Course Introduction
Clinical Biochemistry
Textbook Exam Questions
Clinical Biochemistry is the study of the chemical processes and substances that occur within the human body in relation to health and disease. This course explores the principles and techniques used for the analysis of body fluids, including blood and urine, to diagnose, monitor, and manage various medical conditions. Students will learn about the biochemical markers associated with organ function, metabolic disorders, and the impact of physiological changes on laboratory results. The course also covers laboratory instrumentation, quality assurance, interpretation of clinical data, and the role of biochemistry in patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 4th Edition by Christopher K. Mathews
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29 Chapters
705 Verified Questions
705 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Scope of Biochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a role played by proteins?
A)structural
B)transport
C)information signaling
D)catalysts
E)all of the above
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following is a polymer derived from glucose?
A)cellulose
B)ribonucleic acid
C)polypeptide
D)deoxyribonucleic acid
E)none of the above
Answer: A
Q3) The molecule pyruvic acid is found at the crossroads of several biochemical pathways.Pyruvic acid is also known as 2-oxopropanoic acid.Based upon this name,draw the molecule.
Answer: 11ea8a11_436d_60c5_8b44_bfd5f6b258f9_TB4872_00
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3
Chapter 2: The Matrix of Life: Weak Interactions in an Aqueous Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glutamic acid contains two carboxylic acid groups (pK<sub>a</sub> values of 2.2 and 4.2)and an amine group (pK<sub>a</sub> 9.7).What is the pI for glutamic acid?
A)3.2
B)6.0
C)6.5
D)7.0
E)none of the above
Answer: A
Q2) Imidazole is a commonly used buffer in biochemistry labs.With a pK<sub>a</sub> of 7.0,what would be the ratio of base to acid at pH 7.4?
Answer: 2.5 11ea8a11_436e_4b29_8b44_234f570e4c48_TB4872_00
Q3) Which of the following atoms could interact through a hydrogen bond?
A)the oxygen of a ketone and the hydrogen of an aldehyde
B)the oxygen of methanol and a hydrogen on the methyl carbon of methanol
C)the hydrogen of an amine and the oxygen of an alcohol
D)the hydrogen on an aromatic ring and the oxygen of carbon dioxide
E)none of the above
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: The Energetics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the change in entropy for a process is much less than the change in enthalpy,why might the entropy change be the dominant factor in determining the overall free energy of the process?
A)biochemical reactions are performed at relatively constant pressure
B)biochemical reactions generally occur around 300 K.
C)biochemical reactions involve few reactants and products
D)biochemical reactions involve mixtures of molecules,never pure substances
E)all of the above
Answer: B
Q2) If the \(\Delta\)GS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0'for ATP hydrolysis is -31 kJ/mol and the \(\Delta\)GS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0' for phosphoenolpyruvate hydrolysis is -62 kJ/mol,what is the \(\Delta\)GS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0' for the phosphorylation of ADP by phosphoenolpyruvate?
A)-93 kJ/mol
B)-31 kJ/mol
C)+31 kJ/mol
D)+93 kJ/mol
E)none of the above
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following describes the directionality seen in nucleic acids?
A)most polynucleotides have an unreacted 5' hydroxyl group
B)all polynucleotides have an unreacted 2' hydroxyl group
C)most polynucleotides have a phosphate group on the 5' end
D)sequences of polynucleotides are generally written from 3' on the left to 5' on the right
E)none of the above
Q2) From the following polynucleotide sequence,one would conclude which of the following?
ACCAGTCG
A)the base found at the 3' end of the molecule is adenine
B)the base found at the 5' end of the molecule is adenine
C)the terminal adenosine contains a free 3' hydroxyl group
D)the terminal guanosine contains a free 5' phosphate group
E)none of the above
Q3) Show the typical hydrogen bonds that from when adenine pairs with its complimentary base.
Q4) Draw the structure of cytosine and thymine,then show the most common tautomer of each.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Introduction to Proteins: the Primary Level of
Protein Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The peptide hormone insulin is composed of two peptide held together primarily by what mechanism?
A)disulfide bonds between cysteine residues
B)charge-charge interactions between acidic and basic amino acids
C)extensive hydrogen bonding due to the relatively high serine and glutamine content
D)hydrophobic interactions
E)an amide bond formed from the R-groups of a glutamic acid residue and a lysine residue
Q2) What is the pI for the following peptide: Ala-Glu-Val-Asp-Lys-Leu
Q3) Which of the following amino acids is incorporated into proteins during ribosomal protein synthesis?
A)sarcosine
B)ornithine
C)4-hydroxyproline
D)phosphoserine
E)selenocysteine
Q4) Draw each of the structures of aspartic acid that predominate at pH 1,3,7,and 11.
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Chapter 6: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Q1) Which of the following would contribute to tertiary structure?
A)charge-charge interaction between lysine and aspartic acid
B)disulfide bond
C)hydrogen bond between serine hydroxyl group and amide of glutamine
D)hydrophobic interaction between leucine and valine
E)all of the above
Q2) Draw a section of antiparallel \(\beta\)-sheet showing two sheets with three residues in each sheet.Clearly show the hydrogen bond pattern between the two sheets.
Q3) A protein with five disulfide bonds was treated with \(\beta\)-mercaptoethanol and urea.Once the protein was denatured,the \(\beta\)-mercaptoethanol and urea were removed by dialysis.What is the likelihood that all five disulfide bonds will reform correctly?
A)1/5 or 20%
B)1/10 or 10%
C)1/10<sup>2</sup> or 4%
D)1/5! = 1/120 or 0.83%
E)1/945 or 0.11%
Q4) Show the most likely interaction that would occur between a serine residue and a glutamine residue.
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Chapter 7: Protein Function and Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a homotropic effector of hemoglobin-oxygen binding?
A)O<sub>2</sub>
B)H<sup>+</sup>
C)CO<sub>2</sub>
D)Cl<sup>-</sup>
E)2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG)
Q2) The binding of oxygen to hemoglobin is said to be _______________.
A)high affinity
B)low affinity
C)sigmoidal
D)cooperative
E)sequential
Q3) Changes in hemoglobin's oxygen affinity are primarily the result of changes in the _________ structure of the protein.
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
E)all of the above
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Contractile Proteins and Molecular Motors
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Q1) Which of the following correctly describes the difference between red and white muscle?
A)red muscle has considerably more mitochondria than white muscle
B)white muscle has a lower concentration of myoglobin than red muscle
C)white muscle receives much less blood flow than red muscle
D)the main source of energy in red muscle is fatty acid oxidation while in white muscle it is glycolysis
E)all of the above
Q2) In a typical cell,the use of proton gradient to power ATP synthesis requires about 3 protons for each ATP.Based on this,what is the energy expenditure,in ATP/minute,of a typical flagellum if it is running at 120 revolutions per second and requires 1000 protons to make one revolution?
Q3) Which of the following motor proteins is correctly paired with its primary function?
A)myosin V: muscle contraction
B)myosin II: cargo transport
C)cytoplasmic dynein: bending of cilia or flagella
D)axonemal dynein: cargo transport
E)none of the above
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Carbohydrates: Sugars,saccharides,glycans
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Q1) Of the following phosphate esters of monosaccharides,which has the most spontaneous \(\Delta\)GS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0´ of hydrolysis?
A)\(\alpha\)-D-glucose-6-phosphate
B)\(\beta\)-D-glucose-6-phosphate
C)\(\beta\)-D-glucose-1-phosphate
D)\(\alpha\)-D-fructose-6-phosphate
E)D-glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
Q2) Which of the following is a diastereomer of D-mannose?
A)D-gulose
B)D-altrose
C)D-idose
D)D-talose
E)all of the above
Q3) How many carbon atoms are found in the smallest molecules that are classified as carbohydrates?
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Chapter 10: Lipids,membranes and Cellular Transport
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Q1) Fatty acids are _______ meaning that they have both a hydrophobic and hydrophilic region of the molecule
A)aliphatic
B)amphipathic
C)saturated
D)unsaturated
E)phosphorylated
Q2) Which of the following mechanisms of membrane transport is correctly defined?
A)simple diffusion: uses concentration gradient to move highly polar molecules and ions across membranes
B)facilitated diffusion: uses proteins such as ion channels to move substances against their concentration gradient across a membrane
C)primary active transport: uses ATP hydrolysis to move ions against their concentration gradient across a membrane
D)secondary active transport: uses ATP hydrolysis along with an ion gradient to move polar molecules or ions against their concentration gradient across a membrane
E)all of the above
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Chapter 11: Enzymes: Biological Catalysts
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Q1) In noncompetitive inhibition,which of the following best explains how the inhibitor binds to the enzyme?
A)the inhibitor binds to the active site only after the substrate binds
B)the inhibitor binds to a site other than the active site only before the substrate binds
C)the inhibitor binds to a site other than the active site only after the substrate binds
D)the inhibitor binds to a site other than the active site either before or after the substrate binds
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following scenarios would result in a relatively low energy of activation?
A)an enzyme binds to the substrate with greater affinity than the transition state
B)an enzyme binds to both substrate and transition state with equal affinity
C)an enzyme binds to the transition state with greater affinity than the substrate
D)an enzyme binds only to the transition state
E)none of the above
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Chapter 12: Chemical Logic of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on the following reaction,what is the respiratory quotient for stearic acid?
C<sub>18</sub>H<sub>36</sub>O<sub>2</sub> + 26 O<sub>2</sub> \(\to\) 18 CO<sub>2</sub> + 18 H<sub>2</sub>O
A)1.44
B)0.69
C)1.39
D)0.72
E)none of the above
Q2) Many enzyme-catalyzed reactions that transfer a phosphate from one molecule to another utilize a histidine residue in the active site of the enzyme.The histidine participates in covalent catalysis by performing a nucleophilic attack on a phosphate,forming an intermediate phosphohistidine (the phosphate covalently attached to the histidine residue).Using ATP as the phosphate donor,show the reaction to form the phosphohistidine intermediate-you do not have to show arrow pushing.
Q3) Pyruvic acid has the formula C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>4</sub>O<sub>3</sub>.Write the reaction for its complete combustion.What is its respiratory quotient? Does this mean that it is more oxidized or less oxidized than glucose?
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14
Chapter
Pathway
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Q1) Conversion of pyruvate to acetaldehyde requires _______ while conversion of acetaldehyde to ethanol requires _______.
A)thiamine pyrophosphate;NAD<sup>+</sup>
B)pyridoxal phosphate;FADH<sub>2</sub>
C)biotin;NADH
D)biotin;FAD
E)thiamine pyrophosphate;NADH
Q2) Which of the following is the fate of pyruvate in a blood cell?
A)acetyl CoA
B)carbon dioxide
C)lactate
D)ethanol
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following is correctly paired with the glycolytic intermediate that serves as its precursor?
A)ribulose-5-phosphate: fructose-6-phosphate
B)serine: phosphoenolpyruvate
C)glycogen: glucose-6-phosphate
Page 15
D)glycerol-3-phosphate: glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
E)glucosamine: fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Citric Acid Cycle and Glyoxylate Cycle
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Q1) Arsenic poisoning by either arsenite or organic arsenical agents work by binding to dithiol compounds such as _________ meaning that in addition to inactivation of pyruvate dehydrogenase,the citric acid cycle enzyme _________ would be inactivated.
A)cysteine;aconitase
B)coenzyme A;\(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
C)coenzyme A;citrate synthase
D)thiamine pyrophosphate;isocitrate dehydrogenase
E)lipoic acid;\(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Q2) Which of the following is an enzyme-bound intermediate in the reaction catalyzed by succinyl-CoA synthetase?
A)succinyl phosphate
B)glutamyl-CoA
C)N-phosphohistidine
D)N-ADP-histidine
E)none of the above
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Chapter 15: Electron Transport, oxidative Phosphorylation, and Oxygen Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following correctly indicates the number of protons pumped into the intermembrane space at each complex of electron transport for each FADH<sub>2</sub> that is oxidized by the electron transport pathway?
A)II: 2 \(~~~~~~~~\)III: 4 \(~~~~~~~~\)IV: 2
B)II: 0 \(~~~~~~~~\)III: 2 \(~~~~~~~~\)IV: 4
C)II: 2 \(~~~~~~~~\)III: 2 \(~~~~~~~~\)IV: 2
D)II: 0 \(~~~~~~~~\)III: 4 \(~~~~~~~~\)IV: 2
E)II: 0 \(~~~~~~~~\)III: 2 \(~~~~~~~~\)IV: 2
Q2) Which amino acid is complexed to iron-sulfur clusters to enable them to associate with proteins?
A)methionine
B)serine
C)lysine
D)tyrosine
E)cysteine
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Chapter 16: Photosynthesis
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Q1) For each molecule of CO<sub>2</sub> fixed by the Calvin cycle,how many ATP and NADPH are required?
A)3 ATP,1 NADPH
B)3 ATP,2 NADPH
C)6 ATP,2 NADPH
D)6 ATP,3 NADPH
E)none of the above
Q2) For every 12 molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate produced by rubisco,_____ are converted to hexoses while _____ are recycled to ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate.
A)2;10
B)4;8
C)6;6
D)8;4
E)10;2
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Chapter 17: Lipid Metabolism I: Fatty
Acids,triacylglycerols,and Lipoproteins
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Q1) What enzyme activities are found in the mitochondrial trifunctional protein that metabolizes long chain (LC)fatty acids?
A)LC-enoyl-CoA hydratase,LC-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase,LC-thiolase
B)LC-acyl-CoA synthetase,LC-acyl-CoA dehydrogenase,LC-enoyl-CoA hydratase
C)LC-carnitine acyltransferase II,LC-acyl-CoA dehydrogenase,LC-enoyl-CoA hydratase
D)LC-acyl-CoA dehydrogenase,LC-enoyl-CoA hydratase,LC-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase
E)LC-acyl-CoA dehydrogenase,LC-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase,LC-thiolase
Q2) For the \(\beta\)-oxidation of a fatty acid with notation of 18:3c\(\Delta\)6,9,12,how many NADPH would be required and how many FADH<sub>2</sub> would be produced?
A)1 NADPH,7 FADH<sub>2</sub>
B)1 NADPH,8 FADH<sub>2</sub>
C)2 NADPH,6 FADH<sub>2</sub>
D)2 NADPH,7 FADH<sub>2</sub>
E)2 NADPH,8 FADH<sub>2</sub>
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Page 20
Chapter 18: Interorgan and Intracellular Coordination of Energy Metabolism in Vertebrates
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Q1) If a group of transgenic mice that overexpress SIRT1 was fed as much food as the mice desired to eat,what would be the consequences?
A)shortened lifespan with increased incidence of age-related diseases such as diabetes and cardiovascular disease
B)normal lifespan with increased incidence of age-related diseases
C)normal lifespan with no increased incidence of age-related diseases
D)lengthened lifespan with increased incidence of age-related diseases
E)lengthened lifespan with no increased incidence of age-related diseases
Q2) What process in the brain consumes most of the ATP that is produced?
A)movement of actin/myosin
B)maintenance of membrane potentials
C)active transport of glucose and amino acids
D)cellular growth
E)none of the above
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Chapter 19: Lipid Metabolism Ii: Membrane Lipids, steroids, isoprenoids,
and Eicosanoids
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Q1) Which of the following amino acids is critical for choline and phosphatidylcholine synthesis?
A)serine
B)\(\beta\)-alanine
C)homocysteine
D)methionine
E)homoserine
Q2) Which of the following phospholipids is produced in eukaryotes but not prokaryotes?
A)phosphatidylglycerol
B)phosphatidylserine
C)phosphatidylethanolamine
D)phosphatidylinositol
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following is the regulatory step in cholesterol synthesis?
A)HMG-CoA synthase
B)HMG-CoA lyase
C)HMG-CoA reductase
D)squalene synthase
E)squalene epoxidase
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Metabolism of Nitrogenous Compounds I:
Principles of Biosynthesis, utilization, and Turnover
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Q1) What would be the energy requirements of the urea cycle if both nitrogens of urea came from glutamine (assuming that any NADH made was re-oxidized via electron transport/oxidative phosphorylation)? Explain how this is possible.
Q2) Which of the following is an essential amino acid for humans?
A)alanine
B)serine
C)tyrosine
D)cysteine
E)histidine
Q3) Which of the following correctly explains the covalent modification used to control glutamine synthetase?
A)uridylylation activates,deuridylylation inhibits
B)uridylylation inhibits,deuridylylation activates
C)adenylation activates,deadenylation inhibits
D)adenylation inhibits,deadenylation activates
E)phosphorylation inhibits,dephosphorylation activates
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Chapter 21: Metabolism of Nitogenous Compounds Ii:
Amino Acids, porphyrins, and Neurotransmitters
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Q1) The route by which methionine is degraded provides for the synthesis of which amino acid?
A)serine
B)threonine
C)valine
D)isoleucine
E)cysteine
Q2) Which of the following molecules derived from tyrosine is correctly defined?
A)dopamine: thyroid hormone
B)dopaquinone: precursor for melanins
C)thyroxine: catecholamine
D)norepinephrine: thyroid hormone
E)all of the above
Q3) Bilirubin is conjugated with _________ to increase its solubility for excretion.
A)phospholipids
B)glycine
C)glucuronic acid
D)taurine
E)all of the above
24
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Chapter 22: Nucleotide Metabolism
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Q1) While endonucleases cleave nucleic acids into smaller oligonucleotides,__________ are responsible for cleaving the oligonucleotides into nucleotides.
A)phosphodiesterases
B)nucleotidase
C)nucleoside kinases
D)phosphorylases
E)phosphoribosyl transferases
Q2) Which of the following describes the coenzyme involved with thymidylate synthase?
A)5-methyl-THF serves as the methyl donor
B)10-methyl-THF serves as the methyl donor
C)5,10-methylene-THF serves as both methylene donor and reducing agent
D)5,10-methenyl-THF serves as both methylene donor and reducing agent
E)S-adenosylmethionine serves as the methyl donor
Q3) Which of the following is a product of xanthine dehydrogenase?
A)hypoxanthine
B)uric acid
C)guanine
D)xanthosine
E)allantoin
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Chapter 23: Mechanisms of Signal Transduction
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Q1) A G protein is inactive when the _____ subunit is bound to __________.
A)\(\alpha\);GMP
B)\(\alpha\);GDP
C)\(\beta\);GMP
D)\(\beta\);GDP
E)\(\beta\)/\(\gamma\);GMP
Q2) Which of the following signaling molecules activate the phosphoinositide second messenger system?
A)platelet-derived growth factor
B)acetylcholine
C)vasopressin
D)thyrotropin-releasing hormone
E)all of the above
Q3) The principle inhibitory neurotransmitter,__________,works by triggering an influx of ______ causing hyperpolarization of nerve cells.
A)\(\gamma\)-aminobutyric acid;K<sup>+</sup>
B)\(\gamma\)-aminobutyric acid;Cl<sup>-</sup>
C)serotonin;K<sup>+</sup>
D)serotonin;Cl<sup>-</sup>
E)none of the above
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Chapter 24: Genes,genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) Which of the following represents the correct order of steps usually taken in a Southern analysis?
A)electrophoresis \(\to\) restriction digest \(\to\) nitrocellulose transfer \(\to\) hybridization
B)electrophoresis \(\to\) hybridization \(\to\) restriction digest \(\to\) nitrocellulose transfer
C)hybridization \(\to\) restriction digest \(\to\)electrophoresis \(\to\) nitrocellulose transfer
D)restriction digest \(\to\) electrophoresis \(\to\) hybridization \(\to\) nitrocellulose transfer
E)restriction digest \(\to\) electrophoresis \(\to\) nitrocellulose transfer \(\to\) hybridization
Q2) For a restriction enzyme with a 6-base recognition site,what is the average number of base pairs between occurrences of the site?
A)1296 base pairs
B)4096 base pairs
C)46656 base pairs
D)16777216 base pairs
E)none of the above
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Chapter 25: Dna Replication
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Q1) Which of the following is an 11-base consensus sequence that makes up the autonomously replicating sequence present in yeast DNA that is a requirement for the start of replication?
A)5'-GTGCGTGCGTG-3'
B)5'-CCTCCTGGTGG-3'
C)5'-AAGCGCGCGCC-3'
D)5'-GGTGGACCTCC-3'
E)5'-TTTTATATTTT-3'
Q2) In a type I topoisomerase,the active site amino acid _________ is covalently bound to the free _______ end of the cut in the DNA.
A)serine;3'
B)serine;5'
C)tyrosine;3'
D)tyrosine;5'
E)none of the above
Q3) For the following sequence,indicate the RNA primer that would be needed to start synthesis of the Okazaki fragment.
5'-A-A-C-T-A-G-A-C-C-A-G-A-3'
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Chapter 26: Dna Restructuring:
Repair,recombination,rearrangement,amplification
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Q1) In order for lysogeny to occur,the enzyme ______________ must insert the phage DNA into a specific site in the bacterial chromosome.
A)ligase
B)lysogenase
C)helicase
D)integrase
E)none of the above
Q2) How does RecA bring about strand exchange?
A)RecA acts as a helicase,unwinding DNA in localized regions
B)RecA monomers bind to ssDNA to form a nucleoprotein filament
C)RecA monomers interact only with ssDNA and immediately dissociate when binding to dsDNA
D)RecA forms a tetramer that wraps around DNA at specific sites that must be cleaved by a nuclease
E)none of the above
Q3) Show the common base pair seen between 8-oxoguanine and adenine.
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29
Chapter 27: Information Readout: Transcription and Post-Transcriptional Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) As RNA polymerase moves along the DNA,it creates a single stranded region of about 18 base pairs that is called a ________________.
A)transcription bubble
B)transcription single-stranded region
C)transcription droplet
D)transcription vesicle
E)transcription bead
Q2) The figure below shows a newly transcribed mRNA still associated with the template DNA.Draw the stem-loop structure that often forms during termination.
3'-GGTCGGGCGGATTACTCGCCCGAAAAAAAA-5'
5'-CCAGCCCGCCUAAUGAGCGGGCUUUUUUUU-3'
Q3) The E.coli promoter region contains a -10 consensus sequence of _________ on the sense strand.
A)GAGAGA
B)CTCTCT
C)GAGGAG
D)GACGTC
E)TATAAT
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Chapter 28: Information Decoding: Translation and Post-Translational
Protein Processing
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/73685
Sample Questions
Q1) EF-Tu binds to ______ then to _______.This complex binds to the _____ site of the ribosome.
A)ATP;charged tRNA;P
B)GTP;charged tRNA;A
C)charged tRNA;ATP;A
D)charged tRNA;GTP;P
E)charged tRNA;GTP;A
Q2) Which position of the anticodon is called the wobble base and with which base of the codon does it pair?
A)the 3' anticodon base which pairs with the first base of the codon
B)the 3' anticodon base which pairs with the last base of the codon
C)the middle anticodon base which pairs with the middle base of the codon
D)the 5' anticodon base which pairs with the first base of the codon
E)the 5' anticodon base which pairs with the last base of the codon
Q3) Translate the following mRNA into a peptide using the standard genetic code: 5'-AUGCGGAUCCAUGUACAACUGGACGCAGUACCGUAACGCGAU-3'
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Chapter 29: Regulation of Gene Expression
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24 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/73686
Sample Questions
Q1) In prokaryotes,DNA methylation occurs on ______ while in eukaryotes,methylation occurs on _______.
A)adenine;thymine
B)adenine;cytosine
C)guanine;adenine
D)guanine;thymine
E)guanine;cytosine
Q2) Design an antisense RNA that prevents the start of translation for any mRNA in an E.coli cell.
Q3) What elements are contained within the promoter of the lactose operon?
A)operator and CRP site
B)operator and repressor
C)CRP site and repressor
D)operator,CRP site and repressor
E)none of the above
Q4) Show how glutamine interacts with an A-T base pair as seen in the cI and Cro repressors.
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