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Clinical Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that integrates medical knowledge, evidence-based clinical practices, and patient-centered care to promote health and manage disease within clinical settings. The course provides students with a comprehensive understanding of the biological, psychological, and social aspects that influence health and illness. Emphasis is placed on developing clinical reasoning, diagnostic skills, and therapeutic strategies through hands-on experiences, case studies, and contemporary research. Students will explore topics such as patient assessment, clinical decision-making, ethical considerations, and the coordination of care across diverse populations, equipping them with the foundational skills necessary for roles in healthcare delivery and further professional study.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Disease 6th Edition by Patton
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25 Chapters
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Sample Questions
Q1) The elbow is proximal to the wrist.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) divides the body into front and rear parts
A)frontal plane
B)transverse plane
C)sagittal plane
D)diaphragm
E)thoracic cavity
F)abdominopelvic cavity
G)cranial cavity
H)mediastinum
Answer: A
Q3) One method the body has of maintaining homeostasis is a positive feedback loop.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Describe the anatomical position. Answer: Answers will vary.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The subatomic particle that determines how an atom unites with other atoms is the A) proton
B) neutron
C) electron
D) both A and B
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following substances is not found in a DNA nucleotide?
A) phosphate unit
B) glycerol molecule
C) nitrogen base
D) a sugar
Answer: B
Q3) The basic building blocks of nucleic acids are nucleotides.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Explain the structure of a nucleic acid and list the differences between RNA and DNA.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cellular respiration occurs in which organelle?
A) ribosome
B) centrioles
C) Golgi apparatus
D) mitochondria
Answer: D
Q2) The cleavage furrow begins to appear during telophase.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The term hyperplasia means a decrease in the size of individual cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) DNA replication occurs during which phase?
A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) metaphase
D) interphase
Answer: D

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Sample Questions
Q1) responsible for willed body movements
A)cardiac muscle
B)skeletal muscle
C)smooth muscle
Q2) Adipose and areolar tissues are examples of:
A) epithelial tissue
B) connective tissue
C) muscle tissue
D) nervous tissue
Q3) transitional
A)skin
B)wall of the urinary bladder
C)kidney tubules
D)trachea
E)air sacs in lungs
F)inner surface of the large intestine
Q4) heart
A)skeletal muscle tissue
B)smooth muscle tissue
C)cardiac muscle tissue
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Q1) The uterus and fallopian tubes are accessory organs of the female reproductive gland.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An artificial organ that is used to replace a nonfunctioning organ is called a prosthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hormones are produced by the ductless glands of the endocrine system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The pituitary gland and the hypothalamus gland are endocrine glands that are located in the skull.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which structure is not part of the lymphatic system?
A) tonsils
B) spleen
C) thymus gland
D) pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inflammatory response has four primary signs: redness,heat,swelling,and pain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One characteristic of viral diseases is their rapid onset after the initial infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Both yeasts and molds are considered fungi.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of these factors is not a risk factor?
A) autoimmunity
B) lifestyle
C) stress
D) preexisting condition
Q5) A disease can be described as a fluctuation in the homeostasis of the body that goes beyond what is considered a normal fluctuation.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The temperature regulating function of the skin can only be accomplished by a high concentration of blood vessels in the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The lining of the mouth is an example of a _____ membrane.
A) mucous
B) serous
C) cutaneous
D) synovial
Q3) List the "ABCD" rule of self-examination for melanoma.
Q4) Mucous membranes line the respiratory and digestive tracts of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe and give the location of the epithelial membranes of the body.
Q6) Which type of gland secretes oil for the skin and hair?
A) sebaceous gland
B) sudoriferous gland
C) eccrine gland
D) apocrine gland
Q7) Describe the structure of nails. Page 9
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Sample Questions
Q1) List and explain the five functions of the skeletal system.
Q2) Explain the process of endochondral ossification.
Q3) The rings of calcified matrix that make up the haversian system are called
A) lamellae
B) canaliculi
C) osteon
D) trabeculae
Q4) Chondrosarcoma is a cancer of cartilage tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Osteomyelitis is more likely to result from a closed fracture than from an open fracture.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The repair of a broken bone increases the activity of osteoblasts.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Yellow marrow is stored in the medullary cavity.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) another term for skeletal muscle
A)voluntary muscle
B)visceral muscle
C)intercalated disks
D)origin
E)sarcomere
F)insertion
G)actin
H)Z line
I)bursae
J)myosin
Q2) In an isotonic contraction,the origin point moves toward the insertion point.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Trying to lift a 500-pound weight would result in what type of muscle contraction?
A) isometric
B) twitch
C) isotonic
D) both A and B
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Sample Questions
Q1) In some severe cases of epilepsy that are unresponsive to medication,doctors will cut the corpus callosum to try to limit the effects of the seizures.Explain why this procedure works.
Q2) Explain how usually benign gliomas can still be a life-threatening condition.
Q3) The highly branched projections of the neuron are called axons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The spinal cord extends from the base of the skull to the level of the third sacral vertebra.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The process of axon repolarization returns the negative charge to the interior of the axon.
A)True B)False
Q6) The effector organ of the knee-jerk reflex is the muscle that extends the knee.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Explain the structure and function of the parasympathetic nervous system.
Q8) Explain the structure of a nerve.
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Sample Questions
Q1) caused by excessive intraocular pressure
A)glaucoma
B)tinnitus
C)cataracts
D)nyctalopia
E)otosclerosis
F)presbyopia
G)astigmatism
H)otitis
I)myopia
J)macular degeneration
K)Ménière disease
L)hyperopia
M)conjunctivitis
Q2) Rods have their highest concentration in the optic disk.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The vitreous body is found in the posterior chamber of the eye.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) an example of a mineralocorticoid
A)glucocorticoid
B)follicle-stimulating hormone
C)calcitonin
D)triiodothyronine
E)ADH
F)aldosterone
G)luteinizing hormone
H)oxytocin
I)epinephrine
J)insulin
K)growth hormone
L)parathyroid hormone
M)thymosin
N)glucagon
O)melatonin
P)ACTH
Q2) The hyposecretion of melatonin is linked to depression.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sickle cell anemia and thalassemia are examples of _____ anemia.
A) aplastic
B) pernicious
C) hemorrhagic
D) hemolytic
Q2) Myeloid tissue is also called red bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following plasma proteins is necessary for blood clotting to occur?
A) albumin
B) globulin
C) fibrinogen
D) Both A and C are necessary for blood clotting to occur.
Q4) Which of the following substances is given to patients to dissolve blood clots?
A) vitamin K
B) tissue plasminogen activator
C) heparin
D) warfarin
Q5) Explain the treatments for pernicious and iron deficiency anemia.
Q6) Describe sickle cell anemia.
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Sample Questions
Q1) part of the conduction system of the heart called the pacemaker
A)visceral pericardium
B)systole
C)atria
D)stroke volume
E)diastole
F)cardiac output
G)ventricles
H)parietal pericardium
I)sinoatrial node
J)endocardium
Q2) A heartbeat that is less than 60 beats per minute is called
A) tachycardia
B) bradycardia
C) sinus dysrhythmia
D) fibrillation
Q3) What is atherosclerosis and what are some risk factors for this condition?
Q4) Both electric shock and medication are used to treat fibrillation.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which blood vessel carries blood toward the capillaries?
A) arteries
B) arterioles
C) venules
D) both A and B
Q2) Which of the following is a condition in which blood pools in the veins because the valves have become incompetent?
A) an aneurysm
B) phlebitis
C) varicose veins
D) gangrene
Q3) A pulse can be found in the head and neck,the arms,and the legs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Arteries and arterioles both distribute blood from the heart to the capillaries.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The term phlebitis refers to an inflammation of a vein.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the difference between graft-versus-host rejection and host-versus-graft rejection.
Q2) Heat,redness,pain,and swelling are the characteristic signs of the inflammatory response.
A)True
B)False
Q3) T cells and B cells release about the same number of antibodies after they have been stimulated by an antigen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The condition in which tissues exhibit swelling because of an accumulation of lymph is called
A) lymphadenitis
B) lymphedema
C) lymphoma
D) Hodgkin disease
Q5) What can be done to prevent the rejection of transplanted tissue?
Q6) After puberty,the thymus continues to enlarge but at a much slower rate.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) External nares is another name for nostrils.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the structure and location of the primary bronchi,secondary bronchi,and bronchioles.
Q3) a life-threatening upper respiratory infection caused by an Hib infection that often struck children between the ages of 3 and 7
A)epistaxis
B)atelectasis
C)rhinitis
D)chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
E)infant respiratory distress syndrome
F)pharyngitis
G)hemothorax
H)asthma
I)chronic bronchitis
J)epiglottitis
Q4) The gas exchange function of the respiratory system occurs in the alveoli.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the infection of the parotid salivary gland?
Q2) Bacteria in the large intestine make vitamin B?? for the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Amylase breaks down starch to glucose.
A)True
B)False
Q4) condition of having gallstones
A)ulcer
B)cholelithiasis
C)mumps
D)hepatitis
E)caries
F)gastroenteritis
G)leukoplakia
H)Crohn disease
I)gingivitis
J)peritonitis
K)ascites
L)diverticulitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not considered part of metabolism?
A) assimilation
B) catabolism
C) anabolism
D) All of the above are part of metabolism.
Q2) A person can be eating a sufficient amount of food and still suffer from kwashiorkor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nonessential amino acids are not needed by the body because they are not used to build human proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The body can store the fat-soluble vitamins A,D,E,and K.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The secretion of too little insulin can lead to hyperglycemia.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List and explain the four ways that heat is lost from the skin.
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Q1) Extensions of cortical tissue that dip down into the medulla between the renal pyramids are called the renal papillae.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the location of the kidneys and explain the ways in which the kidneys are protected.
Q3) What is RAAS? Explain how it functions.
Q4) Explain the process of filtration in the nephron.What parts of the nephron are involved in filtration?
Q5) The bladder emptying reflex causes contraction of the muscle of the bladder and relaxation of the two sphincter muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Which of the following is considered the first segment of the renal tubules?
A) glomerulus
B) proximal convoluted tubule
C) distal convoluted tubule
D) collecting duct
Q7) Define uremia and explain how it occurs.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following decreases interstitial fluid volume?
A) a drop in capillary blood pressure
B) a drop in blood protein levels
C) an increase in capillary blood pressure
D) both B and C
Q2) List the names and the sources of the hormones that play a role in fluid regulation.
Q3) List the sources of water for the body and the ways in which water can be lost from the body.
Q4) An increase in blood protein decreases the volume of fluid in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is not a source of water for the body?
A) food
B) ingested liquids
C) anabolism of food
D) catabolism of food
Q6) Potassium has the highest concentration of any positive ion in the blood.
A)True
B)False

24
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Q1) condition that is caused by a carbonic acid excess
A)buffer
B)metabolic acidosis
C)acid solution
D)respiratory alkalosis
E)respiratory system
F)metabolic alkalosis
G)alkaline solution
H)kidney system
I)respiratory acidosis
J)neutral solution
Q2) Blood in the pulmonary artery has a lower pH than the blood in the aorta.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A solution with a pH of 9
A) is an acid solution
B) is an alkaline solution
C) has more OH- ions than H+ ions
D) both B and C
Q4) Define blood acidosis and blood alkalosis.
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Q1) The mitochondria in the sperm's midpiece supply energy by breaking down ATP.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Both the ova and sperm are considered gametes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Seminal fluid contains gametes and secretions from accessory glands.
A)True
B)False
Q4) an inflammation of the uterine tubes
A)salpingitis
B)oophoritis
C)amenorrhea
D)ovarian cysts
E)uterine myoma
F)dysfunctional uterine bleeding
G)dysmenorrhea
H)premenstrual syndrome
I)endometriosis
Q5) List the essential and accessory organs of the male reproductive system.
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Q1) The process of the expulsion of the placenta occurs in the _____ stage of labor.
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
Q2) an environmental cause of birth defects
A)placenta previa
B)abruptio placentae
C)eclampsia
D)ectopic pregnancy
E)teratogen
F)preeclampsia
G)mastitis
H)puerperal fever
Q3) Explain the events from fertilization to the implantation of the fertilized egg into the uterus.
Q4) The loss of hair cells in the organ of Corti causes a decline in the hearing ability in older adults.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If one parent has sickle cell anemia and the other parent has normal blood,all of their offspring will have sickle cell trait.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain how genes control the activity of a cell.
Q3) Down syndrome results from nondisjunction of the twenty-first chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a pedigree? Explain a situation in which it could be used for genetic counseling.
Q5) Which genetic disease is caused by a recessive gene that causes impairment of chloride ion transport across the cell membrane?
A) Tay-Sachs disease
B) cystic fibrosis
C) phenylketonuria
D) Turner syndrome
Q6) What is a Punnett square? Explain a situation in which it could be used for genetic counseling.
Q7) Define or describe what is meant by a pseudogene.
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