Clinical Applications in Respiratory Care Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of the clinical practices and principles involved in respiratory care. Emphasizing hands-on experience, students learn to assess, monitor, and manage patients with a variety of acute and chronic respiratory disorders. The curriculum covers therapeutic interventions, mechanical ventilation, airway management, diagnostics, and patient education, alongside evidence-based approaches to treatment. Clinical scenarios and case studies allow learners to apply theoretical knowledge to real-world situations, preparing them for effective collaboration with healthcare teams in diverse clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Egans Fundamentals of Respiratory Care 11th Edition by Robert M. Kacmarek
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56 Chapters
3426 Verified Questions
3426 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: History of Respiratory Care
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When was synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) first introduced?
A) 1975
B) 1985
C) 1995
D) 2005
Answer: A
Q2) Who was the first scientist in 1865 to suggest that microorganisms caused many diseases?
A) Thomas Young
B) Louis Pasteur
C) Henry Graham
D) Robert Koch
Answer: B
Q3) Who discovered the x-ray and opened the door for the modern field of radiology?
A) John Dalton
B) William Smith
C) William Roentgen
D) Thomas Young
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Delivering Evidence-Based Respiratory Care
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What agency is responsible for ensuring quality in respiratory care through voluntary certification and registration?
A) JRCRTE
B) CoARC
C) NBRC
D) AARC
Answer: C
Q2) What is/are the essential component(s) comprise(s) disease management programs?
1) An integrated health care system that can provide a full range of a patient's needs
2) A knowledge regarding prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of diseases
3) A commitment to CQI
4) A sophisticated clinical and administrative information system that helps assess patterns in the clinical practice
A)1 and 3 only
B)2 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Quality, Patient Safety, and Communication, and Recordkeeping
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms describes the power potential behind electrical energy?
A) Voltage
B) Current
C) Ohms
D) Resistance
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following techniques can be used to improve one's listening skills?
1) Resist distractions.
2) Maintain composure and control emotions.
3) Keep an open mind (be objective).
4) Judge the sender's delivery, not the content.
A)2 and 3 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)1, 2, and 3 only
D)3 and 4 only
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Principles of Infection Prevention and Control
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Small volume nebulizers produce bacterial aerosols that have been commonly associated with which of the following diseases?
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Measles
C) Small pox
D) Nosocomial pneumonia
Q2) Which of the following organisms has/have been associated with health care-associated infections in patients using a poorly disinfected bronchoscope?
1) M. tuberculosis
2) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3) Klebsiella
A)1 and 3 only
B)2 and 3only
C)2 only
D)1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are legitimate defenses against an intentional tort?
1) Lack of intent to harm the patient
2) Performance of ordinary procedures
3) Informed consent given by patient
A)1 and 2 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1, 2, and 3
D)1 and 3 only
Q2) Which ethical principle obliges a respiratory therapist to uphold a patient's right to refuse a treatment?
A) Autonomy
B) Veracity
C) Role fidelity
D) Beneficence
Q3) What simple question does ethics attempt to answer?
A) Who is right and who is wrong?
B) How should we act?
C) What treatment is best?
D) Who benefits most?
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care
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88 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A combination of neutral atoms, free electrons, and atomic nuclei describes:
A) potential energy.
B) kinetic energy.
C) plasma.
D) compressed gases.
Q2) Which of the following represents a direct measure of the kinetic activity of water vapor molecules?
A) Absolute humidity
B) Water vapor pressure
C) Percent body humidity
D) Relative humidity
Q3) After placing a liquid into a small-diameter glass tube, you observe the formation of a convex (upwardly curved) meniscus. What conclusion is correct?
A) The liquid must have a very low surface tension.
B) Strong adhesive forces exist between the liquid and glass.
C) The liquid must have an extremely high viscosity.
D) Strong cohesive forces exist among the liquid molecules.
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Chapter 7: E-Medicine in Respiratory Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical decision support systems perform which of the following tasks?
1) Match individual patients with proper drug doses.
2) Provide standing patient care orders.
3) Remind patients of when to reorder meds.
4) Provide directions to the best local pharmacy.
A)2 and 4 only
B)3 and 4 only
C)1, 2, and 3 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) Which of the following refers to a set of tools that permit capture, storage, and transformation of data into useful and actionable information?
A) Key performance indicators
B) Business intelligence
C) Clinical decision support
D) Computerized physician order entry
Q3) In what way do computers assist smokers who want to quit?
A) By providing Internet sites with smoking cessation plans
B) By measuring blood carbon monoxide levels
C) By providing genetic information on the risk of smoking
D) By allowing smokers to order low-risk cigarettes through the Internet
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Chapter 8: Fundamentals of Respiratory Care Research
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What search engine looks for scholarly publications in a wide range of fields and includes peer-reviewed manuscripts, abstracts, theses, and books from academic publishers, professional societies, and university libraries?
A) Medline.org
B) Google Scholar
C) Minimed.org
D) Cochrane.org
Q2) In what section of a paper are you likely to find the definitions of the general concepts discussed?
A) Introduction
B) Discussion
C) Methods
D) Results
Q3) What entity is responsible for approving experimental procedures prior to collecting data?
A) AARC
B) IRB
C) NBRC
D) NIH
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Page 10
Chapter 9: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the leaf-shaped cartilage that extends from the base of the tongue and is attached by ligaments to the thyroid cartilage?
A) Arytenoid cartilage
B) Cricoid cartilage
C) Cuneiform cartilage
D) Epiglottis
Q2) What may happen if the irritant receptors in the lung are stimulated?
1) Bronchoconstriction
2) Reflex closure of the glottis
3) Reflex slowing of the heart (bradycardia)
A)2 and 3 only
B)1 and 3 only
C)2 only
D)1, 2, and 3
Q3) What is the name of the thin serous membrane that covers the inner layer of the thoracic wall?
A) Cupula
B) Mesothelioma
C) Parietal pleura
D) Visceral pleura
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Chapter 10: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What makes it impossible for the myocardium to go into tetany?
A) Absolute refractory period
B) Automaticity
C) Cardiac myofibrils
D) Intercalated discs
Q2) Which of the following variation(s) control(s) blood flow to the heart?
1) Local metabolic control mechanisms
2) Local myogenic control mechanisms
3) Central neural innervation
A)1, 2, and 3
B)2 and 3 only
C)1 only
D)1 and 3 only
Q3) What is a potential cause of cardiac tamponade?
A) A large pericardial effusion
B) Blockage of the left ventricle
C) Excessive amount of fluid the pleural space
D) Clots in the superior vena cava
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Chapter 11: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the correct formula to calculate the alveolar minute ventilation of a spontaneously breathing subject?
A) f \(\times\)V<sub>DS</sub>/V<sub>T</sub>
B) f \(\times\) V<sub>T</sub>
C) f \(\times\) (V<sub>T</sub> - V<sub>DSphys</sub>)
D) f \(\times\) (V<sub>T</sub> + V<sub>DSphys</sub>)
Q2) For a given transpulmonary pressure gradient and inflation time, which of the following lung units would exhibit the greatest change in volume?
A) A unit with high resistance and low compliance
B) A unit with high resistance and normal compliance
C) A unit with normal resistance and low compliance
D) A unit with normal resistance and normal compliance
Q3) Why is the total mechanical work of breathing difficult to assess during spontaneous breathing?
A) Most volunteer subjects cannot understand the procedure used.
B) Respiratory muscle activity contributes to inflation resistance.
C) The respiratory muscles (diaphragm, etc.) must be paralyzed.
D) The subjects used to make the measurements must be unconscious.
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13
Chapter 12: Gas Exchange and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Disorders that can lead to alveolar dead space include:
1) pulmonary emboli.
2) partial obstruction of the pulmonary vasculature.
3) destroyed pulmonary vasculature.
4) reduced cardiac output.
A)1 and 2 only
B)1 and 3 only
C)1, 2, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) In which of the following conditions will erythrocyte concentration of 2,3-DPG be decreased?
A) Anemia
B) Banked blood
C) High pH
D) Hypoxemia
Q3) Under what conditions will the alveolar PACO<sub>2</sub> rise above normal?
A) If both metabolic rate and ventilation increase (e.g., through exercise)
B) If carbon dioxide production decreases relative to V<sub>A</sub>
C) If V<sub>A</sub> decreases relative to carbon dioxide production
D) When the patient is febrile
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Chapter 13: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes
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94 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The alveolar interstitial region of the lungs remains relatively "dry" primarily because of what?
A) Low capillary hydrostatic pressure
B) Low capillary osmotic pressure
C) Low capillary permeability
D) Low interstitial osmotic pressure
Q2) What cation is the most prominent in the intracellular compartment?
A) Ca<sup>2+</sup>
B) K<sup>+</sup>
C) Li<sup>+</sup>
D) Na<sup>+</sup>
Q3) What is a normal K<sup>+</sup> blood level?
A) 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L
B) 7.8 to 10.2 mEq/L
C) 22 to 26 mEq/L
D) 35 to 42 mEq/L
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Chapter 14: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cause of respiratory alkalosis?
A) Anxiety
B) Central nervous system depression
C) Hypoxemia
D) Pain
Q2) Which of the following acts as the "first-line" or immediate defense against the accumulation of H<sup>+</sup> ions?
A) Blood buffer system
B) GI tract
C) Renal system
D) Respiratory system
Q3) What is the normal range for BE?
A) ±2 mEq/L
B) ±4 mEq/L
C) ±6 mEq/L
D) ±24 mEq/L
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Regulation of Breathing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What receptors are associated with causing coughing, sneezing, and tachypnea when stimulated?
A) Irritant receptors
B) J receptors
C) Muscle spindles
D) Peripheral proprioceptors
Q2) Which of the following will occur during even strenuous exercise in a normal healthy individual?
A) Blood gases remain stable.
B) The arterial PCO<sub>2</sub> rises.
C) The arterial pH falls.
D) The arterial PO<sub>2</sub> falls.
Q3) Biot's respiration is most frequently observed in patients with which of the following?
A) Congestive heart failure
B) Increased intracranial pressure
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Peripheral nerve disorders
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Chapter 16: Bedside Assessment of the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following disorders is digital clubbing a common physical sign?
1) Congenital heart disease
2) Lung cancer
3) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
4) Pancreatic cancer
A)3 only
B)1, 3 and 4 only
C)1, 2, and 4 only
D)1, 2, and 3 only
Q2) Which of the following are elements of a patient's social and environmental history?
1) Occupation and employment history
2) Drugs and medications
3) Recent travel
4) Living arrangements
A)1, 3, and 4 only
B)1 and 4 only
C)1, 2, and 3 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
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Chapter 17: Interpreting Clinical and Laboratory Data
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following values represents a normal serum sodium level?
A) 136 to 145 mEq/L
B) 98 to 105 mEq/L
C) 7 to 20 mEq/L
D) 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L
Q2) In which of the following clinical settings would hypokalemia be a significant problem?
A) During weaning from mechanical ventilation
B) In a patient with pleural effusion
C) In a patient with kyphoscoliosis
D) During a bronchial challenge test
Q3) What term is used to describe a potassium concentration that is below normal in the blood serum?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyponatremia
C) Hypocalcemia
D) Hypochloremia
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Chapter 18: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been diagnosed with myocardial infarction is getting an ECG. The ECG trace shows a series of nonconducted P waves followed by a P wave that is conducted to the ventricles. The ratio of nonconducted to conducted P waves is fixed at 4:1. What plan for treatment should this patient receive?
1) Rapid defibrillation
2) Atropine
3) Cardioversion
4) Pacemaker
A)1, 2, and 3 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)3 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) The QRS of an ECG falls on a dark vertical line of the ECG paper. Subsequent QRS complexes fall on every other dark line (10 mm apart). What is the ventricular rate?
A) 300/min
B) 200/min
C) 150/min
D) 100/min
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Chapter 19: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before attaching a transcutaneous blood gas monitor sensor to a patient, what should you do?
1) Provide a specified warm-up time and set the probe temperature.
2) Check the membrane and prepare a sensor with an adhesive ring and gel.
3) Prepare the monitoring site (remove excess hair and clean the skin).
A)1 and 2 only
B)1 and 3 only
C)2 and 3 only
D)1, 2, and 3
Q2) When inspecting an internal quality-control plot for a blood gas analyzer, you notice several data points sporadically appearing outside the 2 standard deviation (SD) range. This represents what type of analytic error?
1) Random error
2) Bias
3) Imprecision
4) Systematic error
A)1 and 3 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)1, 2, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Pulmonary Function Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What pulmonary function test presents the highest risk for fainting?
A) Slow vital capacity
B) Tidal volume per minute
C) Maximum voluntary ventilation
D) Total lung capacity
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about inspiratory capacity (IC)?
1. It is reduced in restrictive lung diseases.
2. It may be reduced in obstructive lung diseases.
3. It may help determine the type of lung expansion therapy to apply.
A)1 and 3 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1 and 2 only
D)2 only
Q3) What is the minimum objective standard for the volume exhaled during the final 1 sec of an acceptable forced vital capacity effort?
A) 0.10 L
B) 0.05 L
C) 0.025 L
D) 0.001 L
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Review of Thoracic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 49-year-old COPD patient arrives to the ER complaining of shortness of breath (SOB) and difficulty breathing. The physical examination reveals bilateral coarse crackles throughout the lung fields, pedal edema, and hepatomegaly. The chest x-ray shows bilateral fluffy infiltrates with a "bat's wing" configuration. What clinical condition you may suspect on this patient?
A) Acute coronary syndrome
B) COPD exacerbation
C) Hypertensive crisis
D) Left heart failure
Q2) In which of the following would loculation of pleural fluid be as likely to occur?
1) Empyema
2) Exudative fluid
3) Hemothorax
4) Congestive heart failure
A)4 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1, 2, and 4 only
D)1, 2, and 3 only
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23
Chapter 22: Flexible Bronchoscopy and the Respiratory Therapist
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the two major complications of transbronchial biopsy?
A) Uncontrollable coughing and bleeding
B) Pneumothorax and bleeding
C) Pneumothorax and coughing
D) Cardiac arrest and pneumothorax
Q2) For patient safety, to help avoid methemoglobinemia, the total dose of lidocaine should not exceed:
A) 2 mg/kg.
B) 5 mg/kg.
C) 7 mg/kg.
D) 10 mg/kg.
Q3) Hypoxemia during FB on a mechanically ventilated patient is typically due to:
A) inappropriately set alarms.
B) equipment failure.
C) loss of lung volume.
D) bronchospasm.
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24
Chapter 23: Nutrition Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following abnormalities in the respiratory system is/are associated with malnutrition?
1) Reduced hypoxic drive
2) Increased airway clearance
3) Loss of lung surfactant
A)1 only
B)1 and 3 only
C)2 and 3 only
D)2 only
Q2) Which of the following illnesses are associated with acute catabolic disease?
1) Trauma
2) Sepsis
3) Burns
4) Pulmonary embolism
A)3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)2, 3, and 4 only
D)3 and 4 only
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25
Chapter 24: Pulmonary Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common identified cause of community-acquired pneumonia?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Legionella pneumophila
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q2) A patient comes into the emergency department presenting with signs and symptoms of pneumonia. While taking the patient's history, it is determined that 2 months ago the patient spent 3 days in the hospital for acute angina. Since then the patient has been stable on medication. What type of pneumonia is this patient most likely to have?
A) CAP
B) HAP
C) HCAP
D) VAP
Q3) Which of the following organisms have been found to colonize the oropharynx of healthy individuals?
A) Coccidioides immitis
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Histoplasma capsulatum
D) Mycobacterium
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Chapter 25: Obstructive Lung Disease: Chronic Obstructive
Pulmonary Disease Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following symptoms is not a typical symptom of asthma?
A) Cough
B) Shortness of breath
C) Chest tightness
D) Chest pain
Q2) What classification of drug would the leukotriene inhibitors fall under?
A) Antiinflammatory
B) Corticosteroid
C) Long-acting bronchodilator
D) Short-acting bronchodilator
Q3) Approximately how many individuals died of COPD in the United States in 2008?
A) 145,000
B) 210,000
C) 550,000
D) 1,000,000
Q4) What is the approximate cost of COPD to the U.S. health system?
A) $20 billion
B) $30 billion
C) $40 billion
D) $50 billion
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Chapter 26: Interstitial Lung Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 65-year-old patient with a history of exposure to metal dust comes in to the emergency department with chronic cough and exertional dyspnea. HRCT shows bibasilar, peripheral reticular abnormalities with focal honeycomb cystic changes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Asbestosis
B) Coal worker's pneumoconiosis
C) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
D) Sarcoidosis
Q2) What use, other than prognostic value, can serial pulmonary function tests provide for the management of interstitial lung disease patients?
A) Determine the degree of refractory hypoxemia.
B) Establish the need for lung transplantation.
C) Guide the type of oxygen therapy delivered.
D) Guide the type of medication therapy delivered.
Q3) Exacerbations of silicosis are most often treated with what medication?
A) Aerosolized steroids
B) Antibiotics
C) Diuretics
D) Positive inotropes
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Pleural Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what point is intrapleural pressure most negative?
A) End-exhalation
B) FRC
C) Inspiration
D) Maximal expiration
Q2) At what anatomic position should an 18-gauge IV catheter be placed to relieve a tension pneumothorax?
A) Just inferior to the second rib
B) Just inferior to the third rib
C) Just superior to the second rib
D) Just superior to the fourth rib
Q3) For which type of pneumothorax is pleurodesis most commonly indicated?
A) Iatrogenic
B) Bronchopleural fistula
C) Spontaneous
D) Traumatic
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Chapter 28: Pulmonary Vascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where do most pulmonary emboli originate?
A) Deep veins of the arms
B) Deep veins of the legs
C) Thrombi from the right side of the heart
D) Veins of the thorax
Q2) What is the initial event in the pathogenesis of idiopathic pulmonary artery hypertension (IPAH)?
A) Insult to the pulmonary endothelium
B) Elevated level of serotonin
C) Monoclonal proliferation of endothelial cells
D) Vascular remodeling
Q3) Which of the following arterial blood gas findings is seen in most patients with pulmonary embolism?
A) Hypercapnia
B) Hypoxemia
C) Low pH
D) Normal SaO<sub>2</sub>
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Chapter 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following risk factors for ARDS is classified as a nonpulmonary cause?
A) Toxic inhalation
B) Gastric aspiration
C) Near drowning
D) Sepsis
Q2) Which of the following clinical features is often common to both ARDS and congestive heart failure (CHF)?
A) BALF is proteinaceous and inflammatory.
B) Diffuse alveolar and interstitial infiltrates in chest radiograph.
C) Pleural effusions on chest radiograph.
D) Recent history of trauma.
Q3) Which of the following is the likely cause of nonhydrostatic pulmonary edema?
A) Injury to the vascular endothelium and/or alveolar epithelium
B) Abnormalities in intravascular hydrostatic pressures
C) An influx of polymorphonuclear neutrophils
D) Medication overdose
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Chapter 30: Trauma, Burns and Near Drowning
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common aspirated material in near-drowning events is:
A) sand or mud/dirt.
B) emesis.
C) blood.
D) leaves.
Q2) Your patient is in the burn unit of the hospital with burns that have destroyed the epidermis and dermis above the fascia. What degree of burn would this be categorized as?
A) First degree
B) Second degree
C) Third degree
D) Fourth degree
Q3) Over two-thirds of obese patients also suffer from what pathology?
A) Diabetes
B) Sleep apnea
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Peripheral vascular disease
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Chapter 31: Lung Cancer
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75405
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following comments regarding lung cancer is true?
A) The incidence has risen over the past few decades.
B) It is the third leading cause of cancer deaths in the United States.
C) The peak incidence occurred in the mid-1970s.
D) Incidence has increased in women 40 to 58 years of age.
Q2) Which of the following PFT values are indications a patient can safely undergo surgical resection for lung cancer?
A) An FEV<sub>1</sub> greater than 80% predicted value or 2 L
B) An FEV<sub>1</sub> between 30% and 60% predicted value or 1.75 L
C) An FEV<sub>1</sub> greater than 70% predicted value or 1.75 L
D) An FEV<sub>1</sub> between 30% and 60% predicted value or 2 L
Q3) What type of lung cancer usually is seen as a central lesion that may obstruct airways and lead to atelectasis?
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Squamous cell
C) Large cell
D) Bronchogenic carcinoma
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest
Wall
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the hallmark finding of diaphragm paralysis?
A) Rapid and shallow breathing
B) Weak cough
C) Abdominal paradox
D) Retractions
Q2) Which of the following would not be considered a common pulmonary consequence of neuromuscular disease?
A) Sleep apnea
B) Aspiration
C) Cor pulmonale
D) Pneumothorax
Q3) By what age do most patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy die?
A) 10 years
B) 20 years
C) 35 years
D) 50 years
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Chapter 33: Disorders of Sleep
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are true about obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?
1) It is overdiagnosed in the United States.
2) It has an equivalent prevalence to asthma in the general population.
3) It has an equivalent prevalence to diabetes in the general population.
4) The spectrum of the disease includes sleep disruption related to increased airway resistance.
A)1 and 2 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1, 2, and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
Q2) What is the primary cause of obstructive sleep apnea?
A) Small or unstable pharyngeal airway
B) Deviated septum
C) Unstable larynx
D) Large tongue
Q3) In what way do BiPAP units differ from CPAP units?
A) BiPAP applies different pressure levels on inspiration and exhalation.
B) BiPAP units cost significantly more that CPAP units.
C) BiPAP operates on electricity.
D) BiPAP simulates spontaneous breathing.
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Chapter 34: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders
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70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following therapies has little effect on long-term outcome such as mortality and duration of oxygen therapy in infants with BPD?
A) Diuretics
B) Steroids
C) Antibiotics
D) Bronchodilators
Q2) Which of the following factors is associated with an increase in the incidence of RDS?
A) Maternal heart disease
B) Maternal diabetes
C) Maternal asthma
D) Long labor
Q3) Which of the following diagnostic tools serves to confirm the diagnosis of congenital heart disease?
A) Sweat test
B) Fluoroscopy
C) Chest radiography
D) Ultrasound
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36
Chapter 35: Airway Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bland aerosols are best classified as:
A) mucolytics.
B) bronchodilators.
C) expectorants.
D) mucoactive therapy.
Q2) Adrenergic bronchodilators improve flow rates for which of the following diseases?
1) Asthma
2) Acute bronchitis
3) Chronic bronchitis
4) Pulmonary fibrosis
A)1 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)2, 3, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q3) Zileuton belongs to which of the following categories?
A) Cromolyn-like agents
B) Leukotriene modifiers
C) Anti-IgE agents
D) Anti-IgA agents
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Airway Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common problem with fenestrated tracheostomy tubes?
A) Relative frequency of accidental extubation
B) Increased likelihood of tracheomalacia
C) Poor positioning of the tube fenestration
D) Inability to provide mechanical ventilation
Q2) What is the primary indication for tracheal suctioning?
A) Presence of pneumonia
B) Presence of atelectasis
C) Ineffective coughing
D) Retention of secretions
Q3) Which of the following is likely to increase the likelihood of damage to the tracheal mucosa?
A) Maintaining cuff pressures below 20 to 25 mm Hg
B) Using the minimal leak technique for inflation
C) Using a low-residual-volume, low-compliance cuff
D) Monitoring intracuff pressures every 1 to 2 hr
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Chapter 37: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support
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70 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is having frequent premature ventricular contractions and runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which of the following drugs would be considered for this patient?
1) Procainamide
2) Epinephrine HCl
3) Atropine
4) Amiodarone
A)1 and 3 only
B)2 only
C)1 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
Q2) During properly performed external chest compression on infants, how should the middle and index fingers be positioned?
A) One finger width above the tip of the xiphoid
B) 1.0 to 1.5 in above the tip of the xiphoid
C) 1.0 to 1.5 in below the tip of the manubrium
D) Placed just below nipple line in center of chest
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Chapter 38: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy
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109 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following devices would you recommend to administer bland water aerosol to an infant or small child?
A) Face tent
B) Croup tents
C) T tube
D) Aerosol mask
Q2) The relief valve on a bubble humidifier serves which of the following functions?
1) It indicates when flow has been interrupted.
2) It protects the device from pressure damage.
3) It warns you when the water level is low.
A)1 and 2 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)1, 2, and 3
Q3) What is the most common device used to generate bland aerosols?
A) Small-volume jet nebulizer
B) Ultrasonic nebulizer
C) Large-volume jet nebulizer
D) Spinning disk nebulizer
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Chapter 39: Aerosol Drug Therapy
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116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is false about changes in aerosol suspensions over time?
A) Liquid aerosol particles can shrink (evaporation) or grow (water absorption).
B) The rate of particle growth is directly proportional to particle size.
C) Small water-based particles tend to shrink when exposed to dry gas.
D) Aerosols of water-soluble salts tend to grow in a humidified environment.
Q2) Where do most aerosol particles that are less than 3 µm deposit?
A) Alveoli
B) Bronchioles
C) Central airways
D) Upper airways
Q3) To minimize a patient's infection risk between drug treatments with a small-volume jet nebulizer (SVN), what would you do?
A) Rinse the SVN with sterile water; air dry.
B) Carefully repackage the SVN in its wet state.
C) Rinse the SVN with tap water; run until dry.
D) Throw out the SVN after every treatment.
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Chapter 40: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are true about ASSS standards?
1) They provide specifications for more than 60 gases and mixtures.
2) They apply only to cylinders sizes F through H/K.
3) They apply to high-pressure connections.
4) They provide a separate connector for all gases.
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
Q2) Which of the following are true about a Bourdon gauge?
1) It is always used with an adjustable high-pressure reducing valve.
2) It actually senses pressure but is calibrated to display flow.
3) It reads a flow higher than actual if downstream pressure increases.
4) It will register zero flow when the outlet is completely blocked.
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
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Chapter 41: Medical Gas Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following signs and symptoms are associated with the presence of hypoxemia?
1) Tachypnea
2) Tachycardia
3) Cyanosis
4) Bradycardia
A)2 and 3 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)1, 2, and 3 only
D)1 and 4 only
Q2) What is the upper limit of O<sub>2</sub> concentrations available through tents?
A) 60% to 70%
B) 50% to 60%
C) 40% to 50%
D) 30% to 40%
Q3) Which of the following is false about the simple O<sub>2</sub> mask?
A) It has no valving system or reservoir bag.
B) It can easily deliver high FiO<sub>2</sub> values (>0.6 to 0.7).
C) It requires a minimal input flow of 5 L/min.
D) It generally functions as a variable-performance system.
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Chapter 42: Lung Expansion Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Successful application of incentive spirometry depends on:
A) the use of a true volume-oriented incentive spirometry system.
B) the type of surgery previously performed.
C) the effectiveness of patient teaching.
D) setting an easily achieved initial goal.
Q2) Which of the following is FALSE about flow-oriented incentive spirometry devices?
A) Inspired volume is estimated as the product of flow and time.
B) Motivation is based on keeping the indicator balls elevated.
C) They have proved less effective than volumetric systems.
D) They provide only an indirect measure of inspired volume.
Q3) The short-term application of inspiratory positive pressure to a spontaneously breathing patient best defines which of the following?
A) Sustained maximal inspiration
B) Intermittent positive-pressure breathing
C) Continuous positive airway pressure
D) Positive end-expiration pressure
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Chapter 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions are associated with chronic production of large volumes of sputum?
1) Bronchiectasis
2) Pulmonary fibrosis
3) Cystic fibrosis
4) Chronic bronchitis
A)1, 3, and 4 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)2, 3, and 4 only
D)3 and 4 only
Q2) The airway clearance technique that uses a pneumatic device to deliver compressed gas minibursts to the airway at rates above 100/min best describes which of the following?
A) Intrapulmonary percussive ventilation
B) Active cycle of breathing
C) High-frequency external chest wall compression
D) Intermittent positive-pressure breathing
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Chapter 44: Respiratory Failure and the Need for
Ventilatory
Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Breathing 100% O<sub>2</sub>, a patient has a PaO<sub>2</sub>-PaO<sub>2</sub> of 60 mm Hg. Based on this information, what might you conclude?
A) The patient has severe hypoxemia.
B) The patient has an excessive work of breathing.
C) The patient has acceptable oxygenation.
D) The patient has inadequate ventilation.
Q2) Which of the following could cause hypercapnic respiratory failure?
1) Smoke inhalation
2) Opiate drug overdose
3) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
4) Hypothyroidism
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
Q3) What is respiratory failure due to inadequate ventilation?
A) Hypoxemic
B) Hypercapnic
C) Compensated
D) Chronic
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Chapter 45: Mechanical Ventilators
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving continuous mandatory ventilation in the control mode at a rate of 20/min. The inspiratory time is 0.75 sec. What is the percentage inspiratory time?
A) 20%
B) 25%
C) 30%
D) 33%
Q2) The respiratory therapist has been called to transport a patient from the emergency department to obtain a CT scan. Which of the following types of ventilator should the therapist chose to transport the patient?
A) Electric
B) Apneuistic
C) Pneumatic
D) Electronic
Q3) Which of the following ventilators is controlled by fluidic logic systems?
A) Siemens Servo 300
B) Bio-Med MVP-10
C) Bird 8400ST
D) Bear 1000
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Chapter 46: Physiology of Ventilatory Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following patients is positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP) most indicated? FiO<sub>2</sub> PaO<sub>2</sub>
A) 0.3 80 mm Hg
B) 0.5 80 mm Hg
C) 0.3 50 mm Hg
D) 0.5 50 mm Hg
Q2) Which of the following is considered a normal spontaneous tidal volume?
A) 3 to 5 ml/kg
B) 5 to 7 ml/kg
C) 7 to 9 ml/kg
D) 10 to 12 ml/kg
Q3) What spontaneous pressure-controlled breath mode allows separate regulation of the inspiratory and expiratory pressures?
A) Bilevel positive airway pressure
B) Continuous positive airway pressure
C) Pressure-supported ventilation
D) Pressure-controlled intermittent mandatory ventilation
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Chapter 47: Patient Ventilator Interaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are the effects of auto-PEEP on missed triggering improved in the presence of dynamic airway obstruction?
A) Adjustment of the sensitivity setting
B) The application of PEEP
C) Mode change
D) Administration of a bronchodilator
Q2) Your patient has relatively normal lungs and is receiving mechanical ventilation following surgery. You observe double triggering. What is the most likely cause?
A) The termination criteria is set too low.
B) The flow rate is too slow.
C) Auto-PEEP.
D) The inspiratory time is too short.
Q3) In which mode does double triggering most commonly occur?
A) Volume ventilation.
B) Pressure ventilation.
C) CPAP.
D) No mode is more susceptible.
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Chapter 48: Initiating and Adjusting Invasive Ventilatory Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are primary goals of mechanical ventilation?
1) Adequate alveolar ventilation (V<sub>A</sub>)
2) Maintaining adequate hemoglobin levels
3) Restoring acid-base balance
4) Maintaining adequate alveolar oxygenation
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 3, and 4 only
C)2 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
Q2) Which of the following criteria represents the recommended starting point for considering the use of PEEP?
A) PaO<sub>2</sub> less than 40 to 50 on FiO<sub>2</sub> greater than 0.80 - 1.0
B) PaO<sub>2</sub> less than 50 to 60 on FiO<sub>2</sub> greater than 0.40 - 0.50
C) PaO<sub>2</sub> less than 100 on FiO<sub>2</sub> of 1.0
D) PaO<sub>2</sub> less than 50 on FiO<sub>2</sub> greater than 0.75
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Chapter 49: Noninvasive Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is being ventilated with a nasal mask to relieve dyspnea. He has a long history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and hypercarbia. What is the goal of noninvasive ventilation in this setting with regard to the ABGs?
A) Return the PaCO<sub>2</sub> to 40 to 45 mm Hg.
B) Return the pH to near normal.
C) Return the PaCO<sub>2</sub> to less than 60 mm Hg.
D) Return the bicarbonate level to near normal.
Q2) Which of the following are benefits of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) in postoperative major abdominal surgery?
1) Lower mortality
2) Lower intubation rate
3) Lower incidence of pneumonia
4) Lower rate of sepsis
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
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Chapter 50: Extracorporeal Life Support Ecls
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are absolute contraindications for the use of ECMO?
1) Lethal congenital anomalies
2) Grade III or higher intracranial hemorrhage
3) Mechanical ventilation with 100% O<sub>2</sub> for greater than 13 days
4) Gestational age less than 34 weeks
A)1 and 2 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)2 and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) How is blood flow regulated during ECMO?
A) By dialing in a set RPM
B) By the amount of blood in the ECMO system
C) By administering Levaphed
D) By adjusting the blood temperature in the system
Q3) How is the ECMO system powered?
A) A pump
B) A piston
C) A compressor
D) Gravity
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Monitoring the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the normal range for pulmonary capillary wedge pressure?
A) 5 to 10 mm Hg
B) 15 to 20 mm Hg
C) 20 to 25 mm Hg
D) 30 to 35 mm Hg
Q2) What level of urine output is considered anuria?
A) Less than 500 ml/day
B) Less than 250 ml/day
C) Less than 150 ml/day
D) Less than 50 ml/day
Q3) Which of the following are associated with a decreased end-tidal PCO<sub>2</sub>?
1) Decreased metabolic rate
2) Increase in lung perfusion
3) Rapid and very shallow breathing
4) Decreased CO<sub>2</sub> production
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)2 and 4 only
D)1, 3, and 4 only
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Chapter 52: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common approaches used to wean patients from ventilatory support include which of the following?
1) T tube alternating with mechanical ventilation
2) Pressure-supported ventilation (PSV)
3) Intermittent mandatory ventilation
A)2 and 3 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)1, 2, and 3
D)1 and 3 only
Q2) Which of the following four adult patients receiving ventilatory support is the best candidate for weaning? VC V<sub>E</sub> MVV MIF V<sub>D</sub>/V<sub>T</sub>
A) 12 8 22 -22 0.58
B) 8 8 22 -15 0.40
C) 20 12 18 -22 0.60
D) 12 12 18 -10 0.40
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Chapter 53: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may indicate a decrease in systemic vascular blood flow during high-frequency ventilation?
1) High central venous pressure (CVP)
2) Low CVP
3) Decreased mean arterial pressure (MAP)
4) Increased MAP
A)1 and 3 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1 and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) Which of the following pH values is associated with fetal asphyxia?
A) Less than 7.1
B) Less than 7.2
C) Less than 7.3
D) Less than 7.4
Q3) What is the recommended dose of inhaled NO?
A) 10 ppm
B) 20 ppm
C) 30 ppm
D) 40 ppm
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Chapter 54: Patient Education and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the primary goal of health promotion?
A) Cure the disease.
B) Prevent the disease.
C) Change the lifestyle.
D) Provide knowledge about the disease.
Q2) Which of the following is the goal of tertiary prevention?
A) To prevent acceleration of the disease process once it has occurred
B) To cure the disease
C) To prevent related diseases
D) To stop recurrent episodes
Q3) When instructing children on asthma management, which factors should be considered in teaching children versus adults on such a topic?
1) Motivated by external factors
2) Directed by others
3) Limited experience
4) Learn slowly
A)1 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1, 2, and 3 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
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Chapter 55: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following health professionals would be best for conducting a pulmonary rehabilitation session on recreation and vocational counseling?
A) Physical therapist
B) Respiratory therapist
C) Clinical psychologist
D) Occupational therapist
Q2) Which of the following patients are good candidates for pulmonary rehabilitation?
1) Unstable cardiovascular patients who require monitoring
2) Patients with exercise limitations due to severe dyspnea
3) Patients with malignant neoplasms involving the lungs
A)2 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)1, 2, and 3
Q3) What is the ideal class size for pulmonary rehabilitation programs?
A) 5 to 15
B) 10 to 20
C) 20 to 30
D) 3 to 10
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Chapter 56: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings
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Sample Questions
Q1) Complications associated with insertion of a transtracheal O<sub>2</sub> catheter include all of the following except:
A) bleeding.
B) pneumothorax.
C) bronchospasm.
D) abscess.
Q2) At 3 to 5 L/min output, a typical molecular sieve O<sub>2</sub> concentrator provides O<sub>2</sub> concentrations at what level?
A) 65% to 78%
B) 78% to 85%
C) 85% to 93%
D) Greater than 93%
Q3) While visiting a patient who has been receiving transtracheal O<sub>2</sub> therapy for 6 months, you note marked erythema and swelling at the stoma site. Which of the following actions would be appropriate at this time?
A) Question the patient and family about their cleaning methods.
B) Promptly report your observations to the prescribing physician.
C) Liberally apply tincture of benzoin to the stoma site.
D) Flush the catheter and the tubing with H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>.
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Page 58