

![]()


Clinical Dental Hygiene focuses on the principles and practices essential for the delivery of preventive oral healthcare services. This course emphasizes the development of clinical skills including patient assessment, dental hygiene diagnosis, treatment planning, instrumentation techniques, infection control, and educational strategies to promote oral health. Students learn to perform procedures such as scaling, root planing, and application of preventive agents under supervised clinical settings, while also gaining experience in patient communication, recordkeeping, and professional ethics. The course prepares students to effectively assist patients in achieving and maintaining optimal oral health through evidence-based dental hygiene care.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Radiography Principles and Techniques 4th Edition by Iannucci DDS MS
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811 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Current fast radiographic film requires less than ____ % of the initial exposure times used in 1920.
A) 25
B) 10
C) 5
D) 2
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding the importance of dental radiographs?
A) An oral examination with dental radiographs limits the practitioner to what is seen clinically.
B) All dental diseases and conditions produce clinical signs and symptoms.
C) Dental radiographs are not a necessary component of comprehensive patient care.
D) Many dental diseases are typically discovered only through the use of dental radiographs.
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nucleus of an atom contains:
A) Protons
B) Neutrons
C) Protons and neutrons
D) Electrons
Answer: C
Q2) Thermionic emission of electrons occurs at the:
A) Tungsten filament in the anode.
B) Tungsten filament in the cathode.
C) Copper stem.
D) Molybdenum cup.
Answer: B
Q3) The purpose of the anode is to:
A) Produce electrons when heated.
B) Convert electrons into x-ray photons.
C) Absorb heat created by the production of x-rays.
D) Filter out nonpenetrating, longer-wavelength x-rays.
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) When contrasted with the use of 65 kV to 75 kV for dental x-rays, the use of 85 kV to 100 kV produces:
A) More penetrating dental x-rays with longer wavelength.
B) Less penetrating dental x-rays with longer wavelength.
C) More penetrating dental x-rays with shorter wavelength.
D) Less penetrating dental x-rays with shorter wavelength.
Answer: C
Q2) A film with "low" contrast (greater or equal to 90 kVp):
A) Is useful for the detection of periodontal or periapical disease.
B) Is useful for the detection and progression of dental caries.
C) Has many shades of gray.
D) Both a and c.
Answer: D
Q3) Milliamperage regulates the ____ of electrons produced at the cathode filament.
A) quality
B) quantity
C) speed
D) power
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The indirect theory proposes that:
A) Free radicals combine to form toxins.
B) Ionizing radiation directly hits critical areas within cells.
C) Direct injuries occur more frequently than indirect injuries.
D) Both a and c.
Q2) The SI equivalent of the rem is:
A) The rad.
B) The gray.
C) The sievert.
D) The roentgen.
Q3) Which of the following statements is/are true of the average dose of background radiation received by an individual in the United States?
A) The average dose ranges from 150 to 300 millirads.
B) Geographic areas at higher elevations are associated with increased amounts of cosmic radiation.
C) Geographic areas that contain more radioactive materials are associated with increased amounts of cosmic radiation.
D) Both a and b.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A circular collimator produces a cone-shaped beam that is ____ inch(es) in diameter.
A) less than 1
B) 1.25
C) 2.75
D) 5.0
Q2) State and federal laws require that dental x-ray machines operating above 70 kVp have a minimum total (inherent plus added filtration) of ____ mm of aluminum filtration.
A) 1.5
B) 2.0
C) 2.5
D) 5.0
Q3) According to the current recommendations (2003) of the National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements, the current MPD for an occupationally exposed pregnant women is the same as that for:
A) An occupationally exposed nonpregnant women.
B) An occupationally exposed man.
C) An occupationally exposed child under 18.
D) A nonoccupationally exposed person.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are beam alignment devices?
A) Stabe bite-block
B) XCP bite-block
C) EEZEE-Grip
D) Precision film holders
Q2) During an exposure:
A) The exposure button is briefly depressed and then released to initiate the exposure.
B) The exposure button is firmly depressed until the preset exposure time is completed.
C) The exposure light on the control panel is illuminated to signal the completion of the exposure.
D) A beep sounds to signal initiation of the exposure.
Q3) The ____ allow(s) for positioning of the tubehead.
A) control devices
B) extension arm
C) control panel
D) exposure button
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which size of bite-wing film is used to examine posterior teeth in very small children?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Q2) The tube side of the dental film packet:
A) Has the flap used to open the dental film.
B) Is solid white.
C) Should face the patient's tongue.
D) Is color-coded.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding dental x-ray film and formation of the latent image?
A) The film is placed to the buccal of the teeth.
B) The film is placed to the lingual of the teeth.
C) A periapical film is an extraoral film.
D) A bite-wing film is an extraoral film.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a high operating kilovoltage peak (>90 kVp) is used, (low/high) subject contrast and (many shades of gray/areas of black and white) are seen on the radiograph.
A) Low subject contrast; many shades of gray
B) Low subject contrast; areas of black and white
C) High subject contrast; many shades of gray
D) High subject contrast; areas of black and white
Q2) If the milliamperage is increased, the film density ____, and the film appears ____.
A) Increases; lighter
B) Increases; darker
C) Decreases; darker
D) Decreases; lighter
Q3) The geometric characteristic of ____ refers to the capability of the x-ray film to reproduce the distinct outlines of an object.
A) Magnification
B) Distortion
C) Sharpness
D) Parallax
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insufficient fixation time or insufficient rinsing would lead to:
A) Overdeveloped film.
B) Reticulation of emulsion.
C) Yellow-brown films.
D) Fixer cutoff.
Q2) The major advantage of automatic film processing versus manual film processing is:
A) Less processing time is required.
B) Time is manually controlled.
C) Water temperature is manually controlled.
D) More sophisticated equipment is used.
Q3) The hardening agent used in fixer solution is:
A) Potassium bromide
B) Potassium alum
C) Acetic acid
D) Sulfuric acid
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Sample Questions
Q1) To test the automatic film processor, ____ in the automatic processor.
A) Unwrap one film, expose it to light, and then process the film
B) Unwrap one film, do not expose it to light, and then process the film
C) Unwrap two unexposed films, expose one to light, and then process the exposed film
D) Unwrap two unexposed films, expose one to light, and then process both films
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of the evaluation of the film-screen contact test?
A) Areas of poor film-screen contact appear darker than good contact areas.
B) Areas of poor film-screen contact appear lighter than good contact areas.
C) If the wire mesh image on the film exhibits varying densities, good film-screen contact has taken place.
D) Both a and c.
Q3) The viewbox should emit a uniform and subdued light when it is functioning properly. Permanently discolored Plexiglas surfaces and blackened fluorescent light bulbs must be replaced.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
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Radiographer
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Sample Questions
Q1) To avoid occupational exposure to x-radiation, the dental radiographer must always: (Note: Though all are true, one is the most critical and encompasses the others.)
A) Maintain an adequate distance.
B) Have proper positioning.
C) Have proper shielding.
D) Avoid the primary beam.
Q2) Through the use of dental radiographs, the dental radiographer can detect ____ that cannot be detected clinically. 1. Diseases
2) Lesions
3) Conditions of teeth and bones
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3
D) 3 only
Q3) Radiographs are a(n) ____ comprehensive patient care.
A) Adjunct to
B) Necessary component of
C) Option for
D) Supplement to
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Sample Questions
Q1) When nonverbal messages are not consistent with verbal messages, the patient is more likely to:
A) Relax.
B) Trust the dental professional.
C) Respond with apprehension.
D) Both a and b.
Q2) When listening to a patient, the dental radiographer should:
A) Interrupt if the patient gets "off track."
B) Correct the patient if he or she is wrong.
C) Finish the patient's sentences to show that the radiographer is following the patient's train of thought.
D) Give the patient undivided attention.
Q3) Inviting a patient to ask questions:
A) Wastes time.
B) Discourages communication.
C) Enhances communication.
D) Intimidates the patient.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with gum disease will require:
A) Less frequent radiographic examinations than a patient without such disease.
B) Less frequent radiographic examinations than a patient without such disease if pocket depth readings are regularly recorded.
C) Radiographic examinations at regular intervals regardless of circumstances.
D) More frequent radiographic examinations than a patient without such disease.
Q2) The dental radiographer can use ____ to educate the dental patient.
A) An oral presentation.
B) Printed literature.
C) A combination of oral presentation and printed literature.
D) Neither oral presentation nor printed literature.
Q3) For dental x-rays to produce permanent skin damage, such as skin cancer, exposures in the range of ____ roentgens are needed.
A) 10
B) Hundreds of
C) Thousands of D) Millions of
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is appropriate for any dental professional to discuss a patient's care with:
1) Another patient.
2) Office staff members who are not involved in the treatment of the patient.
3) Another dentist involved in the patient's care.
4) A physician with whom care is shared.
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)1, 2, 3
C)1, 2
D)3, 4
Q2) When radiographs are forwarded to a subsequent dentist:
A) The original films should be forwarded.
B) Duplicate films should be forwarded unless the patient signs a release for original films.
C) The original films should be copied and then forwarded; retain the duplicate.
D) The original films should not be forwarded.
Q3) Erroneous entries in the dental record should:
A) Be erased.
B) Be blocked out.
C) Be covered with white-out.
D) Never be erased or blocked out.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infectious diseases may be transmitted from:
1) A patient to the dental professional.
2) The dental professional to a patient.
3) One patient to another patient.
A)1, 2, 3
B)1, 3
C)2, 3
D)1, 2
Q2) After seating the patient, the radiographer must complete which of the following procedures before washing the hands and putting on gloves?
1) Chair adjustment
2) Headrest adjustment
3) Placing the lead apron
A)1, 2, 3
B)1, 2
C)2, 3
D)3 only
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Sample Questions
Q1) A total of ____ to ____ films may be included in the CMRS.
A) 4; 7
B) 7; 14
C) 14; 20
D) 19; 21
Q2) The bite-wing film is used in the:
A) Periapical paralleling technique.
B) Periapical bisecting technique.
C) Occlusal technique.
D) Interproximal examination.
Q3) Which of the following is an extraoral technique for radiographic examination?
A) Panoramic
B) Interproximal
C) Periapical
D) Occlusal
Q4) Which of the following methods is/are used for obtaining periapical radiographs?
A) Paralleling
B) Bisecting
C) Interproximal
D) Both a and b

18
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Q1) Parallel is defined as:
A) To cut across or through.
B) Intersecting at or forming a right angle.
C) Moving or lying in the same plane, always separated by the same distance and not intersecting.
D) An angle of 90 degrees formed by two lines perpendicular to each other.
Q2) According to the text, size 1 film is always positioned with the long portion of the film in a ____ direction, and size 2 film is always positioned with the long portion of the film in a ____ direction.
A) Vertical; vertical
B) Horizontal; horizontal
C) Vertical; horizontal
D) Horizontal; vertical
Q3) ____ posterior film placements are used in the paralleling technique.
A) Four
B) Six
C) Seven
D) Eight
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Sample Questions
Q1) The recommended posterior periapical exposure sequence for the bisecting technique is to begin with the:
A) Maxillary right quadrant.
B) Maxillary left quadrant.
C) Mandibular right quadrant.
D) Mandibular left quadrant.
Q2) According to the authors, in the bisecting technique, film-holding instruments or the patient's finger may be used to position and stabilize the film. With the bisecting technique, using film holders is recommended because it eliminates use of the patient's finger to stabilize the film.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
Q3) Which size film is traditionally used with the bisecting technique?
A) #1 film for anterior teeth, #1 film for posterior teeth
B) #1 film for anterior teeth, #2 film for posterior teeth
C) #2 film for anterior teeth, #1 film for posterior teeth
D) #2 film for anterior teeth and for posterior teeth
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Q1) Which size film is used only for bite-wings?
A) Size 0
B) Size 1
C) Size 2
D) Size 3
Q2) For the premolar bite-wing exposure, the PID is positioned far enough forward to cover both maxillary and mandibular:
A) Lateral incisors.
B) Canines.
C) First premolars.
D) Second premolars.
Q3) In the adult patient, which size film is recommended for bite-wing exposures?
A) Size 0
B) Size 1
C) Size 2
D) Size 3
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cause of an excessive margin of film edge (which appears as a black band) on a nondiagnostic periapical film is:
A) The edge of the film was not placed parallel to the incisal-occlusal surfaces of the teeth.
B) The film was not positioned in the patient's mouth to cover the apical regions of the teeth.
C) The film was underexposed.
D) The central ray was not directed through the interproximal spaces.
Q2) When the film is reversed, the image will be:
A) Elongated.
B) Distorted.
C) Light with a herringbone pattern.
D) Blurred.
Q3) A cone cut occurs when:
A) The film is underexposed.
B) The film is overexposed.
C) The PID was not properly aligned with the periapical film holder.
D) The exposure button was not depressed for a sufficient amount of time.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which occlusal projection is used to examine the palate and the anterior teeth of the maxilla?
A) Topographic occlusal projection
B) Lateral occlusal projection
C) Cross-sectional occlusal projection
D) Pediatric projection
Q2) Which occlusal projection is used to locate foreign bodies or salivary stones in the region of the floor of the mouth?
A) Topographic occlusal projection
B) Lateral occlusal projection
C) Cross-sectional occlusal projection
D) Pediatric projection
Q3) When using the occlusal technique, the film is positioned with the ____ side facing the arch that is being exposed, and the film is placed in the mouth ____.
A) White; to the lingual of the teeth
B) White; between the occlusal surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular teeth
C) Colored; to the lingual of the teeth
D) Colored; between the occlusal surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular teeth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Structures are clearly demonstrated on a panoramic radiograph in a ____ zone.
A) Two-dimensional straight
B) Two-dimensional curved
C) Three-dimensional straight
D) Three-dimensional curved
Q2) Rare earth screens emit ____ light and are considered faster than calcium tungstate screens, which emit ____ light.
A) Blue; green
B) Blue; blue
C) Green; green
D) Green; blue
Q3) In panoramic radiography, the ____ rotate(s) around the patient.
A) Film
B) Tubehead
C) Tubehead and film
D) Dental chair
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Sample Questions
Q1) To compensate for the strips found in the grid, ____ must be used to expose a film.
A) Increased kilovoltage
B) Increased milliamperage
C) Increased exposure time
D) Decreased exposure time
Q2) Lateral jaw radiography:
A) Requires the use of a special x-ray unit.
B) Provides for more diagnostic information than a panoramic radiograph.
C) Is used to examine the anterior portion of the mandible.
D) Is valuable for patients with limited jaw opening because of a fracture or swelling.
Q3) The beam should be directed ____ degrees for the ramus of the mandible projection.
A) Downward at 15 to 20
B) Upward at 15 to 20
C) Downward at 45
D) Upward at 45
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Q1) If a person is blind or visually impaired, the dental radiographer must:
A) Communicate using clear visual explanations.
B) Communicate using clear verbal explanations.
C) Not explain each procedure before performing it.
D) Gesture to another person in the presence of a person who is blind.
Q2) When intraoral films are impossible to obtain, the radiographer should:
A) Skip radiographs.
B) Use an injection of local anesthetic on the patient's throat and try again.
C) Use extraoral films to obtain diagnostic information.
D) Use an intraoral digital film sensor rather than conventional film.
Q3) Which of the following suggestions are intended to help reduce the gag reflex?
A) Instructing the patient to breathe rapidly through the nose
B) Asking the patient to suspend an arm or leg in the air
C) Placing a small amount of baking soda on the tip of the tongue
D) Asking the patient to perform jumping jacks for 5 minutes in the treatment room
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Q1) How does the CMOS detector differ from the CCD detector?
A) The CMOS detector is silicon-based and differs from the CCD detector in the way that the pixels are read.
B) The CMOS detector is currently manufactured by one company and claims 25% less resolution than the CCD detector.
C) The CMOS detector is more expensive to produce than the CCD detector.
D) The CMOS detector is less durable than the CCD detector.
Q2) Exposure times are ____ than that required for conventional radiography.
A) 10% to 20% less
B) 10% to 20% more
C) 50% to 90% less
D) 50% to 90% more
Q3) The electrons that compose the silicon charge-coupled device (CCD) can be visualized as being divided into an arrangement of blocks or picture elements known as:
A) A field arrangement.
B) Pixels.
C) Phosphors.
D) A grid.
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Q1) The information that the receptor receives is termed the:
A) Computer analysis.
B) Image.
C) Raw data.
D) DICOM data.
Q2) The reconstruction of raw data into images when imported into viewing software to create three anatomical planes of the body is called:
A) Multiplanar reconstruction.
B) Axial plane.
C) Coronal plane.
D) Sagittal plane.
Q3) Radiation is stopped and may not reach the receptor when it interacts with an area of high attenuation, such as:
A) Soft tissue.
B) Large amalgam restorations.
C) Periodontal abscess.
D) Normal anatomic structures.
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Q1) The lateral fossa is located between the:
A) Maxillary canine and lateral incisor.
B) Mandibular canine and lateral incisor.
C) Maxillary canine and first premolar.
D) Mandibular canine and first premolar.
Q2) The alveolar crest in the posterior region tends to appear ____ dense and ____ radiopaque than the alveolar crest seen in the anterior region.
A) Less; less
B) More; more
C) Less; more
D) More; less
Q3) The hamulus extends from the:
A) Medial pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone.
B) Lateral pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone.
C) Styloid process.
D) Maxillary tuberosity.
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Q1) The dental radiographer should always mount films ____ after processing.
A) Immediately
B) 24 hours
C) 3 days
D) 1 week
Q2) Who among the following categories of dental professionals is qualified to mount dental radiographs?
1) Dentist
2) Dental hygienist
3) Dental assistant
A)1, 2, 3
B)1, 2
C)2, 3
D)1 only
Q3) In dental radiography, film mounting is the placement of radiographs:
A) On a viewbox.
B) In a supporting structure or holder.
C) In the patient's mouth.
D) In the processor.
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Q1) The ____ foramen is a tiny hole or opening in bone located on the internal surface of the mandible near the midline.
A) Lingual
B) Mental
C) Incisive
D) Mandibular
Q2) The glenoid fossa is a ____ areA.
A) Convex, raised
B) Convex, depressed
C) Concave, raised
D) Concave, depressed
Q3) The hamulus extends from the:
A) Medial pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone.
B) Lateral pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone.
C) Coronoid process.
D) Styloid process.
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Q1) According to the text, ideally, dental radiographs should be reviewed and interpreted immediately after mounting:
A) Alone in a quiet room in the evening.
B) In the presence of the patient.
C) Even if processing and mounting take place a week after the films were exposed.
D) Only when it is convenient.
Q2) Radiographic interpretation enables the dental professional to play a vital role in the detection of ____ of the teeth and jaws that cannot be identified clinically.
1) Lesions
2) Diseases
3) Conditions
A)1, 2, 3
B)1, 2
C)1, 3
D)1 only
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Q1) A unilocular lesion with corticated borders is usually indicative of a ____ process.
A) Benign slow-growing
B) Benign rapidly growing
C) Malignant slow-growing
D) Malignant rapidly growing
Q2) Which of the following would be an example of a mixed lucent-opaque lesion?
A) Compound odontoma
B) Osteitis deformans
C) Chondrosarcoma
D) Florid osseous dysplasia
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a radiopaque structure?
A) Dental pulp
B) Dentin
C) Periodontal ligament space
D) Soft tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diatorics are found in:
A) Silver point endodontic fillings.
B) Gutta percha endodontic fillings.
C) Anterior porcelain denture teeth.
D) Anterior acrylic denture teeth.
Q2) Post and core restorations can be seen in ____ treated teeth.
A) Periodontally
B) Orthodontically
C) Endodontically
D) Nonendodontically
Q3) Which of the following is the most common restorative material used in dentistry?
A) Porcelain
B) Cast gold
C) Amalgam
D) Acrylic
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Q1) A carious lesion appears ____ on a dental radiograph.
A) Radiopaque
B) Radiolucent
C) White
D) Clear
Q2) A Class ____ lesion is an advanced interproximal lesion.
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Q3) In the practice of dentistry, ____ is probably the most frequent reason for taking dental radiographs.
A) Periodontitis
B) Caries
C) Impacted teeth
D) Orthodontia
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Sample Questions
Q1) In health, the lamina dura around the roots of the teeth appears as a(n) ____ line.
A) Dense radiolucent
B) Dense radiopaque
C) Intermittent radiolucent
D) Intermittent radiopaque
Q2) The periodontal ligament space is located between the root of the tooth and the:
A) Crest of alveolar bone.
B) Lamina dura.
C) Cementum.
D) Spongy bone.
Q3) The severity of bone loss is measured by the:
A) Pocket depth.
B) Recession.
C) Amount of inflammation.
D) Clinical attachment loss.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pulp stones ____ cause symptoms and ____ require treatment.
A) Do; do
B) Do; do not
C) Do not; do
D) Do not; do not
Q2) ____ is the complete displacement of a tooth from alveolar bone.
A) Luxation
B) Intrusion
C) Extrusion
D) Avulsion
Q3) ____ resorption is a process seen with the normal shedding of primary teeth.
A) Physiologic
B) Pathologic
C) External
D) Internal
Q4) Teeth that have been luxated should be evaluated by a(n) ____ radiograph.
A) Bite-wing
B) Periapical
C) Occlusal
D) Panoramic
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