Clinical Diagnosis in Athletic Training Test Bank
Course Introduction
Clinical Diagnosis in Athletic Training focuses on the principles and techniques used to assess, evaluate, and diagnose injuries and conditions commonly seen in athletes and physically active individuals. The course covers systematic approaches for taking patient histories, performing physical examinations, and utilizing clinical reasoning to differentiate between musculoskeletal, neurological, and systemic pathologies. Students learn to implement evidence-based practices, apply diagnostic tools and tests, and develop comprehensive injury management strategies. Emphasis is placed on effective communication, documentation, and integration of diagnostic findings in collaboration with other healthcare professionals to optimize patient care and outcomes in athletic environments.
Recommended Textbook
Examination of Orthopedic Athletic Injuries 4th Edition by Chad Starkey
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Chapter 1: Examination Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of consent is needed before evaluating an injury?
A) Implied consent
B) Informed consent
C) Nonconsent
D) Assumed consent
Answer: B
Q2) What is the best method for palpating an injury?
A) Immediately palpate the most painful site.
B) If there is a bilateral structure, palpate it first.
C) Palpate away from the injury working toward the injury.
D) Palpation doesn't offer any information and shouldn't be performed.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is used to assess strength and provocation of pain by isolating muscles or groups of muscles?
A) Manual muscle test
B) Resisted range of motion
C) Break test
D) Active range of motion
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Examination and Management of Acute Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assessing motor function distal to the site of injury is indicated whether or not you have to move the involved bone or joint.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) During an on-field examination,which is not considered when specifically palpating bony structures?
A) Bony alignment
B) Crepitus
C) Joint alignment
D) Swelling Answer: D
Q3) After knee dislocation,angiography is warranted whether or not there is a palpable pulse and/or signs of ischemia.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Practice in the Diagnostic Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes a research study with two groups-one that receives the treatment and one that does not-that are studied over time to determine the impact of the treatment?
A) Case series
B) Meta-analysis
C) Cohort study
D) Randomized clinical trial
Answer: C
Q2) Three clinicians (I,II,III)are working in the clinic and routinely rotate patients so they are familiar with all of their clients.Which of the following combinations of clinicians needs to work to make their skill set more reliable?
A) Interrater reliability between I and III = 0.78
B) Interrater reliability between I and II = 0.98
C) Interrater reliability between II and III = 0.83
D) Intrarater reliability of I = 0.98
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Injury Pathology Nomenclature
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Q1) Which is not one of the "five P's," or classic signs of late-stage compartment syndrome?
A) Pain
B) Pink color
C) Pallor
D) Paresthesia
Q2) A 12-year-old boy reports pain,periods of joint locking,and an inability to use his arm.Which of the following injuries does this boy have?
A) Osteochondral defect
B) Meniscal tear
C) Ligament sprain
D) Olecranon bursitis
Q3) Which of the following tests would be used to assess a patellar subluxation?
A) Valgus stress test
B) Varus stress test
C) Apprehension test
D) McMurray's test
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Chapter 5: Musculoskeletal Diagnostic Techniques
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Q1) Which frequency is more likely to be used to examine deeper tissue via diagnostic ultrasound?
A) 1 megahertz
B) 5 megahertz
C) 10 megahertz
D) 15 megahertz
Q2) Which of the following utilizes a routine radiological series,including AP,lateral,and oblique?
A) Cervical spine
B) Patellofemoral
C) Elbow
D) Knee
Q3) Which of the following is not part of the routine radiological series for the wrist,hand,and fingers?
A) AP
B) Posterior-anterior
C) Lateral
D) Oblique
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Chapter 6: Assessment of Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following indicates a positive test when assessing muscle length of the hamstring group?
A) Lacking 5° of knee extension
B) Lacking 10° of knee extension
C) Lacking15° of knee extension
D) Lacking 20° of knee extension
Q2) Which of the following represents ideal postural alignment based on the lateral view using a plumb line?
A) Lateral malleolus bisects line
B) Greater trochanter slightly anterior to line
C) Lateral femoral condyle slightly posterior to line
D) Acromion process bisects line
Q3) Which of the following is not a common response pointing toward possible postural involvement in an injury?
A) Insidious onset of pain
B) Pain worsening as the day progresses
C) Specific activity aggravating one muscle
D) Vague or generalized pain descriptions
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Chapter 7: Evaluation of Gait
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Q1) What compensation is typically associated with decreased dorsiflexion during the terminal stance?
A) Premature heel raise
B) Prolonged midtarsal pronation
C) Increased subtalar pronation
D) Forefoot abduction
Q2) What is being described when one says a person walks 50 steps per minute?
A) Stride time
B) Gait velocity
C) Stride length
D) Cadence
Q3) During midstance,terminal stance,and preswing,the ankle dorsiflexes to a maximum of how many degrees as the lower leg traverses anteriorly over the contact foot and as the body weight is transferred to the opposite limb?
A) 20°
B) 15°
C) 10°
D) 5°
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9
Chapter 8: Foot and Toe Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) When measuring the angle of the medial longitudinal arch,which static position is considered normal?
A) 121° to 130°
B) 131° to 152°
C) 153° to 162°
D) 110° to 120°
Q2) Which of the following deformities involves the progressive contracture of the interosseous or lumbrical muscles?
A) Claw toe
B) Hammer toe
C) Morton's toe
D) Hallux valgus
Q3) Which of the following produces the windlass effect?
A) Flexion of the toes causes the calcaneus to come forward.
B) Extension of the toes causes the calcaneus to come forward.
C) Flexion of the toes causes the navicular to drop down.
D) Extension of the toes causes the navicular to drop down.
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Chapter 9: Ankle and Leg Pathologies
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Q1) Correct hand positioning for the anterior drawer test includes one hand stabilizing the leg while the other hand cups the calcaneus with the forearm supporting the foot in what position?
A) Neutral
B) Slight plantar flexion (10° to 20°)
C) Slight dorsiflexion (10° to 20°)
D) Slight inversion (5° to 10°)
Q2) The ankle complex (talocrural and subtalar joints)is least stable when it is in the open-packed position,which is a combination of what two motions?
A) Plantar flexion and eversion
B) Plantar flexion and inversion
C) Dorsiflexion and eversion
D) Dorsiflexion and inversion
Q3) Which of the following is not a sign/symptom of anterior compartment syndrome?
A) Paresthesia in the web space between the first and second toes
B) Decreased ability to extend the toes
C) Absence of the dorsalis pedis pulse
D) Increased dorsiflexion strength
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Chapter 10: Knee Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Injury to which of the following would cause edema instead of effusion?
A) PCL
B) LCL
C) ACL
D) Deep fibers of the MCL
Q2) Which of the following is the end-feel for knee extension?
A) Hard
B) Firm
C) Soft
D) Bony
Q3) Based on the evidence,which statement best describes the clinical usefulness of the Lachman test?
A) The Lachman test is useful for ruling in an ACL sprain.
B) The Lachman test is useful for ruling out an ACL sprain.
C) The Lachman test is useful for ruling in or ruling out an ACL sprain.
D) The Lachman test is not useful for ruling in or ruling out an ACL sprain.
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Chapter 11: Patellofemoral Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patellar alignment problem would an athlete have with a congenitally short patellar tendon?
A) Patella alta
B) Patella baja
C) Squinting patella
D) "Frog-eyed" patella
Q2) Which of the following occurs at the insertion of the patellar tendon into the inferior pole and is caused by a stress fracture or avulsion due to repetitive forces?
A) Osgood-Schlatter disease
B) Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease
C) Patellofemoral bursitis
D) Synovial plica
Q3) An athlete presents to the athletic training room complaining of knee pain.Upon evaluation you notice the athlete's patella is high riding and sitting laterally.What patellar alignment problem does the athlete have?
A) Patella alta
B) Patella baja
C) Squinting patella
D) "Frog-eyed" patella
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Pelvis and Thigh Pathologies
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Q1) The pelvis is formed by pairs of three fused bones and joined anteriorly by which of the following?
A) Ischial tuberosity
B) Pubic symphysis
C) Sacroiliac (SI) joint
D) Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)
Q2) Which structure is responsible for stabilizing the pelvic girdle?
A) Ischium
B) Pubis
C) Ilium
D) Sacrum
Q3) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Coxa valga is seen when there is a decrease in the angle of inclination.
B) The normal angle of inclination is 125°.
C) Women have a slightly increased angle of inclination.
D) The innominate bone is made up of the sacrum, ischium, and ilium.
Q4) The anterior fibers of the iliofemoral ligament function to limit hyperextension of the hip.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Lumbosacral Pathologies
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Q1) Which of the following is true?
A) Tight hamstrings can cause an anterior rotation of the ileum.
B) With an anterior rotation, a person's uninvolved leg will appear longer.
C) Gillet's test is more reliable than Patrick's or Gaenslen's test.
D) Gaenslen's test is used to place a rotary stress on the SI joint.
Q2) The femoral nerve stretch test is associated with a high number of false positives due to injured quadriceps.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the space where the spinal nerve roots exit the vertebral column called?
A) Pars interarticularis
B) Intervertebral foramen
C) Foramen magnum
D) Neural arch
Q4) What is the amount of stress placed on the lumbar intervertebral discs when a person is sitting and leaning forward?
A) 165 lb (75 kg) of pressure
B) 220 lb (100 kg) of pressure
C) 386 lb (175 kg) of pressure
D) 606 lb (275 kg) of pressure
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Cervical and Thoracic Spine and Thorax Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what position should a patient be placed when testing for cervical flexion and extension motion?
A) Supine
B) Side-lying
C) Standing
D) Seated
Q2) The onset of commotio cordis is influenced by all of the following factors.Which of these is most crucial?
A) Type of force
B) Timing of impact
C) Location of force
D) Amount of force
Q3) Which nerve does the diaphragm innervate with?
A) Scapulothoracic
B) Phrenic
C) Axillary
D) Hypoglossal
Q4) Spurling's test is a modification of the cervical compression test.Explain the difference between the two tests.
Page 16
Q5) The supraspinous ligament is called the _______ ________ in the cervical region.
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Page 17
Chapter 15: Shoulder and Upper Arm Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common site for fractures of the clavicle?
A) Junction of the convex and concave curvature of the clavicle
B) Lateral third
C) Junction of the medial third and middle third
D) Medial third
Q2) Injury to what nerve would be indicated by scapular winging?
A) Axillary nerve
B) Long thoracic nerve
C) Phrenic nerve
D) Subclavian nerve
Q3) The scapular retraction test is used to identify which of the following?
A) Role of scapular dysfunction in pathology
B) Presence of impingement
C) Degree of anterior GH instability
D) Strength of the rhomboid major and minor
Q4) Define the plane of the scapula.
Q5) When palpating the bicipital groove,the _______ _______ is lateral to the groove,and the ________ _________ is on the medial aspect of the groove.
Q6) Name all the muscles that have a direct action on the scapula.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Elbow and Forearm Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normal carrying angle for women ranges from _______ of cubitus valgus.
A) 0° to 5°
B) 7° to 11°
C) 13° to 16°
D) 18° to 21°
Q2) A valgus stress performed on the elbow is assessing the integrity of which ligament?
A) UCL
B) RCL
C) Annular
D) Coracoclavicular
Q3) Male patients over what age commonly have biceps tendon ruptures?
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50
Q4) The forearm is displaced anteriorly or anterolaterally compared to the humerus in 90% of cases.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Wrist, Hand, and Finger Pathologies
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Q1) Which of the following is a nonarticular fracture of the radius occurring approximately 1.5 inches proximal to the radiocarpal joint,causing the distal radius to be displaced dorsally?
A) Reverse Colles' fracture
B) Tom's fracture
C) Colles' fracture
D) Smith's fracture
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of the triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC)?
A) It decreases loading stresses.
B) It provides stability during flexion and extension.
C) It provides stability during pronation and supination.
D) It stabilizes the distal radioulnar joint.
Q3) Which of the following is responsible for checking radial deviation and becomes taut at the end-ranges of flexion and extension?
A) Radial collateral ligament (RCL)
B) Ulnar collateral ligament (UCL)
C) Palmar radiocarpal ligament
D) Dorsal radiocarpal ligament
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Page 20
Chapter 18: Eye Pathologies
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Q1) A teardrop pupil is of serious concern and is an indicator of the possibility of which of the following?
A) Hyphema
B) Subconjunctival hematoma
C) Exophthalmos
D) Corneal laceration
Q2) Blindness or permanent dysfunction can result from failure to properly manage an eye injury.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Loss of part of the visual field indicates damage to which of the following?
A) Cornea
B) Lens
C) Retina
D) Sclera
Q4) Anisocoria describes a patient suffering from which of the following?
A) Elliptical pupil
B) Teardrop pupil
C) Hyphema
D) Unequal pupils
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Chapter 19: Face and Related Structure Pathologies
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Q1) A blow that crushes which of the following would result in an inability to speak?
A) Hyoid bone
B) Cricoid ring
C) Larynx
D) Thyroid cartilage
Q2) If a tooth is avulsed and cannot be reimplanted,which of the following is an appropriate step?
A) Clean and scrub the debris off the tooth, rinse with saline, and place the tooth in gauze inside of the mouth.
B) Store the tooth in skim milk.
C) Sterilize the tooth, then store in a biocompatible storage environment.
D) Rinse the tooth with saline and store in whole milk if an emergency tooth preserving kit is not available.
Q3) A normal,healthy individual has four canines per row of teeth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A fracture that extends into the enamel is considered a dental emergency.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Head and Acute Cervical Spine Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following responses from an athlete indicate transitory unconsciousness? Select all that apply.
A) The athlete states he was "knocked out."
B) The athlete states he "just blacked out for a second or two."
C) The athlete states he "saw stars."
D) The athlete states he "did not lose consciousness at all."
Q2) What test is used to determine whether cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)is present in fluids leaking from a head-injury patient's nose or ears?
A) Halo test
B) Battle's test
C) Romberg's test
D) Babinski's test
Q3) When a patient who suffers a head injury cannot remember events after the injury,the patient is said to be suffering from what?
A) Anterograde amnesia
B) Retrograde amnesia
C) Psychogenic amnesia
D) Delusional amnesia
Q4) List two ways to elicit a pain response from an unconscious patient.
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