Clinical Hematology
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Clinical Hematology is an in-depth course that explores the principles and applications of hematologic science in a medical context. Students will learn about the physiology and pathology of blood and blood-forming tissues, including the identification and analysis of various blood disorders such as anemias, leukemias, and coagulopathies. The course covers laboratory techniques for evaluating blood samples, interpreting hematological test results, and understanding their clinical implications. Emphasis is placed on diagnostic procedures, pathogenesis, and treatment options for common and complex hematologic diseases, preparing students for roles in clinical settings and further specialized study.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Hematology and Fundamentals of Hemostasis 5th Edition by Denise M. Harmening
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Chapter 1: Morphology of Human Blood and Marrow Cells:
Hematopoiesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of erythrocytes is functional in peripheral blood after release from the bone marrow?
A) 70%
B) 50%
C) 80%
D) 100%
E) None of the above
Answer: D
Q2) In which immature erythroid cell are nucleoli most visible?
A) Basophilic normoblast
B) Orthochromatic normoblast
C) Pronormoblast
D) Polychromatic normoblast
E) None of the above
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Bone Marrow
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what age do fat cells begin to increase in the bone marrow?
A) 10 years
B) 6 months
C) 4 years
D) 2 years
E) None of the above
Answer: C
Q2) What is the site of erythropoietin production?
A) Spleen
B) Kidney
C) Liver
D) Bone marrow
E) None of the above
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: The Red Blood Cell: Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of ATP needed by the RBC is generated by the Embden-Meyerhof glycolytic pathway?
A) 10%
B) 50%
C) 5%
D) 90%
E) None of the above
Answer: D
Q2) A shift to the right of the hemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve can occur as a result of _____________________.
A) Hypoxia
B) Alkalosis
C) Increase quantity of methemoglobin
D) Increase quantity of hemoglobin F
E) None of the above
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Anemia: Diagnosis and Clinical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polychromasia on the peripheral smear represents an increase in what cell and is a measure of the bone marrow's ability to replace red cells which have been destroyed?
A) Pronormoblast
B) Reticulocyte
C) Basophilic normoblast
D) Orthochromic normoblast
E) None of the above
Q2) Calculate the MCH based on the following parameters: hemoglobin = 12 g/dL, RBC count = 4.4 \(\times\) 10<sup>12</sup>/ L:
A) 30 pg
B) 24 pg
C) 27 pg
D) 32 pg
E) None of the above
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Chapter 5: Evaluation of Red Blood Cell Morphology and
Introduction to Platelet and White Blood Cell Morphology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypochromia is defined as any red cell having a central area of pallor of greater than which value?
A) 1 µm
B) 2 µm
C) 3 µm
D) 5 µm
E) Any of the above
Q2) Which distinctive property is characteristic of a spherocyte?
A) Hypochromia
B) Increased surface area-to-volume ratio
C) Decreased surface area-to-volume ratio
D) Visible central pallor
E) None of the above
Q3) What is the diameter of a macrocyte?
A) 4-6 µm
B) 6-8 µm
C) 9-12 µm
D) 3-5 µm
E) None of the above
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Chapter 6: Iron Metabolism and Hypochromic Anemias
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Q1) Which of the following characterizes the microcytic, hypochromic anemia of chronic disease or infection?
A) Increases marrow iron
B) Decreases serum iron
C) Normal to increased serum ferritin
D) Decreased TIBC
E) All of the above
Q2) Which pH facilitates ferrous iron absorption in the small intestines?
A) Alkaline
B) Acidic
C) Neutral
D) Any of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) To carry oxygen iron must be in what state in the heme of the hemoglobin molecule?
A) Ferric (Fe<sup>3+</sup>)
B) Carboxylated iron
C) Ferrous (Fe<sup>2+</sup>)
D) Metheme
E) None of the above
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Chapter 7: Megaloblastic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) What protein is responsible for vitamin B<sub>12</sub> absorption?
A) Transcobalamin
B) Interleukin-3
C) Intrinsic factor
D) Erythropoietin
E) None of the above
Q2) A patient with pernicious anemia has the following indices: mean corpuscular volume (MCV) >100 fL, mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) = 31 pg, mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) = 33% What might be seen on the peripheral smear?
A) Codocytes
B) Macrocytes
C) Microcytes
D) Schistocytes
E) None of the above
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9
Chapter 8: Aplastic Anemia Including
Pure Red Cell
and Congenital Dyserythropoietic Anemia and Paroxysmal
Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
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Q1) All may be present in the peripheral blood of a patient with aplastic anemia except:
A) Myelocyte
B) Metamyelocyte
C) Relative lymphocytosis
D) Reticulocytosis
E) None of the above
Q2) Which is a congenital disease associated with aplastic anemia?
A) Fanconi's anemia
B) Richter's syndrome
C) Hodgkin's disease
D) Kala-azar
E) None of the above
Q3) In differentiating PNH red cells from normal red cells in the sugar water test, PNH red cells will be _________________.
A) Unaffected
B) Lysed
C) Fragmented
D) Sickled
E) None of the above
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Chapter 9: Introduction to Hemolytic Anemias:
Intracorpuscular Defects: I Hereditary Defects of the Red
Cell Membrane
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reticulocyte production index (RPI) corrects the hematocrit to a normal value of which percentage, and takes into account the maturation time of the reticulocyte at a particular hematocrit?
A) 35%
B) 25%
C) 55%
D) 45%
E) None of the above
Q2) Which RBC membrane skeletal protein represents a dimer of two highly flexible alpha and beta chains that forms tetramers in the membrane?
A) Actin
B) Ankyrin
C) Glycophorin
D) Protein 4.1
E) Spectrin
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11
Chapter 10: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: II
Hereditary Enzyme Deficiencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of Heinz bodies is related to which enzyme deficiency?
A) Gd A-
B) Gd Med
C) Pyruvate kinase
D) Two of the above
E) All of the above
Q2) Hemolysis induced by drugs is a clinical feature commonly seen in which G6PD deficiency?
A) Gd A-
B) Gd Med
C) Both
D) Neither
Q3) What is the major clinical feature of a patient with methemoglobinemia?
A) Reticulocytosis
B) Cyanosis
C) Splenomegaly
D) Pallor
E) Favism
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Chapter 11: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: III
the Hemoglobinopathies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following clinical features is characteristic of sickle cell anemia?
A) Severe anemia
B) Cardiac enlargement (cardiomegaly)
C) Icterus
D) Leukocytosis
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following remains the major cause of morbidity and mortality in patients with sickle cell anemia?
A) Serious bacterial infections
B) Renal papillary necrosis
C) Bone marrow aplasia
D) Infarctions
E) Cardiomegaly
Q3) At the molecular level, which is the most common cause of a hemoglobinopathy?
A) A single-base DNA substitution in the corresponding triplet codon
B) Multiple-base substitutions in the triplet codon
C) The production of long or short subunits
D) The occurrence of fusion subunits
E) All of the above
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: Iv
Thalassemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which non-alpha thalassemias may be expected to have similar if not identical hemoglobin A, A<sub>2</sub>, and F levels?
A) Homozygous hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin (HPFH) and homozygous delta-beta thalassemia
B) Homozygous Hgb Lepare and thalassemia intermedia
C) Thalassemia major and thalassemia minor
D) Heterozygous HPFH and homozygous HPFH
E) None of the above
Q2) Thalassemia is found:
A) Only in the Mediterranean Sea area
B) Only in Australia and South Pacific Islands
C) Only in Southeast Asia
D) Only on the African continent
E) Worldwide
Q3) The anemia of thalassemia is morphologically characterized as __________ anemia.
A) Macrocytic/hyperchromic
B) Microcytic/hypochromic
C) Normocytic/normochromic
D) Microcytic/normochromic
E) None of the above
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Chapter 13: Hemolytic Anemias: Extracorpuscular Defects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemicals or drugs that induce oxidative stress in red cells may result in hemoglobin being denatured and the formation of which type of inclusion?
A) Hemoglobin H inclusions
B) Siderocytes
C) Howell-Jolly bodies
D) Heinz bodies
E) Pappenheimer bodies
Q2) In HDN, when extramedullary hematopoiesis takes over for the fetal bone marrow to compensate for increased red cell destruction, this results in:
A) A hypocellular bone marrow
B) Hepatosplenomegaly
C) Decrease in bilirubin
D) Aplastic anemia
E) Spherocytosis
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15
Chapter 14: Hypoproliferative Anemia: Anemia Associated With Systemic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following RBC morphologies can be seen on the peripheral smear of a patient with liver disease?
A) Macrocytes
B) Acanthocytes
C) Target cells
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Electrolyte disturbances in patients with renal failure can lead to the formation of these cells on the peripheral blood smear:
A) Burr cells
B) Nucleated red blood cells
C) Macrocytes
D) Target cells
E) Spherocytes
Q3) Leukoerythroblastosis with teardrop-shaped red blood cells is indicative of:
A) Bone marrow fibrosis
B) Bone marrow stress
C) Abnormal lipid metabolism
D) Renal disease
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Cell Biology, Disorders of Neutrophils, Infectious
Mononucleosis, and Reactive Lymphocytosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most qualitative white blood cell disorders are characterized by:
A) Bacterial infections due to decreased numbers of neutrophils
B) Bacterial infections due to increased numbers of neutrophils
C) Bacterial infections due to neutrophil dysfunction
D) Bacterial infections due to lymphocyte dysfunction
E) Lymphocyte infections due to lymphocyte dysfunction
Q2) A patient presents with absolute lymphocytosis with 12% reactive lymphocytes on the peripheral blood smear. The heterophile antibody test is negative. What more specific antibody test should be performed?
A) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
B) IgM-Epstein-Barr virus
C) Refractory anemia (RA)
D) Bacterial antigens
E) None of the above
Q3) __________ are the most numerous leukocytes found in the blood.
A) Neutrophils
B) Lymphocytes
C) Monocytes
D) Eosinophils
E) Basophils
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Introduction to Leukemia and the Acute Leukemias
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Q1) Which percentage of blasts does the WHO classification system recommend for a diagnosis of acute leukemia?
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 25%
E) 15%
Q2) The presence of Auer rods in the cytoplasm of cells rules out __________.
A) ALL
B) AML
C) Myelodysplastic syndrome
D) Acute promyelocytic leukemia
E) None of the above
Q3) When a leukemia is suspected in a patient, what laboratory test should be required for the initial diagnosis?
A) CBC, differential, platelet count
B) Cytochemical stains
C) Immunologic surface markers
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders I: Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
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Q1) Which phase of CML carries the worst prognosis and is generally unresponsive to treatment?
A) Chronic
B) Accelerated
C) Blast
D) Remission
E) Refractory
Q2) The prominent laboratory feature representative of CML is:
A) Leukocytosis with left shift
B) Leukocytosis with megaloblastic anemia
C) Leukopenia with lymphocytosis
D) Leukopenia with reticulocytosis
E) None of the above
Q3) When CML is diagnosed in infants and toddlers, it is called __________ CML.
A) Young
B) Juvenile
C) Infant
D) Myelofibrosis
E) AML
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Thrombocythemia, and
Idiopathic Myelofibrosis
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Q1) In the fibrotic (f-CIMF) phase of CIMF, which of the following is characteristic?
A) Fibrosis of the marrow
B) Extramedullary hematopoiesis
C) Leukoerythroblastosis of the peripheral blood
D) Splenomegaly
E) All of the above
Q2) Tissue hypoxia and increased erythropoietic activity is an example of ___________ erythrocytosis.
A) Relative
B) Stress
C) Secondary
D) Primary
E) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following are causes of reactive thrombocytosis?
A) Acute hemorrhage
B) Postsplenectomy and hyposplenism
C) Malignancy
D) Iron-deficiency anemia
E) All of the above
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Chapter 19: Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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Q1) RAEB contains a maximum of __________ blasts in the bone marrow.
A) 30%
B) 20%
C) 10%
D) 5%
E) None of the above
Q2) MDS occurs more often in which age group?
A) Pediatric
B) Child
C) Adult
D) Elderly
E) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following is the most significant prognostic indicator in MDS?
A) Degree of cytopenia
B) Degree of dysplasia in peripheral blood
C) Percentage of bone marrow blasts
D) Degree of dysplasia in bone marrow
E) None of the above
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21
Chapter 20: Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia and Related
Lymphoproliferative Disorders
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Q1) The laboratory test for detecting minimal residual disease in patients who have previously been treated for CLL but currently lack histopathologic evidence of relapse is the:
A) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
B) Complete blood count (CBC) and differential
C) Electrophoresis
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Diagnosis of CLL can be confirmed immunologically by the use of monoclonal antibodies that detect __________ antigens.
A) Cluster differentiation (CD)
B) Chromosome designation
C) Cytoplasmic differentiation
D) Leukocyte differentiation
E) None of the above
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Chapter 21: The Lymphomas
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Q1) What current view is accepted as the etiology for Hodgkin's disease?
A) A malignant proliferation of Reed-Sternberg cells and their variants
B) A benign proliferation of Reed-Sternberg cells and their variants
C) A malignant proliferation of plasmacytoid lymphocytes and their variants
D) A benign proliferation of plasmacytoid lymphocytes and their variants
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following are T-cell disorders?
A) Mycosis fungoides
B) Sézary's syndrome
C) Hepatosplenic gamma/delta lymphoma
D) Angioimmunoblastic lymphadenopathy with dysproteinemia (AILD)-like T-cell lymphoma
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following are diseases in which Reed-Sternberg-like cells have been reported?
A) Melanoma
B) Viral infection
C) Myeloproliferative disorders
D) Stromal malignancies
E) All of the above
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Chapter 22: Multiple Myeloma and Related Plasma Cell Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurologic manifestations such as blurred vision, headaches, and episodes of consfusion occur in patients with Waldenström's macroglobulinemia due to
A) Hyperviscosity syndrome
B) Splenomegaly
C) Bone lesions
D) Renal failure
E) None of the above
Q2) When rouleaux is present, the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) will be
A) Increased
B) Normal
C) Decreased
D) Variable
E) None of the above
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24
Chapter 23: Lipid Lysosomal Storage Diseases and Histiocytosis
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Q1) What is the most common form of Niemann-Pick disease?
A) Adult
B) Infantile
C) Adolescent
D) Juvenile
E) None of the above
Q2) The presence of __________ may be seen with Niemann-Pick cells in the bone marrow of some adult patients.
A) Sea-blue histiocytes
B) Mast cells
C) Macrophages
D) Osteoclasts
E) None of the above
Q3) Tay-Sachs disease is caused by a deficiency of __________ with an increase of
A) Hexosaminidase A/sphingomyelinase
B) Hexosaminidase B/lipase
C) B-Glucocerebrosidase/sulfaminidase
D) Hexosaminidase B/hexosaminidase A
E) Hexosaminidase A/hexosaminidase B
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The release reaction from dense granules involves the secretion of __________.
A) ADP
B) Serotonin
C) Calcium
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) The term used to describe the sol-gel zone is:
A) Plasma membrane
B) Cytoskeleton
C) Peroxisomes
D) Glycocalyx
E) None of the above
Q3) Adhesion of platelets to subendothelial fibers is dependent on a plasma protein called __________.
A) Hageman factor
B) Stuart-Prower factor
C) Christmas factor
D) von Willebrand factor
E) tissue factor
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis: Quantitative and
Qualitative Platelet Disorders and Vascular Disorders
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Q1) Quantitative congenital disorders that produce hypoplasia of megakaryocytes include all of the following except:
A) Fanconi's anemia
B) Thalassemia
C) May-Hegglin anomaly
D) TAR syndrome
E) None of the above
Q2) A patient whose serum contains or is known to have contained the antibody to the P1<sup>A</sup>¹ antigen should receive __________ in all subsequent transfusions.
A) P1<sup>A2</sup>-negative blood
B) P1<sup>A2</sup>-positive blood
C) P1<sup>A1</sup>-positive blood
D) P1<sup>A1</sup>-negative blood
E) None of the above
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Chapter 26: Disorders of Plasma Clotting Factors
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Q1) Clinical histories of patients with hemophilia A may indicate all of the following symptoms except:
A) Hemarthroses
B) Postoperative bleeding
C) Hematuria
D) Hypertension
E) None of the above
Q2) __________ acts as the stabilizer of the fibrin gel.
A) Factor X
B) Factor XIII
C) Factor I
D) Factor VI
E) Factor VII
Q3) Acquired deficiencies of factor VII are associated with:
A) Liver disease
B) Coumadin therapy
C) Vitamin K deficiency
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Page 28
Chapter 27:
Interaction of the Fibrinolytic,
Kinin Systems; Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation; and Related Pathology
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Q1) Diffuse hemorrhage present in DIC is the result of:
A) Increased platelets/decreased coagulation factors
B) Decreased platelets/increased coagulation factors
C) Decreased platelets/decreased coagulation factors
D) Vascular occlusion
E) None of the above
Q2) \(\alpha\)<sub>2</sub>-Anti-plasmin inhibitor irreversibly binds to the __________ binding site on plasmin in a 1:1 molar ratio.
A) Glutamic acid
B) Valine
C) Arginine
D) Lysine
E) None of the above
Q3) Which form of plasminogen is more readily converted to active plasmin by plasminogen activators?
A) Glu-plasminogen
B) Val-plasminogen
C) Lys-plasminogen
D) Arg-plasminogen
E) None of the above
Page 29
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Page 30
Chapter 28: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Q1) The INR value for plasma depends on the international sensitivity index (ISI) of the __________ used.
A) Controls
B) Thromboplastin reagents
C) Calibrators
D) Thromboplastin reagent and instrument combination
E) Instruments
Q2) Advantages of the APTT over the anti-factor Xa chromogenic assay for monitoring intravenous heparin therapy include all of the following except:
A) The technique is quick, familiar, and easy for laboratorians.
B) It is inexpensive.
C) It correlates in a linear fashion, across many patient samples, with the actual concentration (U/mL) of heparin in the patient's plasma.
D) It reflects the anticoagulant activity of the heparin in the patient's plasma.
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Chapter 29: Quality Control in the Hematology Laboratory
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Q1) Which of the following regulates all clinical laboratory testing?
A) Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
B) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
C) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
D) College of American Pathologists (CAP)
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a random error?
A) Bubbles in syringes
B) Leaky tubing
C) Clogs in tubing
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is a cause of a shift?
A) Rerunning a control material
B) Not performing maintenance when due
C) Improperly prepared reagent
D) Analyzing a patient sample without a barcode
Q4) A gradual change in the same direction is a ___________.
A) Shift
B) Trend
C) Titration
D) Dilution
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Quantitative, and Morphologic Analysis of Serous, Cerebrospinal, and Synovial
Fluids
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Q1) What type of light is used to determine birefringence?
A) Ultraviolet
B) Infrared
C) Polarized
D) Refracted
Q2) Which of the following laboratory data is not suggestive of a transudate?
A) White blood cell (WBC) count greater than 1000/µL
B) Specific gravity less than or equal to 1.015
C) Total protein (TP) less than or equal to 3.0 g/dL
D) Fluid TP to serum TP ratio less than 0.5
Q3) Exudates are caused by:
A) Bacterial infection
B) Viral infection
C) Trauma
D) Neoplasms
E) All of the above
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Chapter 31: Hematology Methods
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Q1) When counting cells on a hemacytometer, the four corner and center secondary square of the center primary square are used to count _______.
A) Erythrocytes
B) Leukocytes
C) Platelets
D) Basophils
E) None of the above
Q2) Which disease can cause a decreased ESR?
A) Multiple myeloma
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Cryoglobulinemia
D) Hyperfibrinogenemia
E) Hereditary spherocytosis
Q3) The normal platelet count range is ________.
A) 50-100 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) 200-450 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) 300-500 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
D) 130-400 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
E) None of the above
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Page 34
Chapter 32: Principles of Automated Differential Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The MPV is equivalent to the MCV and is __________ proportional to the platelet count in the Coulter S Plus IV platelet histogram.
A) Directly
B) Indirectly
C) Inversely
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) In the Technicon H1, leukocyte analysis involves staining with peroxidase in a heated chamber with lysis of platelets and __________.
A) RBCs
B) WBCs
C) Mononuclear cells
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 33: Coagulation Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is defined as the time taken for a standardized skin wound to stop bleeding.
A) Clot retraction
B) Bleeding time
C) Reptilase time
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) If a patient's APTT is prolonged, and their PT is normal, this could be due to all of these conditions except:
A) Vitamin K deficiency
B) Hemophilia A
C) Lupus anticoagulant
D) Factor XI deficiency
E) Heparin
Q3) The chromogenic anti-factor Xa assay is used to monitor:
A) Coumarin
B) Low molecular weight heparin
C) Unfractionated heparin
D) Vitamin K
E) B and C
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Chapter 34: Applications of Flow Cytometry to Hematology and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______________ occurs when a chemical absorbs light, causing its electrons to be excited briefly to a higher, less-stable energy state.
A) Electronegativity
B) Light scatter
C) Fluorescence
D) Refraction
Q2) The specimen of choice for analysis of cell function by flow cytometry is:
A) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)-anticoagulated whole blood
B) Sodium heparinized whole blood
C) Thrombonized packed cells
D) Ficoll-treated packed cells
Q3) In DNA analysis by flow cytometry, better quantitation of fluorescence is achieved by measuring:
A) The area of the pulse detected
B) The height of the pulse detected
C) The appearance time of the pulse detected
D) The extinction of the pulse detected
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Page 37
Chapter 35: Molecular Diagnostic Techniques in Hematopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hematopoietic cancer(s) have known oncogenes related to them?
A) Chronic myelogenous leukemia
B) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
C) Burkitt lymphoma
D) T-cell leukemia
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following are clinical applications of in situ hybridization to cells or tissues immobilized on glass slides?
A) Determine the disease related location of foreign organisms
B) Detect and localize gene expression by targeting RNA transcripts
C) Detect point mutations such as the sickle cell anemia mutation
D) A and B
E) All of the above
Q3) Which structures serve as templates for RNA transcription and protein translation?
A) Lipids
B) Amino acids
C) Genes
D) Ribonucleotides
38
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Chapter 36: Special Stainscytochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The peroxidase reaction parallels the Sudan black B stain except that the peroxidase enzyme is found only in __________ granules.
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) The peroxidase reaction is positive for __________ cells.
A) Plasma
B) Lymphoid
C) Myeloid
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Only segmented neutrophils and __________ are scored in LAP staining.
A) Monocytes
B) Band neutrophils
C) Eosinophils
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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