Clinical Dental Hygiene
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Clinical Dental Hygiene is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the foundational knowledge and practical skills required for effective dental hygiene practice in a clinical setting. The curriculum emphasizes patient assessment, preventive dentistry, instrumentation techniques, infection control procedures, and the development of individualized care plans. Through a combination of classroom instruction and supervised clinical experience, students learn to deliver preventive and therapeutic oral health care, educate patients on oral hygiene, and collaborate with dental professionals to promote optimal oral health outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Oral Pathology for the Dental Hygienist 7th Edition by Olga A. C. Ibsen
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10 Chapters
758 Verified Questions
758 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Preliminary Diagnosis of Oral
Lesions
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pathologic lesion seen on the dorsal surface of the tongue is characteristic of A) fissured tongue.
B) hairy tongue.
C) median rhomboid glossitis.
D) migratory glossitis.
Answer: C
Q2) A pathologic lesion found frequently in 30-year-old black women that requires a radiographic image and historical data for diagnosis is termed
A) verrucous vulgaris.
B) necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
C) periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D) amalgam tattoo.
Answer: C
Q3) Which condition is not diagnosed through clinical appearance?
A) Mandibular tori
B) Fordyce granules
C) Black hairy tongue
D) Compound odontoma
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Inflammation and Repair
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common site for the development of a pulp polyp is
A) the occlusal surface of a large open carious tooth.
B) the apex of the tooth.
C) the gingival margin of the tooth.
D) deep in the pulp canal.
Answer: A
Q2) Which symptom is a systemic sign of inflammation?
A) Redness
B) Pain
C) Loss of normal tissue function
D) Fever
Answer: D
Q3) An example of an irreversible cellular response that occurs during tissue injury is termed
A) atrophy.
B) hypertrophy.
C) hyperplasia.
D) necrosis.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Immunity and Immunologic Oral Lesions
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73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most characteristic skin lesion in SLE is described as A) a blister.
B) urticaria.
C) a butterfly rash.
D) a bulla.
Answer: C
Q2) This patient has Sjögren syndrome and severe xerostomia. Which clinical feature most appropriately describes the changes on the tongue in this patient?
A) Dryness
B) Candidiasis
C) Loss of filiform and fungiform papillae
D) Fissures
Answer: C
Q3) What is the common name for urticaria?
A) Hives
B) Dermatitis
C) Dry socket
D) Jaundice
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Infectious Diseases
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77 Verified Questions
77 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true concerning a positive reaction to the PPD skin test?
A) The patient has active tuberculosis.
B) The patient is contagious.
C) The patient has been infected previously with Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D) The patient is in need of hospitalization.
Q2) An erythematous, often rhombus-shaped, flat-to-raised area on the midline of the posterior dorsal tongue describes
A) median rhomboid glossitis.
B) geographic tongue.
C) recurrent herpes simplex infection.
D) hairy leukoplakia.
Q3) The gingivae shown are painful and erythematous. The interdental papillae appear as punched-out, necrotic, cratering areas. The overall sloughing of the necrotic tissue appears as a pseudomembrane over the tissues. The patient experiences a foul odor and metallic taste. On the basis of these features, which condition is suspected?
A) Acute marginal gingivitis
B) Primary herpes simplex infection
C) NUG
D) Pseudomembranous candidiasis
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Developmental Disorders
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multiple supernumerary teeth may be a component of which condition?
A) Cleidocranial dysplasia
B) Dermoid cyst
C) Syphilis
D) Static bone cyst
Q2) The pseudocyst seen in this radiographic image is surrounded by salivary gland tissue. It is a(n) _____ bone cyst.
A) simple
B) Stafne
C) traumatic
D) aneurysmal
Q3) Odontogenesis in the human embryo takes place at approximately
A) 5 weeks.
B) 2 months.
C) 3 months.
D) at birth.
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Chapter 6: Genetics
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The correct order for the stages of mitosis is
A) prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase.
B) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.
C) prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase.
D) metaphase, prophase, telophase, anaphase.
Q2) The _____ type of amelogenesis imperfecta is characterized by tooth enamel that does not develop to a normal thickness because of failure of the ameloblasts to lay down enamel matrix properly.
A) hypoplastic
B) hypocalcified
C) hypomaturation
D) hypoplastic-hypomaturation
Q3) Nonsex chromosomes that are identical for men and women
A)Autosomes
B)Gamete
C)Locus
D)Mutation
E)Phenotype
F)Syndrome
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Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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114 Verified Questions
114 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The adenoid cystic carcinoma is
A) a benign tumor of salivary gland origin.
B) well encapsulated and does not infiltrate surrounding tissue.
C) most commonly seen intraorally on the palate.
D) painless.
Q2) Where is the most common intraoral location for the development of minor salivary gland tumors?
A) Tongue
B) Junction of the hard and soft palate
C) Interdental papilla
D) Floor of the mouth
Q3) "Keratin pearls" are a characteristic feature of
A) squamous cell carcinoma.
B) basal cell carcinoma.
C) pleomorphic adenoma.
D) monomorphic adenoma.
Q4) Cells are poorly differentiated.
A)Benign
B)Malignant
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Chapter 8: Nonneoplastic Diseases of Bone
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Asymptomatic florid cemento-osseous dysplasia usually requires no treatment. However, in an edentulous patient, the sclerotic masses may perforate the mucosa causing which complication?
A) Fibrous dysplasia
B) Aneurysmal bone cyst
C) Osteomyelitis
D) Central giant cell granuloma
Q2) Giant cell granulomas located in the gingiva or alveolar mucosa are referred to as central. Giant cell granulomas located within the maxilla or mandible are referred to as peripheral.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) Osteitis deformans and leontiasis ossea are other names for what chronic metabolic bone disease?
A) Central giant cell granuloma
B) Jaffe-Lichtenstein
C) Paget disease
D) Albright syndrome
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Chapter 9: Oral Manifestations of Systemic Diseases
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84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A "hair-on-end" pattern may be noted on skull radiographic images of a patient with A) polycythemia.
B) aplastic anemia.
C) sickle cell anemia.
D) thalassemia.
Q2) Thalassemia is
A) caused by an abnormal type of hemoglobin in red blood cells.
B) a disorder of hemoglobin synthesis.
C) caused by a severe depression of bone marrow activity.
D) caused by an increase in the number of circulating red blood cells.
Q3) Type A hemophilia is caused by a deficiency of factor _____.
A) VII
B) VIII
C) IX
D) X
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11
Chapter 10: Orofacial Pain and Diseases Affecting the
Temporomandibular Joint
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term describes a procedure induced inadvertently by a health care provider or by medical treatment or a diagnostic procedure?
A) Sign
B) Symptom
C) Iatrogenic
D) Auscultation
Q2) What is the function of the synovial fluid inside the joint?
A) To provide nourishment and lubrication of avascular structures
B) To allow the bones to fit together properly
C) To absorb shock
D) To allow for correct palpation of the joint area
Q3) Tumors arising in the TMJ area are common. The most common benign tumors that arise in the condyle include the osteochondroma.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
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Page 12