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Clinical Chemistry Exam Preparation Guide - 529 Verified Questions

Page 1


Clinical Chemistry Exam Preparation

Guide

Course Introduction

Clinical Chemistry is a branch of clinical pathology that focuses on the analysis of bodily fluids to diagnose and monitor diseases. This course examines the principles and techniques used in the chemical analysis of blood, urine, and other body fluids, covering topics such as enzymology, electrolytes, acid-base balance, blood gases, and metabolite assessment. Emphasis is placed on understanding laboratory instrumentation, quality control, result interpretation, and the clinical significance of various biochemical tests for disease states including diabetes, renal dysfunction, hepatic disorders, and endocrine abnormalities. Through lectures and laboratory experiences, students gain essential skills in performing and interpreting clinical chemistry assays relevant to patient care.

Recommended Textbook

Linne Ringsruds Clinical Laboratory Science 7th Edition by Mary Louise Turgeon

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17 Chapters

529 Verified Questions

529 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2348

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Chapter 1: Fundamentals of the Clinical Laboratory

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which certifying agency or agencies have been granted deemed status to act on behalf of the federal government in matters of laboratory accreditation?

A) Commission on Office Laboratory Accreditation (COLA)

B) College of American Pathologists (CAP)

C) The Joint Commission (TJC)

D) Both b and c

Answer: D

Q2) CLIA personnel requirements specify:

A) requirements of persons working in each of the testing sites where tests of moderate or high complexity are done.

B) educational requirements.

C) required training and experience.

D) all of the above.

Answer: D

Q3) NAACLS

A)American Society for Clinical Laboratory Science

B)National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences

C)American Society of Clinical Pathologists

Answer: B

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Safety in the Clinical Laboratory

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Contact lenses can be manipulated with gloved hands.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) Treatment for alkali or acid burns of the skin is to:

A) rinse thoroughly with large amounts of running tap water.

B) apply ice.

C) wash thoroughly with soap and water.

D) apply direct pressure.

Answer: A

Q3) The newest Patient Safety Goals with application to the laboratory includes:

A) improve accuracy of patient identification.

B) identify analytical errors by using quality control before releasing results.

C) decrease the laboratory turn-around time.

D) establish an exact protocol for testing outpatient specimens.

Answer: A

Q4) Lipstick or makeup should not be applied in the clinical work area.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Page 4

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Chapter 3: Quality Assessment and Quality Control in the Clinical Laboratory

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) One way to determine a control range for a particular analysis is to:

A) assay an aliquot of the control serum with the regular batch of assays for 15 to 25 days.

B) treat a control sample exactly like an unknown specimen.

C) estimate the most reasonable value.

D) do both a and b.

Answer: B

Q2) Accuracy describes:

A) how close a test result is to the true value.

B) comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant.

C) how close the test results are to one another when repeated analyses of the same material are performed.

D) the purity of a substance.

Answer: A

Q3) Lean principles of management focus on:

A) reduction of unnecessary activities.

B) describe personnel qualifications.

C) measure reduction in variability.

D) stress flow of ideas from top to bottom.

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Phlebotomy: Collecting and Processing Blood

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The first tier of infection control for health care professionals is to use ____ precautions.

A) standard

B) contact

C) airborne

D) droplet

Q2) For a patient to be in a fasting state,he or she must abstain from food and liquids other than water for ____ hours.

A) 2 to 4

B) 4 to 8

C) 8 to 12

D) 12 to 24

Q3) The draw volume of blood into an evacuated tube can be affected at greater than ____ feet of altitude.

A) 2000

B) 5000

C) 15,000

D) 25,000

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6

Chapter 5: The Microscope

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The definition of Köhler illumination is the:

A) strength of the transmitted light.

B) light path through the microscope.

C) light path passing through the condenser of the microscope.

D) light path passing through the diaphragm of the microscope.

Q2) A brightfield microscope may be converted to a darkfield microscope by:

A) use of a special darkfield condenser in place of the usual condenser.

B) replacement of the usual filters.

C) use of a special ocular.

D) changing the type of light source.

Q3) The term ocular is another name for the microscopic ____ that magnifies an image.

A) objective

B) eyepiece

C) diaphragm

D) nosepiece

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Chapter 6: Systems of Measurement, laboratory

Equipment, and Reagents

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Flammable solvents should be stored in:

A) a refrigerator.

B) a freezer.

C) special safety cans.

D) a draft-free location.

Q2) Distilled water is defined as water from which:

A) iron, magnesium, calcium, and other minerals have been removed by heating and cooling the vapor.

B) ions have been removed by charcoal filters.

C) microbiological organisms have been removed.

D) All of the above are correct.

Q3) Each new lot or batch of reagent should be tested with ____ with the existing reagent.

A) controls

B) standards

C) calibrators

D) all of the above

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Laboratory Mathematics and Solution Preparation

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) specific gravity

A)the amount of matter per unit volume of a substance

B)relates the weight of 1 mL of a solution and the weight of 1 mL of pure water at 4°C (1 g)

Q2) In rounding off numbers:

A) when the digit next to the last one to be retained is less than 5, the last digit should be left unchanged.

B) when the digit next to the last one to be retained is greater than 5, the last digit is increased by 1.

C) if the additional digit is 5, the last digit reported is changed to the nearest even number.

D) follow all of the above.

Q3) If a serum specimen is diluted 1:2 with buffer beginning in tube 2 and serially rediluted 1:2 in each of five subsequent test tubes,what is the concentration of serum in tube 5?

A) 0.5

B) 0.25

C) 0.125

D) 0.06

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Chapter 8: Basic and New Techniques in the Clinical Laboratory

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37 Verified Questions

37 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) 620-750

A)not visible (infrared light)

B)red

C)orange

D)yellow

E)green

F)blue

G)violet

H)not visible (ultraviolet light)

Q2) Various enzymes are used in enzyme immunoassay.In order to be used,an enzyme must fulfill certain criteria,including multiple antigen specificity.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Fundamental prerequisite for a nephelometry measurement is:

A) formation of a macromolecular complex.

B) the reaction between the protein being assayed and a specific antisera.

C) formation of an insoluble complex.

D) all of the above.

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Chapter 9: Delivery of Laboratory Testing From Point of

Care to Total Automation

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26 Verified Questions

26 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) General functions of an LIS can include:

A) bar code reading of specimens.

B) selection of tests from a test menu.

C) reporting of test results.

D) all of the above.

Q2) The three most highly automated areas of the clinical laboratory are:

A) microbiology, urinalysis, and hematology.

B) clinical chemistry, hematology, and urinalysis.

C) clinical chemistry, microbiology, and blood banking.

D) immunology, microbiology, and hematology.

Q3) A laboratory test that is not performed in a traditional laboratory is called a ____ test.

A) provider-performed microscopy

B) waived

C) moderately complex

D) highly complex

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Chapter 10: Introduction to Clinical Chemistry

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) alpha fetoprotein

A)suggests early recurrence of breast cancer

B)secreted in endodermal sinus tumors

C)detected in choriocarcinoma

D)found in 20% of smokers

Q2) Which of the following laboratory tests assist in the diagnosis of heart failure?

A) BNP

B) Fibrinogen

C) CRP

D) D-dimer

Q3) The first step in the laboratory determination of serum cholesterol is to ensure that all cholesterol present is in the free form.This is accomplished with the use of:

A) cholesterol esterase.

B) glycerol.

C) cholesterol oxidase.

D) lipase.

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Chapter 11: Principles and Practice of Clinical Hematology

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80 Verified Questions

80 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The maximum allowable time for determination of a WBC count,microhematocrit,or platelet count using blood that has been collected in EDTA is ____ hours,if it is refrigerated at 4° C.

A) 4

B) 8

C) 24

D) 48

Q2) When RBCs are examined morphologically,what characteristics should be observed?

A) Variations in color

B) Variations in size (anisocytosis)

C) Variations in shape (poikilocytosis)

D) All of the above

Q3) A hematocrit and PCV are the same measurement.However,the hematocrit is expressed in percentage (%)but the PCV is expressed as: A) g/dL.

B) L/L.

C) ×10<sup>12</sup>/L.

D) ×10<sup>9</sup>/L.

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Introduction to Hemostasis

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26 Verified Questions

26 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A function or activity of platelets is to form an aggregate plug or platelet mass that can physically slow down or stop blood loss.

A)True

B)False

Q2) An unbalanced hemostatic mechanism can produce:

A) thrombosis.

B) bleeding.

C) inadequate number of platelets.

D) both a and b.

Q3) D-dimer assay is important in detecting:

A) factor VIII deficiency.

B) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

C) fibrinogen deficiency.

D) defective platelet aggregation.

Q4) A function or activity of platelets is to maintain the endothelial lining of the blood vessels.

A)True

B)False

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14

Chapter 13: Renal Physiology and Urinalysis

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58 Verified Questions

58 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Select the microscopic elements that could be found in normal or abnormal urinary sediment: Few bacteria in a fresh,nonsterile specimen.

A) Normal

B) Abnormal

Q2) Reagent strips will deteriorate if exposed to moisture or heat.

A)True

B)False

Q3) in the detection of blood in the urine,ascorbic acid in urine specimens containing more than 25 mg/dL

A)false positive

B)false negative

Q4) Important factors in the collection and handling of urine include all of the following except the:

A) container used.

B) collection procedure.

C) conditions of storage and preservation from the time of collection until the specimen is tested.

D) use of a sterile container.

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15

Chapter 14: Examination of Body Fluids and Miscellaneous Specimens

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Serous fluids:

A) have a composition that is unlike serum.

B) are contained within the closed cavities of the body.

C) are ultrafiltrates of plasma.

D) Both a and b are correct.

Q2) An assay for fetal fibronectin (fFN)is performed,if the:

A) mother is having symptoms of premature labor.

B) fetus is suffering from hemolytic anemia.

C) parents want to know the gender of the fetus.

D) obstetrician wants to know if the fetus has a genetic disorder.

Q3) If CSF has a xanthochromic appearance,it can indicate bleeding:

A) within 30 minutes to 1 hour.

B) within 1 to 2 hours.

C) between 12 hours and 2 to 4 weeks.

D) within the past month.

Q4) Ideally,a semen specimen should be analyzed within ____ of collection.

A) 30 minutes

B) 1 hour

C) 2 hours

D) 12 hours

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Chapter 15: Introduction to Microbiology

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70 Verified Questions

70 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The cellophane tape method is used to detect which of the following?

A) Plasmodium spp.

B) Trichomonas vaginalis

C) Enterobius vermicularis

D) Pneumocystis jiroveci

Q2) Which of the following media contain sodium thiosulfate and ferric ammonium citrate for the detection of hydrogen sulfide production?

A) Triple sugar iron agar (TSI)

B) Lysine iron agar (LIA)

C) Xylose-lysine-desoxycholate agar (XLD)

D) All of the above

Q3) If a urine culture was planted using a 0.001-mL loop and 75 colonies were observed,what is the colony-forming units per millimeter of urine (CFU/mL)?

A) 75 CFU/mL

B) 750 CFU/mL

C) 7500 CFU/mL

D) 75,000 CFU/mL

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Chapter 16: Immunology and Serology

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45 Verified Questions

45 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A convalescent blood specimen should be collected ____ after the onset of symptoms.

A) 24 hours

B) 72 hours

C) 1 week

D) 2 weeks

Q2) Humoral-mediated immunity is associated with:

A) T lymphocytes.

B) B lymphocytes.

C) neutrophils.

D) monocytes.

Q3) An anamnestic response differs from a primary antibody response in several important aspects.IgG-type antibodies are the principal class of antibody formed in a primary response.

A)True

B)False

Q4) monocytes-macrophages

A)recognition of foreign antigen and antibody production

B)antigen-presentation

C)phagocytosis

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Chapter 17: Immunohematology and Transfusion Medicine

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The concentration of RBCs used in blood banking testing is important.

A)True

B)False

Q2) direct antihuman globulin test

A)used to detect antibody

B)used to detect antibody-coated RBCs

Q3) The latest standards for blood donor selection can be found at all of the following sources except:

A) www.arc.com.

B) AABB Standards for Blood Banks and Transfusion.

C) Federal Register.

D) Code of Federal Regulations.

Q4) The proper temperature and duration of incubation are not critical to antigen-antibody reactions.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The first stage of red cell agglutination is sensitization.

A)True

B)False

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