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Climate Science Final Test Solutions - 1236 Verified Questions

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Climate Science

Final Test Solutions

Course Introduction

Climate Science explores the fundamental principles that govern Earths climate system, including the atmosphere, oceans, and biosphere. This course covers the natural and human-driven processes influencing climate variability and long-term trends, with particular attention to the evidence and mechanisms of climate change. Students will examine observational data, climate models, and recent research to understand past, present, and future climate dynamics. The course also discusses the implications of climate change for ecosystems, societies, and policy decisions, equipping students with a foundational understanding necessary for addressing contemporary environmental challenges.

Recommended Textbook

Meteorology Today An Introduction to Weather Climate and the Environment 10th Edition by C.

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19 Chapters

1236 Verified Questions

1236 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Earth and Its Atmosphere

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is MOST likely associated with fair weather?

A) high pressure area

B) low pressure area

C) a cold front

D) a warm front

Answer: A

Q2) The primary source of energy for the earth's atmosphere is

A) energy from within the earth.

B) the sun.

C) erupting volcanoes.

D) lightning discharges associated with thunderstorms.

E) latent heat released during the formation of hurricanes.

Answer: B

Q3) The ozone hole is an actual hole in the atmosphere,a region of complete vacuum.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q4) Under what circumstances might a person breathe stratospheric air? How often is it likely to happen in a student's lifetime?

Answer: no answer

Page 3

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Chapter 2: Energy: Warming the Earth and the Atmosphere

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the poorest conductor of heat?

A) still air

B) water

C) ice

D) snow

E) soil

Answer: A

Q2) Perspiration cools the body by

A) advective heat transfer.

B) radiative heat transfer.

C) conductive heat transfer.

D) latent heat transfer.

Answer: D

Q3) The atmosphere near the earth's surface is "heated from below." Which of the following is NOT responsible for the heating?

A) conduction of heat upward from a hot surface

B) convection from a hot surface

C) absorption of infrared energy that has been radiated from the surface

D) heat energy from the earth's interior

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Seasonal and Daily Temperatures

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Sample Questions

Q1) On what day would you expect the sun to be overhead at Lima,Peru (latitude 12° S)?

A) August 15

B) December 22

C) February 4

D) March 10

E) April 21

Answer: C

Q2) Considering each hemisphere as a whole,seasonal temperature variation in the Southern Hemisphere is ____ that in the Northern Hemisphere.

A) greater than

B) about the same as C) less than

Answer: C

Q3) Longer days are generally associated with A) less insolation.

B) fewer heating degree days.

C) more insolation.

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Atmospheric Humidity

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the air is saturated,which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A) The air temperature equals the wet-bulb temperature.

B) The relative humidity is 100 percent.

C) The air temperature equals the dew point temperature.

D) An increase in temperature will cause condensation to occur.

E) The wet bulb temperature equals the dew point temperature.

Q2) The percentage of water vapor present in the air compared to that required for saturation is the

A) mixing ratio.

B) absolute humidity.

C) dew point.

D) relative humidity.

E) specific humidity.

Q3) As the difference between the air temperature and the dew point increases,the relative humidity

A) increases.

B) decreases.

C) remains constant at a value less than 100 percent.

D) remains constant and equal to 100 percent.

Q4) Why is perspiration an effective means of cooling human skin?

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Chapter 5: Condensation: Dew, Fog, and Clouds

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Sample Questions

Q1) Frost forms when

A) objects on the ground cool below the dew point temperature.

B) the dew point is 32 F or below.

C) water vapor changes into ice without first becoming a liquid.

D) all of the above

Q2) Suppose the sky is covered with stratus clouds.How might you determine whether middle or high clouds are also present?

Q3) Particles that serve as surfaces on which water vapor may condense are called

A) hydrophobic nuclei.

B) nacreous nuclei.

C) condensation nuclei.

D) scud.

Q4) When radiation fog "burns off",the fog tends to dissipate

A) from the bottom up.

B) from the top down.

C) starting at the middle and working both upward and downward.

Q5) It is a cold winter night and a fog cloud forms.If it continues to cool during the night would you expect to find that the dew point has changed overnight? If so,would you expect to find that dew point has increased or decreased?

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Chapter 6: Stability and Cloud Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sinking air sometimes cools adiabatically.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The rate at which the temperature changes inside a rising (or descending)parcel of saturated air is called the

A) environmental lapse rate.

B) dry adiabatic lapse rate.

C) moist adiabatic lapse rate.

D) latent heat release rate.

Q3) What two sets of conditions,working together,will make the atmosphere the most unstable?

A) Cool the surface and warm the air aloft.

B) Cool the surface and cool the air aloft.

C) Warm the surface and cool the air aloft.

D) Warm the surface and warm the air aloft.

Q4) An example of orographic clouds would be

A) clouds forming over a warm ocean current.

B) clouds forming on the windward slope of a mountain.

C) clouds forming behind a jet airplane.

D) clouds formed by surface heating.

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Precipitation

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Sample Questions

Q1) When precipitation is falling in the form of sleet,what conclusions can you make regarding the vertical profile of temperature between the ground and the cloud?

Q2) Which type of precipitation would most likely form when the surface air temperature is slightly below freezing and the air temperature increases as you move upward away from the ground?

A) freezing rain

B) hail

C) rain

D) snow

E) drizzle

Q3) Homogeneous nucleation occurs when

A) water vapor condenses onto hygroscopic nuclei.

B) water vapor condenses onto hydrophobic nuclei.

C) water vapor condenses without nuclei.

D) all the condensation nuclei are exactly the same.

Q4) Explain why it is possible for an ice crystal to grow in a cold cloud even though the supercooled water droplets surrounding the ice crystal do not.

Q5) Is silver iodide used as a cloud seeding agent in warm or cold clouds? Why?

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Chapter 8: Air Pressure and Winds

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Sample Questions

Q1) The unit of pressure most commonly found on a surface weather map is

A) inches of mercury.

B) millibars or hectopascals.

C) pounds per square inch.

D) atmospheres.

Q2) The surface pressures at the bases of warm and cold columns of air are equal.Which of the following statements is not correct?

A) Pressure will decrease with increasing height at the same rate in both columns.

B) The cold air is denser than the warm air.

C) Both columns of air contain the same total number of air molecules.

D) The weight of each column of air is the same.

Q3) Explain briefly why upper-level winds at middle latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere blow from west to east.In what direction do upper level winds at middle latitudes in the Southern Hemisphere blow?

Q4) If the earth were to begin rotating in the other direction,would air still rise in the center of surface low pressure?

Q5) Under what conditions might a station pressure of 750 mb be observed?

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Chapter 9: Wind: Small Scale and Local Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is not a characteristic of a thermal low?

A) forms in a region of warm air

B) forms in response to variations in surface air temperature

C) becomes stronger with increasing height

D) lowest pressure is at the center

Q2) Which of the following is a serious hazard to aircraft?

A) molecular viscosity

B) laminar flow

C) clear-air turbulence

D) longwaves in the westerlies

E) none of the above

Q3) The size and shape of a turbulent eddy depend on

A) the size of the obstacle.

B) the shape of the obstacle.

C) the speed of the wind.

D) all of the above

E) only size and shape of the obstacle.

Q4) Areas along the shores of the Great Lakes often experience a lake breeze circulation.Are these winds different than those associated with a sea breeze circulation? Explain.

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Chapter 10: Wind: Global Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why is the single cell model of the general circulation not an accurate description of the actual circulation of the atmosphere?

Q2) The majority of the United States lies within this wind belt:

A) westerlies

B) easterlies

C) northerlies

D) trades

E) southerlies

Q3) What meteorological conditions are typically associated with the ITCZ?

Q4) Generally,along the polar front,one would not expect to observe

A) temperatures on one side lower than on the other side.

B) an elongated region of lower pressure.

C) clouds and precipitation.

D) converging surface air.

E) sinking air aloft.

Q5) Jet streams sometimes split into two branches.

A)True

B)False

Q6) What is the polar jet stream and where is it found?

Q7) How does El Niño change the weather where you live?

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Chapter 11: Air Masses and Fronts

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Sample Questions

Q1) A "back door" cold front describes which of the following situations?

A) a cold front moving into Washington state from the Pacific ocean

B) a cold front moving into the desert southwest from Northern Mexico

C) a cold front that moves into New England from the Atlantic Ocean

D) a cold front that moves in a clockwise direction around a low pressure center

Q2) Why is the formation of air masses associated with high pressure systems rather than low pressure systems?

Q3) Alternating lines of blue and red on a surface weather chart indicate

A) a cold front.

B) a warm front.

C) a stationary front.

D) an occluded front.

Q4) The word "frontogenesis" on a weather map would mean that

A) a front is in the process of dissipating.

B) one front is about to overtake another front.

C) a front is regenerating or strengthening.

D) severe thunderstorms will form along a front.

Q5) List the four basic types of air masses.Give an example of where each type could originate.

Q6) How do upper-air fronts form?

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Middle-Latitude Cyclones

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Sample Questions

Q1) Strong storms that develop over water,poleward of the polar front,are called A) nor'easters.

B) upslope lows.

C) lee-side lows.

D) polar lows.

E) none of the above

Q2) Rossby waves are also known as A) stable waves.

B) shortwaves.

C) tidal waves.

D) longwaves.

Q3) The type of weather system known as a "mid-latitude cyclone" cannot form over the tropical ocean because:

A) surface temperature contrasts are not large.

B) the ocean surface has a lot of waves.

C) the Coriolis force is weak in the tropics.

D) both surface temperature contrasts are not large and the ocean surface has a lot of waves.

E) both surface temperature contrasts are not large and the Coriolis force is weak in the tropics.

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Chapter 13: Weather Forecasting

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Sample Questions

Q1) A prog is

A) a chart that interprets the current state of the atmosphere.

B) an instrument that draws lines on an upper-level chart.

C) a new method of forecasting the weather.

D) a forecast chart that shows the atmosphere at some future time.

E) another name for a probability forecast.

Q2) Why do clouds tend to reduce temperatures during the day but increase temperatures at night?

Q3) Explain how observed teleconnection patterns can help in the preparation of a seasonal weather forecast.

Q4) Suppose that where you live,the middle of January is typically several degrees warmer than the rest of the month.If you forecast this "January thaw" for the middle of next January,you would have made a

A) forecast based on the analogue method.

B) persistence forecast.

C) forecast based on weather types.

D) probability forecast.

E) climatological forecast.

Q5) Describe the relationship between dew point and minimum temperatures.

Q6) Describe the difference between persistence and steady-state forecasts.

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Thunderstorms and Tornadoes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most frequent time of day for tornadoes to form is in the

A) early morning just after sunrise.

B) late morning just before noon.

C) evening just after sunset.

D) afternoon.

E) middle of the night.

Q2) Electrons

A) are negatively charged.

B) are positively charged.

C) carry no charge.

D) can carry either positive or negative charge.

Q3) List and discuss some of the atmospheric conditions that are needed for a thunderstorm to develop.

Q4) The initial stage of an ordinary thunderstorm is the

A) mature stage.

B) dissipating stage.

C) cumulus stage.

D) multicell stage.

Q5) What makes a tornado-producing thunderstorm different from other thunderstorms?

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Q6) Most tornadoes move from the southwest toward the northeast.Why is this true?

Chapter 15: Hurricanes

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Sample Questions

Q1) A hurricane warning

A) gives the exact location where a hurricane will make landfall.

B) is usually issued several days ahead of a hurricane's arrival.

C) gives the percent chance of a hurricane's center passing within 65 miles of a community.

D) is issued when a hurricane approaches to within 500 miles of the U.S.mainland.

E) is issued whenever surface wind speeds exceed 74 mi/hr.

Q2) The favorable stability condition for hurricane development is

A) a deep layer of stable air.

B) a shallow layer of absolutely unstable air.

C) a shallow layer of conditionally unstable air.

D) a deep layer of conditionally unstable air.

Q3) In your opinion do hurricanes pose the greatest threat to the east or west coast of the United States? Explain.

Q4) In recent years,the number of deaths caused by hurricanes has decreased,but the cost of hurricane damage has increased.How would you explain this?

Q5) Why are the measurements made by reconnaissance aircraft so important to forecasting a hurricane's movement?

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Chapter 16: Earths Changing Climate

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Sample Questions

Q1) Explain how analysis of glacial and polar ice cores provides important clues about past climate.

Q2) A significant percentage of the observations comprising the much-studied temperature record of the past 140 years were not air temperatures,but rather were temperatures of ocean surface waters.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In addition to carbon dioxide,what other gases may contribute to the problem of global warming? Why might global warming lead to an increase in global cloudiness? What possible effects would increased cloudiness have on global warming?

Q4) The Viking colony in Greenland perished during

A) the Pleistocene epoch.

B) the climatic optimum.

C) the Little Ice Age.

D) the explosion of Mount Pinatubo.

Q5) The warming trend that began in the 1970s

A) extended to the 1990s.

B) ended during the mid-1980s.

C) has extended into the twenty-first century.

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Chapter 17: Global Climate

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Sample Questions

Q1) Locations at middle latitudes with monthly average temperatures in the winter that are below 18°C (64°F),but above -3°C (27°F)have ____ climates.

A) humid subtropical

B) moist continental

C) semi-arid

D) steppe

Q2) What differences exist between tropical wet (Af),tropical monsoon (Am),and tropical wet and dry (Aw)climates? Would you expect to observe any significant differences in types of vegetation in these different climates groups?

Q3) The climate of an area about the size of a town would be described as

A) mesoclimate.

B) macroclimate.

C) microclimate.

D) urban climate.

Q4) Tree growth is not possible in a region where

A) annual precipitation is 20 inches or less.

B) average monthly temperatures never exceed 10°C (50°F).

C) average monthly temperatures are sometimes less than 0°C (32°F).

D) evaporation exceeds total annual precipitation.

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Chapter 18: Air Pollution

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Sample Questions

Q1) When chlorofluorocarbons are subjected to ultraviolet radiation,____ is released which rapidly destroys ozone.

A) chlorine

B) nitrogen

C) carbon dioxide

D) carbon

E) water vapor

Q2) An air quality index value of 35 on a particular day would indicate ____ conditions.

A) good

B) unhealthful

C) extremely hazardous

D) moderately hazardous

Q3) The problem of acid rain is probably most severe in which of the following regions?

A) Gulf Coast

B) New England

C) Desert Southwest

D) Pacific Northwest

E) Central Plains

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Light, Color, and Atmospheric Optics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Would you expect to see a halo under clear or cloudy conditions? What does a halo tell you about upper atmospheric conditions?

Q2) Which of the following are capable of producing a red sunrise or sunset?

A) small suspended salt particles

B) volcanic ash

C) small suspended dust particles

D) all of the above

Q3) White light is ____ of electromagnetic radiation.

A) a single long wavelength

B) a single short wavelength

C) a mixture of all visible wavelengths

D) a mixture of all types

Q4) The sky is blue because air molecules selectively ____ blue light.

A) scatter

B) absorb

C) diffract

D) disperse

E) emit

Q5) Describe the changes in appearance of a late-afternoon rainbow as the sun sinks toward the horizon.

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