Clinical Immunology Test Bank
Course Introduction
Clinical Immunology explores the components and regulation of the human immune system, focusing on its role in the pathogenesis, diagnosis, and management of immune-related diseases. The course covers foundational concepts in immunology, including innate and adaptive immunity, while emphasizing clinical applications such as hypersensitivity reactions, autoimmune disorders, immunodeficiencies, and transplantation immunology. Students will learn to interpret immunological laboratory tests and understand the principles behind immunotherapeutic strategies, integrating scientific knowledge with current clinical practices to better assess and manage immune-mediated conditions.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Immunology and Serology A Laboratory Perspective 3rd Edition by Christine Dorresteyn
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22 Chapters
562 Verified Questions
562 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3821 Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction and Natural Immunity
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76262
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are directly used in oxidative killing of target cells?
A) hydrogen peroxide
B) lysozyme
C) defensin
D) TNF-alpha
Answer: B
Q2) A protein that only changes in concentration significantly in response to inflammation and is not detectable when there is no inflammation is called a/an:
A) reagin
B) immunoglobulin
C) complement protein
D) acute phase protein
Answer: D
Q3) A patient is tested for the presence of C-reactive protein and is found to have an elevated level.What does this indicate is taking place in the patient?
A) inflammation
B) nothing,the patient is normal
C) impossible to determine anything
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Lymphoid System
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62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When IgM on the surface of an immature B cell binds to a self-antigen,which of the following processes can occur?
A) class switch
B) affinity maturation
C) apoptosis
D) differentiation
Answer: C
Q2) The primary site of antigen trapping and presentation to immune cells is the:
A) spleen
B) thymus
C) bone marrow
D) brain
Answer: A
Q3) All of the following are characteristic of a lymph node EXCEPT:
A) filters drainage from tissues
B) colonized with T and B cells
C) between 1 and 25 mm in size
D) considered a primary or central lymphoid organ
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Nature of Antigens and Major Histocompatibility Complex
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of TAP proteins used in antigen processing?
A) help digest large proteins
B) bind to MHC Class II in the endoplasmic reticulum
C) measure and transport digested proteins to MHC Class I
D) recognize and digest exogenous protein
Answer: C
Q2) A macromolecule that is capable of eliciting an immune response in an immunocompetent host is called a(an):
A) antigen
B) antibody
C) hapten
D) acute phase reactant
Answer: A
Q3) MHC class II antigens are recognized by which of the following cells?
A) CD4+ T cells
B) CD8+ T cells
C) B cells
D) macrophages
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Antibody Structure and Function
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62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which immunoglobulin activates the classical complement pathway?
A) IgD
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgE
Q2) The idiotype of an antibody is located on which region?
A) CH
B) CL
C) VH + VL
D) Fc
Q3) Which immunoglobulin appears in the highest titer in the secondary response?
A) IgG
B) IgA
C) IgM
D) IgD
Q4) IgG differs from IgM in which way?
A) IgM can cross the placenta.
B) IgG can bind more antigens than IgM.
C) IgG is the main antibody in serum.
D) Only IgM has kappa light chains.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cytokines
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of TGF-\(\beta\)?
A) helps in antibody-mediated immunity
B) regulates cell growth and differentiation
C) inhibits IL-2
D) acts as an endogenous pyrogen
Q2) Which acts as the best defense against gram-negative bacteria?
A) IL-1
B) TNF
C) IL-2
D) IL-5
Q3) The actions of IL-1 and IL-10 are an example of:
A) redundancy
B) antagonism
C) synergy
D) pleiotropy
Q4) IL-4 functions by:
A) inhibiting macrophages
B) inducing hematopoiesis
C) activating B cells
D) activating macrophages
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Chapter 6: Complement System
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A system of serum proteins that interact to enhance the immune response by producing cytolytic,chemotactic,and other effects best describes:
A) complement
B) fibrinogen
C) haptoglobin
D) CRP
Q2) Which of the following represents C3 convertase?
A) C4b2a
B) C3bBbP
C) C1qrs
D) A and B
E) A and C
Q3) Which of the following is the correct order of activation of complement in the lectin activation pathway?
A) C1,C4,C2,C3
B) MBL,C4,C2,C3
C) C3,factor B,C3
D) MBL,C2,C3,C4
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8
Chapter 7: Safety and Specimen Preparation
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a staphylococcal infection is passed between patients due to health-care workers not washing their hands,this represents an example of:
A) lack of chemical hygiene
B) a sharps hazard
C) the chain of infection
D) a specimen transport problem
Q2) Use of universal precautions is best explained by which of the following?
A) handling a urine specimen from a patient with a bacterial infection very carefully
B) wearing gloves in handling a serum specimen from a patient with HIV
C) taking gloves off in the lab to place a serum specimen in a chemistry analyzer
D) treating every specimen in the lab as if it were infectious
Q3) If you want to make 4 mL of a 1:20 dilution,how much serum would be needed?
A) 0.2 mL
B) 2 mL
C) 0.5 mL
D) 1 mL
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9
Chapter 8: Precipitation Reactions
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A situation in which antigen is in excess as compared to antibody is called:
A) prozone
B) postzone
C) equivalence zone
Q2) When antibody combines with a particulate antigen,this is classified as which type of reaction?
A) precipitation
B) agglutination
C) flocculation
D) turbidity
Q3) The force that keeps antigen and antibody together after the initial attraction and which is responsible for stability of the antigen-antibody complex is:
A) affinity
B) polarity
C) avidity
D) Van der Waals force
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Chapter 9: Agglutination
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the best test to determine evidence of hemolytic disease of the newborn?
A) direct antiglobulin testing
B) passive agglutination
C) coagglutination testing
D) indirect antiglobulin testing
Q2) Which of the following would enhance an agglutination reaction?
A) polyethylene glycol (PEG)
B) high ionic strength saline
C) running the reaction at 4C
D) running the reaction at a high pH
Q3) When carrier particles are coated with an antigen that is not normally found on them,this is known as:
A) direct agglutination
B) passive agglutination
C) reverse passive agglutination
D) hemagglutination
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11
Chapter 10: Labeled Immunoassays
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following testing situations is there a direct relationship between the amount of bound label and the amount of patient antigen present?
A) competitive RIA using labeled antigen
B) competitive EIA using labeled antigen
C) noncompetitive EIA using a second labeled antibody
D) any of the above
Q2) In the following equation,what is the ratio of bound radioactive antigen to bound patient antigen? 8ag* + 4ag + 6ab ---> ag*ab + agab + ag* + ag
A) 1:6
B) 1:3
C) 2:1
D) 8:6
Q3) Which of the following best describes homogeneous assays?
A) A washing step is necessary.
B) Concentration of patient antigen is directly proportional to the label detected.
C) The reagent antibody has an enzyme tag.
D) Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal amounts.
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Chapter 11: Molecular Techniques
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A short strand of DNA or RNA used to detect an unknown nucleic acid in a patient specimen best describes a:
A) nucleic acid probe
B) restriction enzyme
C) primer
D) restriction fragment length polymorphism
Q2) Use of microarrays consisting of either DNA or RNA to identify an unknown nucleic acid best describes:
A) in situ hybridization
B) polymerase chain reaction
C) DNA chip technology
D) strand displacement amplification
Q3) Which is the correct conclusion if results of DNA restriction analysis by gel electrophoresis show a difference in one band?
A) The samples are the same.
B) The samples are not identical.
C) Gel electrophoresis should be repeated.
D) The wrong buffer was used in electrophoresis.
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Chapter 12: Flow Cytometry and Laboratory Automation
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76251
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a difference between batch and random access analyzers?
A) Batch analyzers are not automated.
B) Random access analyzers only analyze one sample at a time.
C) Batch analyzers only do one type of analysis at a time.
D) Random access analyzers cannot be used for stat samples.
Q2) In most flow cytometers,labeled cells:
A) scatter the light and absorb fluorescence
B) absorb fluorescence and emit electronic impulses
C) scatter the light and emit fluorescence
D) absorb both fluorescence and light
Q3) A range of values that all produce a positive result is known as:
A) analytic sensitivity
B) reportable range
C) accuracy
D) precision
Q4) If a test system has many false-positive results,this is a problem involving:
A) accuracy
B) precision
C) analytic sensitivity
D) sampling error
14
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Chapter 13: Hypersensitivity
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76250
Sample Questions
Q1) An exaggerated reaction directed against an antigen that is harmless is called:
A) atopy
B) hypersensitivity
C) immune complex disease
D) passive cutaneous anaphylaxis
Q2) To determine if a patient is allergic to peanuts,the best test to perform is:
A) RAST
B) RIST
C) serum protein electrophoresis
D) RID to measure IgG
Q3) Which of the following occurs in hemolytic disease of the newborn?
A) buildup of IgE on Mom's cells
B) Rh- Mom's exposure to Rh+ baby cells
C) Rh+ Mom's exposure to Rh- baby cells
D) baby must be Rh negative
Q4) Which of the following diseases is an example of a type II hypersensitivity?
A) anaphylaxis
B) myasthenia gravis
C) post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
D) Bruton's agammaglobulinemia
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Chapter 14: Autoimmunity
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 33-year-old female presents with red and irritated eyes for the last month.Discharge from the eyes is not apparent.She also has had recurrent low-grade fever and a rash on her chest and legs.Her joints have been achy for the last few months,and her mouth has been so dry it is often difficult to swallow food.Antinuclear antibody testing is performed,and a speckled pattern is observed on hep-2 cells.Follow-up testing reveals the presence of autoantibodies against SS-A and SS-B.This woman has:
A) systemic lupus erythematosus
B) Sjögren's syndrome
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Q2) Which of the following are characteristic of cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
A) It is usually found in children.
B) It is seen when the patient warms up.
C) The antibody reacts as an anti-I.
D) The antibody reacts as an anti-D.
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Chapter 15: Immunoproliferative Diseases
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which immunoproliferative disorder is a cancer of the plasma cells and results in secretion of light chains into the urine?
A) multiple myeloma
B) Waldenström's macroglobulinemia
C) alpha heavy chain disease
D) DiGeorge syndrome
Q2) What is the interpretation of the following patient results? (normal values)WBC = 7.0 th/uL (5.0-10.0 th/uL),with 89% blasts; CD3 = 10% (60-80%); CD5 = 9% (60-80%); CD10 = 89% (< 1%); CD4 = 6% (30-65%); CD20 = 0% (5-20%); CD34 = 94% (< 1%); CD8 = 3% (10-40%); kappa = 0% (3-15%); lambda = 0% (2-10%); CD19 = 90% (5-20%).
A) normal
B) B-cell acute leukemia
C) T-cell acute leukemia
D) B-cell chronic leukemia
E) T-cell chronic leukemia
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Chapter 16: Immunodeficiency Disease
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The disease SCID is characterized by which of the following?
A) diagnosed in infancy
B) short life span
C) no antibody production
D) all of the above
Q2) A 6-month-old baby has suffered from recurrent bacterial infections.Flow cytometry results indicate a lack of B cells but presence of normally functioning T cells.Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A) SCID
B) common variable hypogammaglobulinemia
C) DiGeorge syndrome
D) Bruton's agammaglobulinemia
Q3) A child suspected of having an inherited humoral immunodeficiency disease is given diphtheria/tetanus vaccine.Two weeks after the immunization,his level of antibody to the specific antigens is measured.Which result is expected for this patient if he does have this deficiency?
A) increased levels of specific antibody
B) no change in the level of specific antibody
C) an increase in IgG-specific antibody but not IgM-specific antibody
D) increased levels of nonspecific antibody
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Chapter 17: Transplantation Immunology
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which test would be best to determine the actual genotype in an HLA matching?
A) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
B) serological testing
C) polymerase chain reaction
D) flow cytometry
Q2) When a complement-dependent cytotoxicity test was performed using standard antibodies to HLA A1,A3,B2,and B11,the following microscopic results were obtained: a majority of blue cells were seen with anti-A1,A3,and B11.Based on these results,what is the phenotype of the donor cells?
A) HLA A1,B11
B) HLA B2 only
C) HLA A1,A3,B11
D) cannot be determined from these results
Q3) Graft-versus-host disease results under which conditions?
A) when immunocompetent cells are placed in an immunocompromised host
B) when immunodeficient cells are placed in an immunocompetent host
C) any time tissue is not exactly matched in a transplant
D) only when adult cells are transplanted into a baby
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Chapter 19: Tumor Immunology
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main reason testing for cold agglutinins is no longer recommended to diagnose infection with Mycoplasma pneumonia?
A) It is difficult to perform.
B) False-positives may be caused by certain viruses.
C) Very few people develop anti-I antibodies.
D) It requires expensive instrumentation.
Q2) Antibodies against streptolysin O,hyaluronidase,and DNase B are measured in the diagnosis of which disease?
A) streptococcal pharyngitis
B) rheumatic fever
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) systemic lupus erythematosus
Q3) Antibodies detected by reacting rickettsial antigens with specific antibody followed by use of an anti-immunoglobulin with a fluorescent tag could be used to diagnose:
A) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
C) stomach ulcers
D) rheumatic fever
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Chapter 20: Serologic and Molecular Detection of Bacterial
Infections
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best describes antigenic variation seen in parasites?
A) The host immune system can respond more quickly.
B) Different parasites have different antigens.
C) Parasites can periodically change their surface antigens.
D) Parasites become sequestered in host cells.
Q2) All of the following may be drawbacks of antibody testing for fungal infections EXCEPT:
A) The patient is immunocompromised.
B) Serologic tests may not be positive at a particular stage of the disease.
C) Presence of antibodies may not indicate an active infection.
D) False-positive results occur often in patients with functioning immune systems.
Q3) When is antibody testing for Cryptococcal antibodies most useful?
A) in determining patient prognosis
B) in diagnosing immunocompromised patients
C) in ruling out the disease in young patients
D) as a screening test after exposure to the fungus
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Chapter 21: Serologic and Molecular Detection of Bacterial
Infections
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 30-year-old man presents to the physician with a painless ulcer on his penis.An RPR performed on the man is reactive 1:128,and the MHA-TP test is positive.This man has:
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Treponema pallidum
D) Mycoplasma hominis
Q2) Lyme disease is caused by:
A) Treponema pallidum
B) Borrelia recurrentis
C) Leptospira autumnalis
D) Borrelia burgdorferi
Q3) Which of the following is a cause of a biological false-positive in the screening assays for syphilis?
A) prozone
B) reagents too cold
C) sera dried on card
D) autoimmune disease
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Page 22
Chapter 22: Serology of Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Serologic test results indicating that a patient is a chronic carrier of hepatitis B would be which of the following?
A) HBsAb positive; HBsAg negative
B) HBcAb and HBsAb positive
C) HBsAb negative; HBsAg positive for 12 months
D) HBeAb and HBeAg negative
Q2) A patient has the following hepatitis profile: anti-HAV IgM = not detected; HBsAg = detected; anti-HBc IgM = detected; anti-HBc total = detected; anti-HBs = not detected; anti-HCV = not detected.What is his diagnosis?
A) acute hepatitis A
B) acute hepatitis B
C) acute hepatitis C
D) chronic hepatitis B
E) immune to hepatitis B
Q3) In the routine diagnosis of rubella virus,which type of laboratory test should be ordered first?
A) antigen detection
B) antibody detection
C) viral culture
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Page 23
Chapter 23: Spirochete Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following body fluids are considered to be possible routes of transmission for HIV even if there is no visible sign of blood EXCEPT:
A) spinal fluid
B) semen
C) urine
D) vaginal secretions
Q2) The Western blot test used to confirm HIV is an example of which of the following?
A) immunofixation
B) immunoelectrophoresis
C) double diffusion
D) passive agglutination
Q3) A patient has serum tested for HIV antibodies by ELISA,and the test is positive.The patient's serum is retested in duplicate with two more positive results.What should be done next?
A) Patient is diagnosed with acute HIV infection.
B) Serum is tested for antibodies against hepatitis C virus.
C) HIV Western blot assay is performed on patient's serum.
D) Results mean that patient had HIV in the past but not now.
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