Clinical Immunology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Clinical Immunology explores the immune systems role in health and disease, emphasizing mechanisms underlying immune responses, immunopathology, and diagnostic techniques. The course covers disorders of immunity such as allergies, autoimmunity, immunodeficiencies, and transplant rejection, along with clinical applications including immunotherapy, vaccination, and laboratory testing. Through integration of theory and case studies, students gain insight into the immune systems pivotal functions in clinical settings, interpretation of immunological data, and advancements in immunological interventions for a variety of diseases.
Recommended Textbook
Immunology Serology in Laboratory Medicine 5th Edition by Mary Louise Turgeon
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33 Chapters
851 Verified Questions
851 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Overview of Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A specific component of the adaptive immune system formed in response to antigenic stimulation is:
A) complement.
B) immunoglobulin.
C) increased secretion of mucus.
D) enhanced phagocytosis.
Answer: B
Q2) The immune system has distinctive characteristics,such as immobility.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The innate immune system is:
A) the most ancient form of host defense.
B) divided into two components,each with a different function.
C) mediated by germline-encoded receptors.
D) both a and c
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Antigens and Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibodies are:
A) proteins
B) glycoproteins.
C) carbohydrates.
D) lipids.
Answer: B
Q2) Another name for the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)in humans is:
A) human leukocyte antigen.
B) allogenic antigens.
C) epitopes.
D) autoantigens.
Answer: A
Q3) Antigen-binding fragments
A)Antigen-binding portion of the molecule
B)Domain
C)L chain
D)Fab
E)Fc portion
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Cells and Cellular Activities of the Immune
System: Granulocytes and Mononuclear Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enhancement of phagocytosis by the coating of foreign particles with serum proteins is called:
A) chemotaxis.
B) opsonization.
C) liposome formation.
D) agglutination.
Answer: B
Q2) Specific granule deficiency
A)Disorder of oxidative metabolism
B)Impaired chemotaxis and delayed killing of ingested bacteria
C)Presents as a leukocyte adhesion deficiency
D)Mild to moderate defect in bacterial killing
E)Recurrent,severe bacterial infections
Answer: E
Q3) Gaucher's disease
A)Deficiency of sphingomyelinase
B)Deficiency of a-glucocerebrosidase
Answer: B
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Cells and Cellular Activities of the Immune
System: Lymphocytes and Plasma Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) K-type lymphocytes
A)Lead to antibody production
B)Destroy target cells through an extracellular nonphagocytic mechanism (cytotoxic reaction)
C)Kill target cells sensitized with antibody
Q2) Duncan's disease
A)Inadequate response to Epstein-Barr virus
B)T cell defect
C)Likely to be confused with pediatric AIDS
D)Low levels of antibodies
E)Poor humoral response to bacterial polysaccharide antigens
Q3) DiGeorge syndrome
A)Inadequate response to Epstein-Barr virus
B)T cell defect
C)Likely to be confused with pediatric AIDS
D)Low levels of antibodies
E)Poor humoral response to bacterial polysaccharide antigens
Q4) Lymph nodes
A)Primary
B)Secondary
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Chapter 5: Soluble Mediators of the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mannose-binding lectin pathway is initiated by:
A) platelet factor B.
B) bacterial exotoxins.
C) binding of MASP1 and MASP2 and another complex to arrays on the surface of a bacterial cell.
D) antigen-antibody complexes.
Q2) Which of the following characteristics is representative of C-reactive protein (CRP)?
A) The first acute-phase reactant to become elevated
B) Nonspecific indicator of inflammation
C) Acute-phase reactant
D) All of the above
Q3) The alternate complement pathway is initiated:
A) by formation of antigen-antibody reactions.
B) as a nonantibody-initiated pathway.
C) without C1,C4,and C2.
D) both b and c
Q4) Cytokines are also referred to as interleukins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Safety in the Immunology-Serology Laboratory
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Q1) Food and drinks should not be consumed in work areas.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sterile gloves must be used for all laboratory work.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Staff must wear lab coats when working.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pipetting by mouth is forbidden in all circumstances.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Infectious waste should be discarded by:
A) incineration.
B) autoclaving.
C) soaking in bleach.
D) both a and b
Q6) Gloves should be changed between each patient contact.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Quality Assurance and Quality Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) A control specimen should be:
A) carried through the entire test procedure.
B) treated in exactly the same way as any patient specimen.
C) assayed at least once a week.
D) both a and b
Q2) Limitations
A)Quality control
B)Sources of error
C)Principle and purpose of the test
D)Procedural protocol
Q3) Quality assessment programs include:
A) patient identification.
B) specimen procurement.
C) specimen transportation and processing procedures.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Mean
A)Middle value in a body of data
B)Value that occurs most frequently in a mass of data
C)Mathematical average calculated by dividing the sum of all individual values by the number of values
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Chapter 8: Basic Serologic Laboratory Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemolysis
A)Rupturing of red blood cells that produces a pink or reddish color to serum or plasma
B)Emulsion of fat globules that often appears in serum after eating,during digestion
C)Yellowish color to plasma or serum
Q2) A meniscus is the:
A) curvature in the top surface of a liquid.
B) zero mark on a pipette.
C) last marking on a serologic pipette.
D) flat line of liquid in a pipette.
Q3) A specimen should be reinactivated when more than ______ hour(s)has (have)elapsed since inactivation.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8
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Chapter 9: Point-Of-Care Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Waived tests
A)More complex than waived tests but usually automated
B)Usually nonautomated or complicated tests requiring considerable judgment
C)Simple procedures
D)Slide examinations
Q2) For diagnostic purposes,human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)test results should always be used with other methods and in the context of the patient's clinical information (e.g. ,medical history,symptoms,results of other tests,clinical impression).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Moderately complex tests
A)More complex than waived tests but usually automated
B)Usually nonautomated or complicated tests requiring considerable judgment
C)Simple procedures
D)Slide examinations
Q4) The greatest source of error is preanalytical error,such as patient identification and specimen collection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Agglutination Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) 2+
A)Tiny aggregates
B)No aggregates
C)Medium-sized aggregates,some free red blood cells (RBCs)
D)Clear supernatant
Q2) The quality of agglutination or precipitation test results depends on:
A) length of incubation with the serum containing antibody.
B) amount of antigen conjugated to the carrier.
C) pH.
D) all of the above.
Q3) A false-positive latex agglutination assay for pregnancy can be produced by all the following except:
A) cross-reactivity with luteinizing hormone (LH).
B) cross-reactivity with follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
C) antisperm antibodies.
D) monoclonal antibody directed against the beta subunit of hCG.
Q4) Flocculation
A)Uses antibodies bound to a particle to enhance the visibility of the reaction
B)Based on the interaction of soluble antigen with antibody
C)Detects antibodies with erythrocyte antigens
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Electrophoresis Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunoelectrophoreis (IEP)is easier to interpret than immunofixation electrophoresis (IFE).
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most common application of immunoelectrophoresis (IEP)of urine is the:
A) diagnosis of monoclonal gammopathy.
B) diagnosis of polyclonal gammopathy.
C) diagnosis of autoimmune hemolysis.
D) demonstration of Bence Jones (BJ)protein.
Q3) Electrophoresis is defined as:
A) migration of charged solutes in an electrical field.
B) migration of charged particles in an electrical field.
C) diffusion of charged particles in an electrical field.
D) both a and b
Q4) Evaluation of abnormal precipitin band can include assessing:
A) the position of the band between antigen and antibody.
B) the distortion of the curvature or arc formation only.
C) the density and elongation of the band only.
D) any deviation of position and shape of the precipitin bands.
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Chapter 12: Labeling Techniques in Immunoassay
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Sample Questions
Q1) Competitive chemiluminescence
A)A fixed amount of labeled antigen competes with unlabeled antigen from a patient specimen for a limited number of antibody-binding sites.
B)The sample antigen binds to an antibody fixed onto a solid phase;a second antibody,labeled with a chemiluminescent label,binds to the antigen-antibody complex on the solid phase.
C)A fixed amount of labeled antibody competes with unlabeled antibody from a patient specimen for a limited number of antigen-binding sites.
D)The sample antibody binds to an antigen fixed onto a solid phase;a second antigen,labeled with a chemiluminescent label,binds to the antigen-antibody complex on the solid phase.
Q2) Quantum dots (Q dots)
A)Semiconductor nanocrystals
B)Method of tagging antibodies with superparamagnetic particles
C)Technology based on two different 200-nm latex particles
D)Molecular cytogenetic technique
E)May be used in many fluorescent and colorimetric applications
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Automated Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Monoclonal antibodies can produce spurious results in nephelometry.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Documentation of quality control data
A)Preanalytical
B)Analytical
C)Postanalytical
Q3) Latex particles act as ______________________ in nephelometry.
A) antigen-coated reaction intensifiers
B) antigen-coated reaction stabilizers of precipitate
C) sensitivity enhancers
D) color reaction intensifiers
Q4) The principle of flow cytometry is based on:
A) antigen-antibody reactions.
B) the formation of immune complexes.
C) the reaction of dyes with the cellular component of interest.
D) the reaction of dyes with immune complexes.
Q5) Microbial contamination can produce erroneous results in nephelometry.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Molecular Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Real-time PCR:
A) is less susceptible to amplicon contamination.
B) is less accurate in quantifying the initial copy number.
C) does not require a thermocycler.
D) quantifies specific RNA sequences.
Q2) Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)
A)Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
B)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q3) The PCR technique can be modified to study ribonucleic acid (RNA)as well as deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
A)True
B)False
Q4) The gold standard of molecular testing is:
A) DNA sequencing.
B) FISH.
C) reverse transcriptase.
D) nephelometry.
Q5) Multiplex PCR is limited by primer-primer interference.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Immune Response in Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rubella
A)The most common congenital virus infection
B)A spectrum of congenital defects
C)Hydrocephalus,intracranial calcification,and retinochoroiditis-the most common manifestations of tissue damage
D)Sequelae of virus infection (include three distinct neurologic syndromes)
Q2) Reactivation of the virus results in the characteristic clinical manifestation of
A)Shingles
B)Chickenpox
Q3) Immune responses to parasitic infection include:
A) immunoglobulin production.
B) antibody-dependent,cell-mediated cytotoxicity.
C) cell defenses,such as eosinophils and T lymphocytes.
D) all of the above.
Q4) For an infectious disease actually to develop in a host,a microorganism must:
A) penetrate the skin or mucous membrane barrier (first line of defense).
B) survive natural body defense mechanisms.
C) survive adaptive body defense mechanisms.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 16: A Primer on Vaccines
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER)regulates:
A) laboratory safety.
B) vaccine products.
C) personnel qualifications.
D) research grants.
Q2) Influenza vaccine
A)Protection against bioterrorism
B)Protection against cervical cancer
C)Not available for preventing congenital infection
D)DNA-based vaccine
E)Annual vaccination required
Q3) Polio vaccine
A)Has reduced disease by 99%
B)Successful in cats
C)Given to high-risk individuals
Q4) The earliest host response to vaccination is a(n):
A) innate immune response.
B) memory response.
C) anamnestic response.
D) both a and b
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Chapter 17: Streptococcal Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNase
A)Is elaborated by scarlet fever-associated strains
B)Also called "spreading factor"
C)Dissolves clots by converting plasminogen to plasmin
D)Four immunologically distinct forms
Q2) Streptococcus pyogenes is the most common causative agent of:
A) pharyngitis.
B) scarlet fever.
C) impetigo.
D) all of the above.
Q3) M protein:
A) can cause infection,even without strains of S.pyogenes.
B) is a major virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) promotes phagocytosis.
D) is the basis for the subclassification of group B streptococci.
Q4) Constant (low)titer
A)Current infection
B)Past infection
C)Trend toward recovery
D)Rules out Streptococcus pyogenes infection
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Syphilis
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Q1) The nontreponemal antibody produced by syphilis-infected patients can also be produced by patients with:
A) other infectious diseases.
B) leprosy,tuberculosis,leptospirosis,or malaria.
C) autoimmune disorders,drug addiction,or old age.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Yaws
A)Common in the Caribbean,Latin America,Central Africa,and Far East
B)Found only in Latin America;infection limited to the skin
C)Found in eastern Mediterranean countries,the Balkans,and the cooler areas of North Africa
Q3) In infected donor blood,Treponema pallidum does not appear to survive in citrated blood stored at 4° C for more than ____ days(s).
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Vector-Borne Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Preferred host for larval and nymphal stages of I.scapularis.
A)White-footed mouse
B)White-tailed deer
Q2) One of the most widely available assays for antibody in Lyme disease is:
A) EIA for total IgM or IgG antibodies.
B) Southern blot test.
C) indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA).
D) RIA.
Q3) Babesiosis
A)Infects red blood cells
B)Member of the Japanese encephalitis group
Q4) The diagnosis of Lyme disease in the United States is based on:
A) characteristic clinical findings.
B) history of exposure in endemic area.
C) erythema migrans (EM)or an antibody response to Borrelia burgdorferi observable by the ELISA or Western blot test.
D) all of the above.
Q5) Preferred host for I.scapularis adult stage.
A)White-footed mouse
B)White-tailed deer
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Toxoplasmosis
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Q1) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)suggests that any confirmed equivocal or ____________ test results for toxoplasmosis should be retested using a different assay.
A) positive
B) negative
C) questionable
D) prenatal
Q2) Toxoplasma gondii antibody assay can demonstrate antibodies within __________ after infection.
A) 2 days
B) 1 week
C) 2 weeks
D) 1 month
Q3) The PCR assay for T.gondii can be performed on:
A) serum or plasma.
B) fresh or frozen biopsy tissue.
C) cerebrospinal fluid.
D) all of the above.
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22
Chapter 21: Cytomegalovirus
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Q1) Primary and recurrent maternal CMV infections cannot be transmitted in utero.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most common virus transmitted to the fetus is:
A) malaria.
B) rubella.
C) hepatitis.
D) cytomegalovirus.
Q3) The preferred method for diagnosis of CMV infection is:
A) culture of virus.
B) polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
C) latex agglutination.
D) either a or b
Q4) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)is related to:
A) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
B) herpes simplex 1.
C) herpes simplex 2.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 22: Infectious Mononucleosis
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Q1) In infectious mononucleosis,EBV:
A) infects B lymphocytes.
B) produces lymphocytes in peripheral blood with T cell characteristics.
C) induces a cytotoxic response against the EBV-infected circulating B lymphocytes.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Davidsohn differential test
A)Distinguishes between heterophil antibodies;uses beef erythrocytes,guinea pig kidney cells,and sheep erythrocytes
B)Detects heterophil antibodies and uses horse erythrocytes
C)Detects heterophil antibodies and uses sheep erythrocytes
Q3) Approximately which percentage of young adults demonstrate antibodies to EBV?
A) Less than 10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 100%
Q4) Immunoglobulin M (IgM)heterophil antibody is characterized by reaction with horse,ox,and sheep erythrocytes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Viral Hepatitis
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Q1) The hepatitis B serologic marker that yields a positive test result and is used as a benchmark for immunity after vaccination is:
A) anti-HBc IgM.
B) anti-HBc IgG.
C) anti-HBe.
D) anti-HBs.
Q2) Hepatitis A virus infection
A)Long-incubation hepatitis
B)Infectious hepatitis or short-incubation hepatitis
Q3) Hepatitis C virus
A)Complex DNA virus
B)Small,RNA-containing picornavirus
C)Small,enveloped,single-stranded RNA virus
Q4) Hepatitis B virus infection
A)Long-incubation hepatitis
B)Infectious hepatitis or short-incubation hepatitis
Q5) Epstein-Barr virus
A)Primary hepatitis virus
B)Secondary hepatitis virus
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Chapter 24: Rubella and Rubeola Infections
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Q1) Acquired rubella is also known as:
A) German measles.
B) 3-day measles.
C) infectious rubella.
D) both a and b
Q2) Immunity to rubella results from:
A) contracting a rubella infection.
B) vaccination against rubella.
C) exposure to other childhood infectious diseases.
D) both a and b
Q3) The risk of fetal anomalies in maternal rubella is highest in the:
A) first month.
B) second month.
C) third month.
D) second trimester.
Q4) The presence of IgM antibody to rubella virus in a single specimen suggests that the patient has recently experienced a rubella infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
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Q1) Phase II
A)This phase lasts about 2 years.The number of volunteers is 100 to 300 persons with the disease to assess the effectiveness of a drug and to observe for adverse side reactions.
B)This phase lasts about 1 year and includes 20 to 80 healthy volunteers who are tested for the safety of new drug.
C)This phase lasts about 3 years.The number of patients with a specific disease is 1000 to 3000 to further verify effectiveness and identify any specific negative side effects of the drug.
Q2) The most frequent malignancy or opportunistic infection observed in AIDS patients is:
A) Pneumocystis jiroveci.
B) Kaposi's sarcoma.
C) toxoplasmosis.
D) non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.
Q3) Human immunodeficiency virus can enter the body with cells associated with HIV.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Hypersensitivity Reactions
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Q1) Asthma is an example of a _____________ hypersensitivity reaction.
A) type I
B) type II
C) type III
D) type IV
Q2) Immunization,or sensitization
A)Cell-mediated
B)Antibody-mediated
C)Dependent on the host's response to a subsequent exposure of antigen
D)Not mediated by antigen-antibody interaction
Q3) Immune complex reactions can:
A) suppress or augment the immune response.
B) inhibit tumor cell destruction.
C) be deposited in blood vessel walls,glomerular membranes,and other sites.
D) all of the above.
Q4) The Arthus reaction is associated with the immune phenomenon of:
A) deposition of immune complexes in blood vessels.
B) release of histamine from tissue basophils.
C) destruction of body tissue by cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
D) phagocytosis of IgG-coated erythrocytes.
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Chapter 27: Immunoproliferative Disorders
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Q1) Bence Jones proteinuria is often associated with:
A) intrarenal obstruction.
B) direct tubular-cell injury.
C) renal failure.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Fill in the blanks,choosing the correct temperature.
Bence Jones (BJ)proteins are soluble at room temperature,become insoluble near (1)_______,and then resolubilize (dissolve)at (2)________.
A)37° C
B)50° C
C)60° C
D)100° C
Q3) Patients with Waldenström's macroglobulinemia (WM)exhibit abnormally large amounts of:
A) IgM.
B) IgG.
C) IgE.
D) IgA.
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29
Chapter 28: Autoimmune Disorders
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Q1) ANA
A)Measures antibody to nuclear antigens
B)Produces a characteristic granular cytoplasmic staining pattern to cytoplasmic constituents of granulocytes
C)An antibody to a basic nonhistone nuclear protein
D)Found in about 80% of patients with pernicious anemia
Q2) Which of the following disorders is considered to be organ-nonspecific?
A) Systemic lupus erythematosus
B) Insulin-dependent diabetes (type 1)
C) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
D) Carditis
Q3) Antimyelin antibody is associated with:
A) rheumatoid arthritis (RA).
B) multiple sclerosis (MS).
C) pernicious anemia (PA).
D) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
Q4) Antigens accessible at higher concentrations.
A)Organ-specific
B)Organ- nonspecific
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Chapter 29: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
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Q1) A diffused or homogeneous pattern in antinuclear antibody (ANA)testing characterizes:
A) nDNA,ds-DNA,histones,ssDNA,DNP,or histones.
B) Sm,RNP,SS-A,SS-B,hnRNP,and others.
C) centromere proteins A,B,and C.
D) nuclear lamins A,B,and C and nuclear pore proteins.
Q2) The overall incidence of SLE has an increased frequency among:
A) African Americans.
B) Native Americans.
C) Puerto Ricans.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Patients with SLE characteristically manifest:
A) a photosensitive facial rash.
B) polyarthritis.
C) dermatitis.
D) all of the above.
Q4) The most common form of lupus is:
A) discoid.
B) systemic.
C) drug-induced.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Rheumatoid Arthritis
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51620
Sample Questions
Q1) The immunoglobulin classes most often associated with rheumatoid factors (RFs)are:
A) IgM and IgG.
B) IgG and IgA.
C) IgM and IgA.
D) IgA and IgD.
Q2) Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)can be treated with the ______________ class of drugs.
A) nonsteroidal antiinflammatory
B) corticosteroid
C) disease-modifying antirheumatic
D) all of the above
Q3) Pauciarticular arthritis
A)Tends to be HLA-DR5-positive.Polyarthritis begins in five or more joints and occurs in about 40% of patients
B)Arthritis involving four or fewer joints occurs in 40% of patients.One subgroup is associated with HLA-Dw5 and HLA-DR5
Q4) Immunologic features of rheumatoid arthritis include antinuclear antibodies (ANAs).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Solid Organ Transplantation
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51621
Sample Questions
Q1) Rejection of a graft displays the key feature(s)of adaptive immunity,which is:
A) memory
B) specificity
C) antibody formation
D) both a and b
Q2) Xenograft
A)Graft between individuals of different species (e.g. ,pig heart valve to a human heart)
B)Graft transferred from one position to another in the same individual (e.g. ,skin,hair,bone)
C)Graft between genetically different recipient and donor of the same species;grafted donor tissue or organ contains antigens not present in recipient
D)Graft transplanted between different but identical recipient and donor (e.g. ,kidney transplant between monozygous twins)
Q3) Patients with aplastic anemia receiving antithymocyte globulin
A)High-risk patients
B)Intermediate-risk patients
C)Low-risk patients
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Chapter 32: Bone Marrow Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cryopreservatives DMSO and pentastarch are used to:
A) prevent toxicity.
B) keep cells from dehydrating.
C) prevent bacterial growth.
D) prevent fungal growth.
Q2) Antimetabolites
A)5-Fluorouracil (5-FU)
B)First agents used in bone marrow transplantation
C)Cytotoxic predominantly during M phase or G2 and M phases of cell cycle
Q3) Increased cell selection and purging of grafts using cell surface membrane markers has resulted in:
A) decreased risk of tumor reinfusion into autologous recipients.
B) decreases in the amount of T cells infused in allogeneic recipients.
C) a lower incidence of GVHD.
D) both a and b
Q4) Allogeneic
A)Stem cells from identical twins
B)Marrow from a related or unrelated donor
C)Transplant of own cells
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Chapter 33: Tumor Immunology
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cancer results from a series of genetic alterations that can include affecting a host's ability to repair resulting damage to DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Usually encapsulated
A)Benign
B)Malignant
Q3) Spontaneous tumor antigens
A)Cell surface molecules coded for by tumorigenic viruses
B)Gene derepression responsible for the production of increased concentrations of these gene products
C)Chemically induced tumors
D)Caused by no known mechanism
Q4) Act on the S,G2,or M phase of mitosis
A)Cell cycle active,phase-specific
B)Cell cycle active,phase-nonspecific
C)Non-cell cycle active
Q5) Metastasis
A)Benign
B)Malignant
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