Clinical Assessment
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Clinical Assessment is a foundational course designed to equip students with the knowledge and skills necessary to conduct comprehensive evaluations of psychological, emotional, and behavioral functioning. The course covers essential topics such as the assessment process, interviewing techniques, psychometric testing, diagnostic criteria, and the integration of data from multiple sources to formulate accurate diagnoses. Students will learn about various assessment tools and methods, as well as the ethical, cultural, and legal considerations inherent in clinical practice. Through case studies and practical exercises, students will develop their ability to critically analyze assessment information and make evidence-based recommendations for treatment planning.
Recommended Textbook
Psychological Testing and Assessment An Introduction to Tests and Measurement 8th Edition by
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2
Chapter 1: Psychological Testing and Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best way to establish rapport with a testtaker?
A) a few words of "small talk" on meeting
B) presenting the testtaker with a business card
C) hugging the testtaker on arrival to the facility
D) having a DVD of Jerry Springer Unscensored playing in the waiting area as an "ice-breaker."
Answer: A
Q2) Psychological testing
A) is typically more lengthy than assessment.
B) may be one component of the process of assessment.
C) is characteristically broader in scope than assessment.
D) tends to be less accurate than assessment.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following contains the most detailed and authoritative information on responsible test use and test development?
A) the American Psychological Association's Ethical Standards
B) the National Association of School Psychologists' Ethical Standards
C) Ethical Standards for Social Work
D) Standards for Psychological and Educational Tests
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Historical, cultural, and Legal Ethical
Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who is credited with being the originator of the psychometric concept of test reliability?
A) Spearman
B) Pearson
C) Kraeplin
D) Tichener
Answer: A
Q2) The origins of Daubert v.Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals can be traced to
A) Mrs. Daubert taking a prescription drug to relieve nausea.
B) Henry Daubert being denied a prescription drug by Medicare.
C) Mrs. Daubert using what turned out to be a faulty birth control device.
D) Henry Daubert suffering for five hours after taking prescription Viagra.
Answer: A
Q3) Sir Francis Galton measured each of the following EXCEPT
A) the mental ability of humans.
B) genetic inheritance in sweet peas.
C) the standing height of humans.
D) the sitting height of humans.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: A Statistics Refresher
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a scale used in a psychology experiment,a value of "1" is assigned to subjects with black hair,and a value of "2" is assigned to subjects with blonde hair.The type of scale used in this experiment is:
A) ordinal.
B) ratio.
C) interval.
D) nominal.
Answer: D
Q2) Which is the most common type of scale used in psychological tests?
A) continuous
B) discrete
C) contiguous
D) None of these
Answer: A
Q3) Outliers can be useful in identifying testtakers who
A) failed to understand the test instructions.
B) failed to follow the test instructions.
C) Both a and b
D) None of these
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Of Tests and Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Test validity refers to how
A) "true" the score is in terms of true score theory.
B) rigorous the process of norming the test was.
C) "deep" the depth of trait measurement is.
D) well a test measures what it purports to measure.
Q2) Deciles divide a distribution into ________ equal parts.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 100
D) None of these
Q3) Norm-referenced testing and assessment is both a method of evaluation and a way of deriving meaning from tests scores.Individual testtaker scores are evaluated against
A) the scores achieved by a matched group of testtakers on a comparable test.
B) the scores of a comparison group of testtakers.
C) scores from a demographically more diverse group of testtakers.
D) the scores achieved by a guy named Norm.
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6
Chapter 5: Reliability
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Sample Questions
Q1) For criterion-referenced tests,which of the following reliability estimates is recommended?
A) test-retest reliability estimates
B) alternate-form reliability estimates
C) split-half reliability estimates
D) None of these
Q2) Which is NOT a possible source of error variance?
A) test administration
B) test scoring
C) test interpretation
D) All are possible sources of error variance.
Q3) "The probability of endorsing or selecting an item response indicative of higher levels of theta should increase as the underlying level of theta increases." This quote sums up the meaning of the IRT assumption of
A) unidimensionality.
B) heteroskedacity.
C) local independence.
D) monotonicity.
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Chapter 6: Validity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before constructing a comprehensive final examination that covers everything you have studied since Day 1 of your course,your instructor reviews the objectives of the course,the textbook,and all lecture notes.Your instructor is clearly making a diligent effort to maximize the __________ validity of the final examination.
A) content
B) criterion-related
C) predictive
D) internal consistency
Q2) If a test developer has only a "fuzzy" vision of the construct being measured,then
A) the content validity of the test is likely to suffer.
B) the construct validity of the test is likely to suffer.
C) content irrelevant to the targeted construct may be measured.
D) All of these
Q3) Which statement is always TRUE of the criterion in expectancy tables?
A) The criterion is represented as the number of points scored.
B) The criterion is dichotomized.
C) The criterion is listed by score interval.
D) The criterion can be objectively scored.
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Chapter 7: Utility
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Sample Questions
Q1) An instructor assigns a grade of "A" to all students who earn 900 or more points out of a total of 1000 points during the semester.In this case,900 points is equal to A.
A) the cut score for an
B) the success rate.
C) the selection ratio.
D) the base rate of A-level students.
Q2) The textbook authors define a utility analysis as
A) a proprietary technique.
B) a family of techniques.
C) an exclusionary technique.
D) None of these
Q3) Both Taylor-Russell and Naylor-Shine expectancy tables must include which type of validity coefficient?
A) concurrent criterion-related
B) predictive criterion-related
C) construct-related
D) content-related
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Chapter 8: Test Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who is best associated with the development of the scaling methodology?
A) Galton
B) Cohen
C) Spearman
D) Thurstone
Q2) Which scaling method entails a process by which measures of item difficulty are obtained from samples of testtakers who vary in ability?
A) difficulty scaling
B) absolute scaling
C) content scaling
D) sample-contingent scaling
Q3) A test item written in a multiple-choice format has three elements.Which of the following is NOT one of those elements?
A) foil
B) stem
C) leaf
D) correct option
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Chapter 9: Intelligence and Its Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which theorist first hypothesized a general factor of intelligence (g)?
A) Thurstone
B) Wechsler
C) Piaget
D) None of these
Q2) A couple believes that they will enhance their child's intellectual ability by reading classic literature to the child at an early age.The BEST guess of the philosophy subscribed to by this couple could be summed up by
A) predeterminism
B) preformationism
C) interactionism
D) humanism
Q3) Tests of intelligence are typically administered to older adults for all of the following purposes EXCEPT:
A) educational placement.
B) diagnosis of clinical disorders.
C) neuropsychological assessment.
D) vocational planning.
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11
Chapter 10: Tests of Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) For each subtest of the SB5,there are explicit rules in the test administration manual for the examiner regarding where to A) start.
B) stop.
C) start and stop.
D) start, stop, and reverse.
Q2) Validity of short forms may be reduced because fewer items:
A) means that the test will not be used as often as the longer form. B) lowers test utility which negatively impacts validity.
C) means that the test can only be used for screening purposes. D) lowers test reliability which negatively impacts validity.
Q3) For the purpose of establishing the concurrent validity of the SB5,the SB5 test developers studied correlations between the SB5 and A) the SB4.
B) the WAIS-III.
C) the WISC-III.
D) All of these
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Chapter 11: Assessment for Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the text,minimum competency skills required for high school graduation in the State of Texas include:
A) knowledge of how many stars there are in the state flag.
B) defining Colt 45 with at least two definitions.
C) winning at least one hand of Texas Hold 'Em poker.
D) None of these
Q2) Whether a test is referred to as an achievement test or an aptitude test may depend on
A) the face validity of the test for a specific purpose.
B) whether it can be shown that aptitude plays no factor in an achievement test score.
C) whether it can be shown that achievement plays no factor in an aptitude test score.
D) the use to which the test is put.
Q3) The CBCL's 8-syndrome structure
A) is supported by a number of research studies conducted in inner-city Detroit.
B) has not been supported by research outside of the United States.
C) has been supported in research conducted in 30 societies throughout the world.
D) Both a and b
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Personality Assessment: An Overview
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a validity scale first developed for use with the MMPI-2?
A) the Lie Scale
B) the Consistent Credibility Scale
C) the Moody Machiavellianism Scale
D) the Variable Response Inconsistency Scale
Q2) Which test includes a Lie scale?
A) the MMPI-2
B) the NEO-PI-R
C) the Harris-Goodenough
D) the Harris-Seemingly-Goodenough
Q3) One would LEAST expect the Q-sort technique to be used
A) as a tool in basic personality research.
B) to identify cognitive strengths and weaknesses.
C) to identify leadership potential in military settings.
D) to determine occupational preference of the testtaker.
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14
Chapter 13: Personality Assessment Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) The assumption that individuals will supply structure to unstructured stimuli in a manner consistent with their own conscious and unconscious concerns underlies the A) projectile hypothesis.
B) subjective hypothesis.
C) projective hypothesis.
D) Skinnerian hypothesis.
Q2) Which of the following is TRUE of the reliability of the TAT?
A) Inter-rater reliability has ranged from adequate to very high.
B) Split-half reliability has been found to be adequate.
C) Test-retest reliability has been found to be adequate.
D) Inter-item consistency has ranged from moderately acceptable to acceptable.
Q3) Objective methods of personality assessment may include which of the following item formats?
A) multiple-choice
B) true-false
C) matching
D) All of these
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Clinical and Counseling Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) In their description of biopsychosocial assessment,your textbook authors likened the approach to
A) a great paradigm shift in disability research.
B) the triumph of behavioral over psychoanalytic methods.
C) closing the barn door after the cows have left.
D) broadcasting in widescreen.
Q2) The outcome of the debate on what constitutes a disorder is important because it will influence
A) research.
B) treatment.
C) public policy.
D) All of these
Q3) Which of the following is generally TRUE regarding the similarities and differences between the specialties of clinical and counseling psychology?
A) Clinical psychologists tend to be more involved in consumer issues.
B) Counseling psychologists tend to be more involved in psychoanalysis.
C) Clinical psychologists are more involved with career and vocational assessment.
D) More similarities than differences exist between the two specialties.
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16
Chapter 15: Neuropsychological Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Symptoms of a neurological deficit may become evident
A) during an intake interview.
B) during the administration of psychological tests.
C) as the result of the administration of a psychological test.
D) All of these
Q2) Preliminary tests administered to a patient as part of a neuropsychological examination might evaluate the patient's visual and auditory abilities.The purpose of these tests is to evaluate
A) how cooperative the patient is actually going to be before proceeding.
B) sensory input capabilities before proceeding with more specialized tests.
C) whether or not the patient will be able to assist in the conduct of the examination.
D) the adequacy of the patient's health before proceeding.
Q3) In the Bender-Gestalt II,seven new items were added to the original test
A) in order to extend the range of ability tested.
B) because some of the original items were too verbal in nature.
C) to make the test more culturally neutral.
D) to compensate for test-taker colorblindness.
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Chapter 16: Assessment, Careers, and Business References
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Sample Questions
Q1) A false-positive drug test result is BEST associated with which conclusion?
A) The testtaker is still affected by a drug even though the drug has actually left the person's system.
B) An impaired testtaker who has gone undetected by the test.
C) The testtaker consumed a poppy-seed bagel for breakfast.
D) None of these
Q2) Maslow's hierarchical theory as it relates to worker motivation would suggest that
A) employees expend energy in ways designed to achieve the outcome they desire.
B) the more money a worker earns, the more money the worker strives to earn.
C) once workers feel secure in their positions and accepted by their co-workers, they strive to earn recognition for their accomplishments.
D) an extremely high-risk situation may not lead to feelings of accomplishment because of a high probability of failure.
Q3) One is LEAST likely to undergo drug testing if one is
A) a new employee in a large company.
B) a current employee in a small service organization.
C) completing military service.
D) a current employee in a large company.
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Page 18