within the arterial wall.
Q2) endocarditis
A)inflammation of the heart muscle
B)inflammation of the lining of the heart
C)inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart
D)inflammation of the heart
E)inflammation of the heart lining caused by bacteria
Q3) antihypertensives
A)increase urine secretion
B)interfere with the action that causes the heart muscles to contract
C)reduce the contraction of the muscles that squeeze blood vessels tight
D)slow the heartbeat
E)administered to reduce blood pressure
Q4) A/An ____________________ is also known as a clot-busting drug.
Q5) Cardiomyopathy is the term used to describe all the diseases of the heart muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Inflammation of a vein is known as ____________________.
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Q1) The ____________________ ____________________ virus,which causes flulike symptoms,can spread to the spinal cord and brain.
Q2) Interferon is produced by T cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) staphylococci
A)bacteria that form a chain
B)bacteria that form irregular clusters
C)rod-shaped,spore-forming bacteria
D)small bacteria that live in fleas and ticks
E)spiral-shaped bacteria with flexible walls
Q4) A lymph node ____________________ is a surgical procedure in which all of the lymph nodes in a major group are removed to determine or slow the spread of cancer.
Q5) Swelling caused by an abnormal accumulation of lymph within the tissues is known as ____________________.
Q6) The use of radioactive materials in contact with or implanted into the tissues to be treated is known as ____________________.
Q7) The condition of bleeding from the spleen is known as ____________________.
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Q1) Aspiration pneumonia is a viral infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The condition of bleeding from the lungs is known as ____________________.
Q3) An accumulation of fluid in the lung tissues is known as a pulmonary ____________________.
Q4) A ____ is the mechanical device for artificial ventilation of the lungs that is used to replace or supplement the patient's natural breathing function.
A) diaphragmatic breathing
B) respirator
C) supplemental oxygen
D) ventilator
Q5) Dyspnea is also known as hyperventilation.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Hemoptysis is also known as a nosebleed.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The surgical removal of the larynx is known as a/an ____________________.
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Q1) Feces are solid body wastes expelled through the rectum and anus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which condition does a portion of the stomach protrude upward into the chest through an opening in the diaphragm?
A) esophageal reflux
B) esophageal varices
C) gastroesophageal reflux disease
D) hiatal hernia
Q3) Flatulence is the rumbling noise caused by the movement of gas in the intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The removal of the pylorus of the stomach and the establishment of an anastomosis between the upper portion of the stomach and the duodenum is a/an
Q5) Total parenteral nutrition is administered to patients who cannot,or should not,get their nutrition through eating.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The kidneys are located within the peritoneal membranes of the abdominal cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The complete suppression of urine formation by the kidneys is known as ____.
A) anuria
B) diuresis
C) oliguria
D) polyuria
Q3) ureterorrhagia
A)abnormal narrowing of the urethra
B)bleeding from the ureter
C)bleeding from the urethra
D)distention of a ureter
E)narrowing of the ureter
Q4) Medications administered to increase urine secretion are known as ____________________.
Q5) The term ____________________ describes the distention of a ureter.
Q6) Hemodialysis is the removal of waste products directly from the blood.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by ____.
A) a person acting sick when he or she is not really sick
B) exaggerated worry and tension even when there is little or nothing to provoke these feelings
C) multiple cognitive defects,including memory impairment
D) persistent,intrusive,excessive worry about multiple topics
Q2) anxiolytic
A)administered to treat symptoms of neurological and psychiatric illnesses
B)suppresses anxiety and relaxes muscles
C)depresses the central nervous system and usually produces sleep
D)produces calm without producing sleep
E)prevents or relieves depression
Q3) Which part of the brain is responsible for the highest level of thought?
A) brainstem
B) cerebellum
C) cerebrum
D) medulla
Q4) The sleep disorder consisting of sudden and uncontrollable brief episodes of falling sleep during the day is known as ____________________.
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Q1) Retinitis ____________________ is a progressive degeneration of the retina that affects night and peripheral vision.
Q2) adnexa
A)where the eyelids meet nearest the nose
B)where the eyelids meet on the outside of the eye
C)vertical skin folds on either side of the nose
D)the vascular layer of the eye
E)appendages or accessory structures of an organ
Q3) The anterior chamber of the eye is located behind the cornea and in front of the iris.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____________________ is the drooping of the upper eyelid that is usually due to paralysis.
Q5) The function of lacrimal fluid is to maintain moisture on the anterior surface of the eyeball.
A)True
B)False
Q6) An ocular ____________________ may be fitted to replace a missing eyeball.
Q7) An inflammation of the eustachian tube is known as ____________________.
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Q1) Dandruff is a form of seborrheic keratosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The medical term meaning excessively dry skin is ____________________.
Q3) ____ is the destruction or elimination of abnormal tissue cells,such as warts or tumors,through the application of extreme cold by using liquid nitrogen.
A) Cauterization
B) Chemabrasion
C) Cryosurgery
D) Mohs' surgery
Q4) melan/o
A)black
B)dry
C)nail
D)sweat
E)white
Q5) ____________________,also known as ringworm,is a fungal infection that can grow on the skin,hair,or nails.
Q6) ____________________ is commonly known an ingrown toenail.
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Q1) parathyroid hormone
A)stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
B)regulates the rate of metabolism
C)aids in regulating the salt and water levels
D)has an anti-inflammatory action
E)works with calcitonin
Q2) Which term describes the excessive hunger associated with diabetes insipidus?
A) dysuria
B) polydipsia
C) polyphagia
D) polyuria
Q3) In response to low blood sugar,the alpha cells of the pancreatic islets secrete
Q4) HCG
A)stimulates the secretion of thyroid hormones
B)regulates the growth of body tissues
C)helps control blood pressure
D)stimulates the growth and secretions of the adrenal cortex
E)stimulates hormones to maintain pregnancy
Q5) A/An ____________________ is a reproductive cell.
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Q1) A specialist caring for women during pregnancy,childbirth,and immediately thereafter is a/an ____________________.
Q2) The highly contagious sexually transmitted disease ____________________ is caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum.
Q3) labia
A)external female genitalia
B)fleshy prominence over the pubic symphysis
C)organ of sensitive,erectile tissue
D)secrete mucus to lubricate the vagina
E)vaginal lips
Q4) Which condition is the growth of abnormal cells in the cervix that can be detected by a Pap smear?
A) cervical dysplasia
B) cervicitis
C) fibroadenoma
D) vaginosis
Q5) Oligomenorrhea is the failure to menstruate.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A/An ____ is used to examine the tympanic membrane.
A) audiometer
B) ophthalmoscope
C) otoscope
D) speculum
Q2) A/An ____________________ reaction is an unexpected reaction to a drug that is peculiar to the individual.
Q3) A/An ____________________ is a specialist who is licensed to formulate and dispense medications.
Q4) A C-reactive protein test is performed to identify high levels of inflammation within the body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which form of medication administration involves a liquid or ointment that is rubbed into the skin?
A) rectal suppository
B) sublingual administration
C) topical application
D) transdermal medication
Q6) The presence of pus in the urine is known as ____________________.
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Q1) The blockage of a blood vessel by a foreign object circulating in the blood is known as a/an ____.
A) embolism
B) embolus
C) thrombosis
D) thrombus
Q2) The term ____ means abnormally increased carbon dioxide in the blood.
A) anorexia
B) anoxia
C) asphyxiation
D) hypercapnia
Q3) ____ is a gradually progressive condition in which the macula is damaged.
A) Amblyopia
B) Hemianopia
C) Macular degeneration
D) Scotoma
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Q1) The term ____ describes a prediction of the probable course and outcome of a disorder.
A) differential diagnosis
B) prognosis
C) remission
D) syndrome
Q2) The term ____ means to bend a limb at the joint.
A) circumduction
B) elevation
C) extension
D) flexion
Q3) A/An ____ is a carcinoma derived from glandular tissue.
A) adenocarcinoma
B) adenoiditis
C) lymphadenoma
D) lymphoma
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