Clinical Infectious Diseases
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Infectious Diseases explores the diagnosis, management, and prevention of infectious diseases in clinical settings. The course covers key pathogens including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites along with mechanisms of transmission, antimicrobial therapy, resistance patterns, and infection control measures. Students learn to evaluate clinical presentations, interpret laboratory and imaging findings, and apply evidence-based guidelines for treating various infectious diseases. Epidemiological principles, immunizations, and outbreak investigations are also addressed, providing a comprehensive understanding essential for managing infections in diverse patient populations.
Recommended Textbook
Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition by Connie R. Mahon
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Bacterial Cell Structure, physiology, Metabolism, and Genetics
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Q1) A microbiology technologist performs a traditional bacterial stain on a colony from a wound culture that is suspected to contain bacteria from the genus Clostridium.The unstained areas in the bacterial cell observed by the technologist are called:
A) Cilia
B) Ribosomes
C) Spores
D) Mitochondria
Answer: C
Q2) Who was considered the father of protozoology and bacteriology?
A) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
B) Louis Pasteur
C) Carl Landsteiner
D) Michael Douglas
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Host-Parasite Interaction
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Q1) Interferon is a substance produced by the body that inhibits viral replication.Interferon accomplishes this task by:
A) Digesting the virus that is attempting to attach to the host cell
B) Destroying the host cell before the virus can attach and replicate
C) Binding to surface receptors that stimulate the cell to synthesize enzymes that inhibit viral replication over several days
D) Stimulating platelets to produce b-lysins
Answer: C
Q2) Healthy people are colonized by many different bacteria in many different sites.These bacteria are referred to as:
A) Transient florae
B) Carrier florae
C) Maintenance florae
D) Indigenous florae
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Laboratory Role in Infection Control
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Q1) What types of activities have led to the emergence of the microbiology laboratory as the forefront in keeping Americans safe?
A) Terrorist
B) Research
C) Military
D) Educational
Answer: A
Q2) When an outbreak is suspected,all the following steps are taken in investigating that event EXCEPT:
A) Establish a case definition.
B) Confirm that an outbreak exists.
C) Immediately treat all persons involved with appropriate antibiotic.
D) Establish an epidemiologic curve
Answer: C
Q3) Nosocomial infections are:
A) Acquired in the community
B) Acquired at prisons
C) Acquired at schools
D) Acquired at hospitals
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Control of Microorganisms
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Q1) Category A bioterrorism agents:
A) Pose the highest threat because they are easily transmitted and highly infectious
B) Have moderate morbidity and low mortality and are not easily transmitted
C) Are emerging pathogens
D) Are enteric pathogens
Q2) The three types of alcohol used as an effective skin antiseptic include all the following EXCEPT:
A) 60% to 95% ethanol
B) Butyl alcohol
C) 50% to 91.3% isopropyl alcohol
D) n-Propyl alcohol
Q3) If this is present on a surface to be disinfected,it can shield microorganisms from the disinfectant or inactivate the disinfectant.What is this substance?
A) Bleach (sodium hypochlorite)
B) Organic material
C) Hydrochloric acid
D) Water
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Chapter 5: Performance Improvement in the Microbiology
Laboratory
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Q1) A test is performed on a group of 10 patients.Six patients have a disease,and four are free of the disease.If six patients (all known to have the disease)of this group test positive for the disease,we say that the clinical sensitivity of this test is:
A) 60%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 100%
Q2) An unlabeled specimen is sent from the intensive care unit to the laboratory.When the specimen arrives in the laboratory,the laboratory manager decides that correct action needs to occur.What can be constructed to evaluate and correct the problem?
A) Find fault with the nurse causing the problem.
B) Provide training for the nurse responsible for the problem.
C) Empower a facilitator.
D) Make a cross-functional team.
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Chapter 6: Specimen Collection and Processing
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Q1) When using the isolation streaking technique,the most isolated forms of the organisms should be in which quadrant?
A) Fourth
B) Third
C) Second
D) First
Q2) All of the following are questions that the microbiology technologist will ask while reading and interpreting the growth of cultures EXCEPT:
A) What is the source of the culture?
B) How long has this culture been incubated?
C) Does this source have normal florae, or is it a sterile source?
D) What are the most likely pathogens in this specimen?
Q3) Aerobes are bacteria that grow:
A) In low oxygen tension
B) In high carbon dioxide concentrations
C) In high nitrogen concentrations
D) In ambient air
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8
Chapter 7: Microscopic Examination of Infected Materials
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Q1) If a symptomatic patient presents to a physician with an infection,the physician will treat the patient with antibiotics.What role does the laboratory play in antibiotic selection if the physician has already treated the patient before receiving the culture results?
A) The physician has only given the patient antibiotic samples, and they will only last for a couple days-until the culture results are ready and a proper prescription can be written.
B) Physicians will only write antibiotic prescriptions for patients who are infected with a large number of bacteria, so the laboratory needs to tell the physician which antibiotic to use to treat the patient infected with small number of bacteria.
C) The physician can treat the patient for bacterial infections, but if the patient has a fungal infection, the physician relies on the laboratory to tell her or him if the patient has a fungal infection.
D) The physician expects the laboratory to affirm or reject the antibiotic choice made after the presumptive diagnosis.
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Chapter 8: Use of Colonial Morphology for the Presumptive
Identification of Microorganisms
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Q1) A technician is reading a sputum culture on the bench.There is growth on the BAP and CHOC plates,but no growth on the MAC plate.The colonies growing on the BAP have discolored the media to a green color around and under the colonies.What organism could this be?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q2) This organism is described as shiny,like a half-pearl,on blood-containing media.
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Bordetella pertussis
C) Streptococcus agalactiae
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
Q3) A technician is reading stool culture plates.She is looking for enteric pathogens on the MacConkey (MAC)plate.What do they look like?
A) Clear, colorless colonies
B) Large, bright pink colonies
C) Small, mucoid, green colonies
D) Small, orange colonies
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria
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Q1) This system provides rapid identification of gram-negative bacteria through the use of cards.
A) MicroScan
B) BD Phoenix 100
C) Vitek AutoMicrobic system
D) Sherlock Microbial Identification system
Q2) What does the oxidase test determine?
A) If the bacteria have the enzyme, oxidase, to reduce oxygen to carbon dioxide
B) If the bacteria have oxidase, which will allow for the oxidation of carbohydrates
C) If the bacteria can hydrolyze urea to ammonia and carbon dioxide
D) The presence of the cytochrome oxidase system that oxidizes reduced cytochrome with molecular oxygen
Q3) The methyl red test detects metabolic by-products from what pathway?
A) Mixed acid fermentation pathway
B) Butylene glycol pathway
C) Citrate pathway
D) Clark and Lubs pathway
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Immunodiagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) What is the principle of direct antigen testing?
A) A clinical specimen is mixed with an antigen, then a labeled antibody is added. If the antigen is present, a complex will form.
B) It is a process by which microbial antigens are identified in patient specimens by combining specifically with antibody molecules to form stable complexes.
C) A fluorescent antigen is added to a specimen, then an antibody to form sandwich complexes.
D) Labeled antigen is added to a specimen, and the specimen is read for fluorescence.
Q2) Prozone occurs:
A) When the relative concentration of antibody exceeds the concentration of antigen
B) When the relative concentration of antigen exceeds the concentration of antigen
C) When there are interfering substances in the specimen
D) In the equivalence zone
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Chapter 11: Applications of Molecular Diagnostics
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Q1) What is the principle of restriction enzyme analysis of chromosomal DNA?
A) Plasmids are cut into small pieces with restriction enzymes. The resulting restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) pattern is analyzed by agarose gel electrophoresis; there is transfer to a membrane, then use of a probe to identify specific sequences.
B) The chromosomal DNA is denatured, then annealed. The resulting hybrids are electrophoresed, transferred to a membrane, and then analyzed for a specific sequence.
C) DNA is extracted and isolated and digested with a restriction enzyme. The resulting RFLP pattern is analyzed by agarose gel electrophoresis and transferred to a membrane.
D) The serum specimen is electrophoresed, transferred to a membrane, digested, and then reacted with a probe to identify the target.
Q2) In a hybridization reaction,the pH affects:
A) The probe's nucleic acids so that they do not lose their hydrogens
B) The breakdown of the oligonucleotide pieces
C) The ability of the mismatches between the probe and the target to duplex
D) The stability of double-stranded nucleic acid molecules in solution
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Chapter 12: Antibiotic Mechanisms of Action and Resistance
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Q1) Insertion sequences are:
A) Circular structures present in bacteria that contain genes encoding proteins and RNA and the capacity to self-replicate and portion into daughter cells during cellular division
B) DNA elements that encode transposition and excision function and can transpose from one place on the chromosome to another
C) Genetic elements capable of integrating resistance genes (cassettes) by an integron-encoded, site-specific recombinase
D) DNA elements found in bacteria that carry genes only for the enzymes needed to promote their own transposition
Q2) Mechanisms that mediate intrinsic antibiotic resistance include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Cell-wall impermeability
B) Biofilm formation
C) Expression of genes mediating inactivating enzymes
D) Alternate biosynthetic pathways
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) All the following organisms produce b-lactamase EXCEPT:
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Moraxella catarrhalis
D) Neisseria meningitidis
Q2) Oxacillin-resistant staphylococci can appear susceptible in vitro to other -lactam agents such as:
A) Quinolones
B) Tetracyclines
C) Cephalosporins
D) Aminoglycosides
Q3) What is the principle of the Etest?
A) Turbidimetry
B) Establishing an antimicrobial density gradient in agar
C) Carbon dioxide concentration
D) Redox indicator system
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15
Chapter 14: Staphylococci
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Q1) Automated antimicrobial susceptibility testing methods are not reliable in detecting these resistant staphylococci.What antibiotic are the bacteria resistant to?
A) Vancomycin
B) Erythromycin
C) Clindamycin
D) All of the above
Q2) What are the effects of the b-hemolysin produced by Staphylococcus aureus?
A) It acts on sphingomyelin in the plasma membrane of red blood cells.
B) It kills polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
C) It kills macrophages.
D) It lyses red blood cells, damages platelets and macrophages, and can cause severe tissue damage.
Q3) Infections by this organism are predominantly hospital acquired,and some predisposing factors include catheterization,medical implantation,and immunosuppressive therapy.
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) S. intermedius
C) S. epidermidis
D) S. saprophyticus
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Streptococcus, enterococcus, and Other
Catalase-Negative Gram-Positive Cocci
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Q1) Most doctors' offices use the rapid throat swab methods to identify Streptococcus pyogenes.If the test is positive,the physician treats the patient.What should happen if the test is negative?
A) The physician should treat the patient to be safe.
B) The physician should perform a throat culture.
C) The physician should repeat the rapid strep tests.
D) None of the above.
Q2) An 80-year-old woman is admitted from a nursing home where she has been sick with a cough and fever for two days.She is coughing up thick,rust-colored sputum.The physician prescribed penicillin,but she is not getting any better.What is her most probable diagnosis?
A) Viral pneumonia
B) Pneumococcal pneumonia with penicillin-resistant organism
C) Enterococcal pneumonia with vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE)
D) S. agalactiae infection
Q3) What are two tests used to presumptively identify group B strep?
A) Hippurate hydrolysis and CAMP
B) Optochin and PYR
C) Bacitracin and PYR
D) PYR and hippurate hydrolysis
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli
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Q1) What is the colony morphology of A.haemolyticum on sheep blood agar (SBA)?
A) A narrow zone of b-hemolysis and a black opaque dot is seen when the colony is scraped away.
B) Gamma hemolysis, with pitting around the edges of the colony.
C) Alpha hemolysis, with a central black opaque dot in the colony.
D) A wide zone of beta hemolysis and a large, yellow, mucoid colony.
Q2) What form of anthrax is found among animal workers and has been dubbed woolsorter's disease?
A) Cutaneous
B) Gastrointestinal
C) Inhalation
D) Optical
Q3) All the following tests should be performed by sentinel laboratories to rule out the possibility of Bacillus anthracis from an isolate EXCEPT:
A) Gram stain
B) Glucose fermentation
C) Catalase
D) Motility
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18
Chapter 17: Neisseria Species and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) All of the following include disadvantages of nucleic acid probes for Neisseria gonorrhoeae EXCEPT:
A) Lesser sensitivity than cervical cultures in females
B) Not approved for pharyngeal or rectal specimens
C) Do not allow for recovery of an organism to be used for antimicrobial susceptibility testing
D) Are able to identify all N. gonorrhoeae isolates, including beta-lactamase-positive strains
Q2) What type of swab should be used for a Neisseria gonorrhoeae culture?
A) Cotton
B) Calcium alginate
C) Dacron
D) Flax
Q3) A technician is reading CTA sugars.The maltose and glucose tubes are positive.What organism produces acid in these two tubes?
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) N. sicca
C) N. lactamica
D) N. meningitidis
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Haemophilus and Other Fastidious
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Q1) What is the name of the organism that causes tularemia that can be contracted from rabbits?
A) Brucella tularensis
B) B. hareis
C) Francisella tularensis
D) F. philomiragia
Q2) What agar is used to isolate Bordetella species?
A) BCYE
B) Bordet-Gengou
C) Chocolate
D) Martin-Lewis
Q3) What medium will sustain the growth of most Haemophilus spp.?
A) Chocolate agar
B) SBA
C) PEA
D) Thayer-Martin
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) A microbiologist is reading a stool culture and notices a very moist and mucoid pink colony on MacConkey agar.What is the most likely organism?
A) Klebsiella pneumoniae
B) Escherichia coli
C) Proteus vulgaris
D) Acinetobacter
Q2) The primary pathogens of the Enterobacteriaceae include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Salmonella enterica
B) Proteus mirabilis
C) Shigella spp.
D) Yersinia spp.
Q3) What genus has the following characteristics: negative for urea,positive for lysine decarboxylase,positive for hydrogen sulfide,positive for indole,and does not grow on Simmon's citrate?
A) Providencia
B) Edwardsiella
C) Escherichia
D) Morganella
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Chapter 20: Vibrio,aeromonas,plesiomonas and
Campylobacter Species
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Q1) What disease manifests in acute cases as a severe gastroenteritis,accompanied by vomiting followed by diarrheic stools that are described as rice water and occur 10 to 30 times a day?
A) Cholera
B) Typhoid
C) Dysentery
D) Food poisoning
Q2) Infections with Vibrio spp.can be contracted in all of the following situations EXCEPT:
A) Increased travel to either coastal or cholera-endemic areas
B) Increased consumption of seafood (particularly uncooked)
C) Greater numbers of Vibrio spp. in the environment
D) Increased use of recreational water facilities
Q3) What do aeromonad colonies look like on cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN)agar?
A) Purple colonies
B) Clear colonies
C) Green colonies
D) Pink colonies
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Chapter 21: Nonfermenting and Miscellaneous
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Q1) What organism is an opportunistic pathogen that strikes the immunocompromised patient with neutrophil deficits and produces a violet pigment on nonselective agar?
A) Psychrobacter immobilis
B) Chromobacterium violaceum
C) Chryseomonas luteola
D) Paracoccus phenylpyruvicus
Q2) Characteristics of Moraxella include:
A) Oxidase-positive and nonmotile
B) Biochemically inert and aerobic
C) Susceptible to penicillin and opportunistic pathogens
D) All of the above
Q3) Burkholderia pseudomallei is found in all the following areas EXCEPT:
A) New Zealand
B) Northern Australia
C) Mexico
D) Southeast Asia
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23
Chapter 22: Anaerobes of Clinical Importance
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Q1) How are suspected colonies of anaerobes processed?
A) Gram stain morphology and reaction is observed.
B) An aerotolerance test is set up.
C) A pure culture/subculture plate is inoculated and appropriate disks are added.
D) All of the above.
Q2) What substances do organisms that use oxygen have to protect themselves from superoxide anions?
A) Hyaluronidase and proteases
B) Exotoxins and superoxide dismutase
C) Enterotoxins and lipase
D) Superoxide dismutase and catalase
Q3) All the following organisms are found in the gastrointestinal (GI)tract EXCEPT:
A) Bacteroides
B) Clostridium
C) Propionibacterium
D) Bifidobacterium
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24
Chapter 23: Spirochetes
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Q1) How are Borrelia organisms transmitted to the host?
A) Respiratory droplets
B) Arthropods
C) Birds
D) Blood or body fluids
Q2) What diseases do Borrelia spp.cause?
A) Undulant and hemorrhagic fevers
B) Lyme disease and Parrot fever
C) Rocky Mountain spotted fever and Relapsing fever
D) Lyme disease and Relapsing fever
Q3) All of the following are symptoms of tertiary syphilis EXCEPT:
A) Gummas in the skin, bones, and liver
B) Encephalitis
C) Aortitis
D) Aortic valve insufficiency
Q4) What is the drug of choice used to treat syphilis?
A) Tetracycline
B) Fluoroquinolones
C) Penicillin
D) Macrolides
25
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Chapter 24: Chlamydia and Rickettsia
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Q1) A young man goes to his doctor complaining of a discharge from his penis.The doctor collects a slide for Gram stain and a swab for culture and sends them to the laboratory.The Gram stain is prepared and read: > 25 wbc/hpf,no bacteria seen.The culture results after 48 hours show no growth.What is the most probable diagnosis and the organism responsible?
A) Urethritis, Streptococcus pneumonia
B) Epididymitis, Moraxella
C) Nongonococcal urethritis, Neisseria meningitidis
D) Nongonococcal urethritis, Chlamydia trachomatis
Q2) All of the following are urogenital infections in men,produced by Chlamydia trachomatis,EXCEPT:
A) Epididymitis
B) Orchitis
C) Prostatitis
D) Nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)
Q3) What organism causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
A) Rickettsia prowazekii
B) R. typhi
C) R. canada
D) R. rickettsii
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Chapter 25: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) What organism has been recovered in normal,sexually active females but is associated with chorioamnionitis,congenital pneumonia,and development of chronic lung disease in premature infants?
A) Mycoplasma hominis
B) Ureaplasma ureolyticus
C) M. penetrans
D) M. fermentans
Q2) Which antibiotic is added to mycoplasma isolation and transport media to minimize bacterial contamination?
A) Tetracycline
B) Penicillin
C) Erythromycin
D) Gentamicin
Q3) Which factor is added to media to provide cholesterol for mycoplasma-like organisms?
A) Trypticase soy digest
B) 20% fetal calf serum
C) X and V factor supplement
D) 5% sheep blood
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Chapter 26: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis and Other
Nontuberculosis Mycobacteria
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Q1) All of the following are biochemical tests for the identification of Mycobacterium spp.EXCEPT:
A) Gelatin liquefaction
B) Hydrolysis of Tween 80
C) Iron uptake
D) Arylsulfatase
Q2) What is the purpose of the digestion-decontamination processing of specimens submitted for mycobacterial culture?
A) To release all bacteria in the sample
B) To make the specimen easier to plate
C) To allow chemical decontaminants to kill nonmycobacterial organisms
D) To liquefy the outer cell wall of the mycobacteria so that they will grow faster
Q3) All of these stains are used to visualize mycobacteria on a smear EXCEPT:
A) Ziehl-Neelsen
B) Kinyoun
C) Auramine
D) Acridine orange
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Medically Significant Fungi
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Q1) For potassium hydroxide (KOH)to work properly,what is done to speed up the dissolution of the keratin and skin layers?
A) Mix gently.
B) Let the slide sit for 30 minutes before reading.
C) Heat gently, then cool.
D) Let sit under an ultraviolet light for 20 minutes.
Q2) What organism is one of the primary opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?
A) Pneumocystis jiroveci
B) Phaeoannellomyces werneckii
C) Coccidioides immitis
D) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Q3) A patient with very pale patches on his arms and legs is examined at his doctor's office.His doctor orders a fungal culture.The fungus shows a spaghetti-and-meatball appearance on the direct smear.What organism is it?
A) Microsporum canis
B) Malassezia furfur
C) Trichophyton rubrum
D) Epidermophyton floccosum
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29
Chapter 29: Clinical Virology
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Q1) What virus causes AIDS?
A) Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
B) Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
C) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
D) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Q2) What virus is the most common cause of arboviral encephalitis in the world?
A) Ebola
B) Japanese encephalitis virus
C) Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus
D) Eastern equine encephalitis virus
Q3) What virus is the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis in infants and children?
A) Rotavirus
B) Influenzae virus
C) Torovirus
D) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
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Chapter 30: Agents of Bioterror
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Q1) Viral hemorrhagic fevers include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Ebola
B) Crimean-Congo
C) Lassa fever
D) Black fever
Q2) What organism causes Q fever?
A) Coxiella burnetii
B) Brucella abortus
C) Yersinia pestis
D) Burkholderia cepacia
Q3) One of the first recorded terror attacks occurred in 1984 in a restaurant in The Dalles,Oregon.What organism was used in this attack?
A) Salmonella
B) Escherichia coli
C) Clostridium
D) Staphylococcus
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Chapter 31: Biofilms: Architects of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What happens to dental plaque if it is allowed to remain undisturbed for several days?
A) The biofilm disaggregates.
B) The persister cells predominate the biofilm.
C) Pathogenic bacteria become the main bacterial constituents of the biofilm.
D) Nonpathogenic bacteria become the main bacterial constituents of the biofilm.
Q2) What is a biofilm?
A) Communities of organisms attached to a solid surface
B) The resulting thick, slimy mucous produced in cystic fibrosis
C) A slime factor that can be found in your gastrointestinal tract
D) The resulting film that is produced by necrotic tissue, bacteria, and immune cells
Q3) How do microorganisms that live in close proximity exchange DNA?
A) Frame-shift mutations and plasmid uptake
B) Transformation and conjugation
C) Conjugation and frame-shift mutations
D) All of the above
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Chapter 32: Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nosocomial pneumonia can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Acinetobacter baumannii
D) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
Q2) A patient's normal florae can be altered by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
B) Recent hospitalization
C) Chronic illness
D) Visited a nursing home
Q3) What usually causes community-acquired pneumonias in children during the winter months?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Viral pathogens
D) Legionella spp.
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33
Chapter 33: Skin and Soft Tissue Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes rubella?
A) Calicivirus
B) Herpesvirus
C) Paramyxovirus
D) Togaviridae
Q2) What is thrush?
A) Tinea unguium
B) Tinea corporis
C) Dermatophytosis
D) Oral candidiasis
Q3) Lesions from which bacteria fluoresce coral red when examined under a Wood's lamp?
A) Corynebacterium minutissimum
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Clostridium tetani
D) C. difficile
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Chapter 34: Gastrointestinal Infections and Food Poisoning
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Sample Questions
Q1) What organ is colonized in a patient that carries Salmonella typhi?
A) Colon
B) Gallbladder
C) Rectum
D) Small intestine
Q2) What organism that causes gastroenteritis can be found in aquaculture-farmed fish?
A) Salmonella
B) Campylobacter
C) Vibrio
D) Shigella
Q3) What is the most important cause of iatrogenic diarrhea in adults?
A) Yersinia enterocolitica
B) Cryptosporidium jejunum
C) Vibrio vulnificus
D) Clostridium difficile
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35
Chapter 35: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first step in developing meningitis?
A) A cold that compromises your immune system
B) Living in close quarters, like military barracks or a college dorm
C) Poor sanitary conditions
D) Nasopharyngeal colonization by a meningeal pathogen
Q2) All of the following are important arboviruses EXCEPT:
A) Alphaviruses (Venezuelan equine encephalitis viruses, eastern equine encephalitis, and western equine encephalitis)
B) St. Louis encephalitis virus
C) La Crosse virus
D) Lassa fever virus
Q3) Diagnosis of central nervous system (CNS)infections is based on:
A) Neurologic symptoms
B) Physical symptoms
C) History
D) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) laboratory examination
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Chapter 36: Bacteremia and Sepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What predisposes a person to a polymicrobial bacteremia?
A) Intravenous drug use
B) Burns
C) Gastrointestinal tract sources
D) All of the above
Q2) Septi-Chek is which type of blood culture system?
A) Continuous-monitoring blood culture system
B) Lysis centrifugations blood culture system
C) Aerobic-anaerobic blood culture system
D) Biphasic broth-slide system
Q3) What condition results when a procedural manipulation of a particular body site that is colonized by normal florae occurs?
A) Continuous bacteremia
B) Intermittent bacteremia
C) Septic shock
D) Transient bacteremia
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Chapter 37: Urinary Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The symptoms of pyelonephritis include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Flank pain
B) Costovertebral angle tenderness
C) Fevers
D) Septicemia
Q2) Because the urethra is shorter in women,bacteria are easily introduced into the bladder by:
A) Fecal contamination
B) Vaginal contamination
C) Sexual intercourse
D) Poor personal hygiene
Q3) Urine cultures are performed for all the following reasons EXCEPT:
A) To test for chlamydia
B) To confirm a cure
C) To detect asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women
D) To evaluate for bacteremia
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38
Chapter 38: Genital Infections and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main symptom for primary syphilis?
A) Purulent discharge
B) Asymptomatic
C) Chancre
D) Genital warts
Q2) A man has sex with a woman on Saturday night.On Wednesday he notices dysuria,pyuria,and a urethral discharge.He goes to his doctor who orders a Gram stain of the discharge.The results of the Gram stain show > 25 wbc/hpf,moderate gram-negative intracellular diplococci,and 3+ gram-negative diplococci.What is the mostly likely diagnosis?
A) Syphilis
B) Chlamydia
C) Gonorrhea
D) Bacterial vaginosis
Q3) What is required for culturing Chlamydia?
A) Embryonated chicks
B) Thayer-Martin, modified (MTM) media
C) Martin-Lewis (ML) media
D) Cell cultures
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Chapter 39: Infections in Special Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What two parasitic agents commonly affect patients with malignancy?
A) Giardia lamblia and Listeria monocytogenes
B) Strongyloides stercoralis and Giardia lamblia
C) Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii) and Toxoplasma gondii
D) Toxoplasma gondii and Wuchereria bancrofti
Q2) What is the granulocyte count below which the risk of infection increases steadily?
A) 5000 cells/mm3
B) 1000 cells/mm3
C) 500 cells/mm3
D) 200 cells/mm3
Q3) What is the disease that 75% of the patients with hematologic malignancies contract?
A) Meningitis
B) Septicemia
C) Pneumonia
D) Osteomyelitis
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Chapter 40: Zoonotic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What disease is transmitted by Ixodes dammini?
A) Plague
B) Lyme disease
C) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D) Colorado tick fever
Q2) What is the classic symptom of the bubonic plague?
A) Painful buboes
B) Febrile illness
C) Rash on the trunk and limbs
D) Septic shock
Q3) What is another name for brucellosis?
A) Glanders
B) Anthrax
C) Lyme disease
D) Undulant fever
Q4) How do humans become infected with leptospirosis?
A) Directly from animal urine
B) Directly from animal feces
C) Directly from animal blood
D) Directly from animal saliva
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Chapter 41: Ocular Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who makes her own saline solution for her contact lenses is examined at her physician's office because she has a blood red,infected right eye.The doctor performs bacterial,fungal,and viral cultures,all of which are negative.What is the most probable cause of this infection?
A) Acanthamoeba spp.
B) Entamoeba spp.
C) Trypanosoma spp.
D) Leishmania spp.
Q2) What is the composition of the sclera?
A) Mucous membrane
B) Collagen
C) Epithelial cells
D) Vitreous humor
Q3) A layer of tears blankets the cornea to provide all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Waste elimination
B) Optical clarity
C) Lubrication
D) Nutrition
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